GS Question Paper II of UPPSC Combined State Upper Subordinate Services Main Exam- 2010

Question Paper of General Studies Paper II of the UPPSC Main Exam. You can read the questions here and prepare your GS objective paper for the upcoming Competitive Examinations.

Created On: Sep 28, 2011 16:48 IST
Modified On: Sep 30, 2011 16:39 IST

 The Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission held the Combined State/Upper Subordinate Services (Main) Examination-2010 from 1 August to 19 August 2011. The following are the Questions of the General Studies Paper II of the UPPSC Main Exam.

General Studies Paper – II

1. The Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission under Article

(a) 321

(b) 322

(c) 323

(d) 324

2. Consider the following statements and state which one of them is correct?

(a) Supreme Court of India has only original jurisdiction.

(b) It has only original and appellate jurisdiction

(c) It has only advisory and appellate jurisdiction

(d) It has original appellate as well as advisory jurisdiction

3. The farming of the Constitution of India was completed by

(a) January 26, 1950

(b) November 26, 1949

(c) February 11, 1948

(d) None of the above

4. Civil Society’s representatives in the panel for drafting the Lokpal Bill include:

1. Anna Hazare

2. Prashant Joshi

3. Santosh Hegde

4. Kiran Bedi

5. Shanti Bhushan

Select your correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2, and 3

(d) Only 1, 3, and 5

5. Which of the following statement about the farming of the India Constitution is correct?

1. Pt. Nehru’s objective resolution adopted by the Constitution (missing word) Assembly had a bearing on (missing word) farming of the Constitution.

2. The Preamble serves (missing word) important purposes.

3. The Constitution has been ordained by the people of India

4. The Head of the State is elected directly by the people.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:


(a)  1,2 and 3        (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c)  2, 3 and 4       (d) All the following

6. Establishment of the Panchayati system was recommended by

(a) The government of India 1935

(b) The Cripps Mission of 1942

(c) The Indian Independence 1947

(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Commission Report 1957.

7. The Guardian of Fundamental Ring (missing word) is

(a) Judiciary

(b) Executive

(c) Parliament

(d) None of the above

8. In 2003, OBC status of Gurkhas (missing) word given in

(a) U.P

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Uttarakhand

9. The Joint Parliamentary Committee set up for probating the 2G spectrum issue, consists of

(a) 15 members from each of the two Houses.

(b) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(c) 18 members from Lok Sabha and 12 members from Rajya Sabha

(d) 16 members from Lok Sabha and 14 members from Rajya Sabha

10. The joint Parliamentary Committee examining the 2G Scam is headed by

(a) Murali Manohar Joshi

(b) P. Moily

(c) P.C. Chacko

(d) Sushma Swaraj

11. Which one of the following is not a correct situation of the status of a Central Council of Ministers at the time of their resignation?

(a) President’s rule will be imposed.

(b) The President will ask to continue till alternative arrangement.

(c) Alternative arrangement means earliest possible general election to be held to form a new Government.

(d) Outgoing Council of Ministers may have to hold charge till the formation of new Government.

12. Which one of the following is not an important and permanent constituent in the Constitutional History of India as adopted in the Government of India Act, 1935?

(a) A written Constitution for the country

(b) Elected representatives responsible to the Legislature

(c) Envisaging a scheme of Federation

(d) Nomination of official Members to the Legislature.

13. Which one of the following is not covered by the Anti Defection Law?

(a) En – bloc defections in a Party

(b) Larger defection in a Party in various spells

(c) Smaller defection in a single spell

(d) Party members in Parliament casting vote either to topple or support a Government.

14. Which of the following is not concerned with the Panchayats?

(a) The State Election Commission will conduct Panchayat elections

(b) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act

(c) There shall be a fixed five year term for all the Panchayat.

(d) Fresh elections would have to be held within six months of the dissolution of a Panchayat.

15. The National Development Council (N.D.C)

1. Discusses the progress of the National plan.

2. Suggests the ways to achieve goals of the National plan.

3. gives guidelines to formulate the National plan.

4. suggests plan allocations

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) All of above

16. The President of India may declare the National Emergency if there is threat of:

1. External aggression

2. Internal disturbances

3. Armed rebellion

4. Communal clashes

Select the correct answer from the code given below:


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

17. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion and the other labeled as Reason.

Assertion (A): “Planning Commission has been defined as the economic cabinet” not merely for the Union but for the States also.

Assertion (R): It formulates the five year plans for the balanced utilization of natural resources. In the context of the above statements which one of the following is correct?


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is false.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

18. Adhyaksh of a Zila Panchayat in U.P. is elected:

1. Directly by persons whose names appear in electoral rolls of the Kshetra Panchayats?

2. by the members of Zila Panchayat from among themselves.

3. by the SC/ST members of the Zila Panchayat from among themselves (if reserved for them)

4. by the members of Zila Panchayat belonging to backward classes from among themselves (if reserved for them)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 1 only    (b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4    (d) 2, 3 and 4

19. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of the State Policy?

(a) Uniform Civil Code

(b) Freedom of the Press

(c) Freedom of the Religion

(d) Equality before Law

20. In a Parliamentary system of the Government

(a) Judiciary controls Executive

(b) Executive controls Judiciary

(c) Executive controls Legislature

(d) Legislature controls Executive

21. Estimates Committee is constituted from the members of

(a) Both the Houses

(b) The Rajya Sabha

(c) The Lok Sabha

(d) None of these

22. Which one of the following points differentiate the Indian Parliamentary system from the British Parliamentary system?

(a) Collective Responsibility

(b) Judicial Review

(c) Bicameral Legislature

(d) Real and nominal Executive

23. Power of the President to grant pardons etc. is a

(a) Legislative Power

(b) Judicial Power

(c) Executive Power

(d) None of the above

24. The stages in the normal financial legislation include:

1.  Presentation of the Budget

2. Discussion on the Budget

3. Passing of Appropriation Bill

4. Vote on Account

5. Passing of the Finance Bill

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 1, 2 and 3        (b) 1,3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

25. Right to vote and Right to be elected in India is a

(a) Constitutional Right

(b) Fundamental Right

(c) Legal Right under an Act

(d) None of these

26. Which among the following States has the lowest number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Chhattisgarh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Jharkhand

(d) Jammu – Kashmir

27. Which one of the following was a leap year?

(a) 1300       (b) 1100

(c) 1900        (d) 2000

28. If 450 students take an admission test for joining a Navodaya Vidyalaya of which 10% get average and 20% fail to get through. How many of examinees would get admitted to the school?

(a) 310        (b) 315

(c) 300        (d) 410

29. What number will occur at the end of the following series?

13, 23, 34, 46, 59,…..?

(a) 69        (b) 70

(c) 72        (d) 73

30.  An individual is cycling at a speed of 25 km per hour. He catches his predecessor who had started earlier in two hours. What is the speed of his predecessor who had started 3 hours earlier?

(a) 15 km per hour

(b) 12 km per hour

(c) 10 km per hour

(d) 8 km per hour

31. If a 36 inches long strip of cloth shrinks to 33 inches after being washed, how many inches long will the same strip remain after washing if it were 48 inches long?

(a) 47 inches        (b) 44 inches

(c) 45 inches        (d) 46 inches

32. For natural numbers, the statement (a+b)+c=a+(b+c) is knows as

(a) Closure law

(b) Commutative law

(c) Distributive law

(d) Associative law

33. Which of the following numbers is such that if divided by 13, yields a remainder of 4 and when divided by 17, it leaves a remainder 11?
(a) 654        (b) 589
(c) 576        (d) 760

34. If the following words are arranged in proper sequence in terms of growth, with what letter will the middle world start?
Old age, infancy, youth, adolescence, childhood

(a)  Y       (b) c

(c) o        (d) a

35. If a, b, c are integers, and then distributive law, for multiplication over addition is

(a) a x (b+c) =(axb)+c

(b) a +(bxc) =(a+b) x (a+c)

(c) a + (bxc)=(a+b) x c

36. Find out that number from the following whose square root are both even numbers and the square does not exceed three digits?

(a) 8        (b) 16

(c) 36       (d) 64

37. What will be at the place of question mark in the following diagram?


(a) 53        (b) 60

(c) 44        (d) 55

38. If the code of ABSENT is ZYHVMG, then code of PRESENT will be

(a) KIHVHGM        (b) KIVHVMG

(c) KITMHMG        (d) GKITYTL

39. The diagonals of arhombus are of length 24 cms and 10 cms. The perimeter of the rhombus is

(a) 72 cms        (b) 68 cms

(c) 56 cms        (d) 52 cms

40. The number 18.484848 …….when represented in P/n form becomes

(a) 200/11        (b) 462/25

(c) 610/33        (d) 609/33

41. The Number at the question mark will be:


(a)  18        (b) 210

(c)  27         (d) 28

42.  In the square.


6 10

The number in the blank place should be

(a) 30        (b) 32

(c) 34        (d) 38

43. If the radius of circle is increased by 50%, then area of the circle will increase by

(a) 50%       (b) 75%

(c) 100 %    (d) 125 %

44. A sells his goods 10% cheaper than B and 10 % dearer than C. A consumer of B saves, by taking (fig) 180 worth of goods from C

(a) (rupees symbol) 10        (b) (rupees symbol) 20

(c) (rupees symbol) 40         (d) (rupees symbol) 60

45. Which one of the following is different from the rest as a class?

(a) Guitar        (b) Flute

(c) Sarod        (d) Veena

46. A sum of (ruppes symbal) 2,000 was lent partly at 60% and partly at 7%. The total simple interest received after 4 years was (Rs symbol) 532. The sum lent at 60% was

(a) (Sumbol of Ruppes) 1,000  (b) (Sumbol of Ruppes) 900

(c) (Sumbol of Ruppes) 800     (d) (Sumbol of Ruppes) 700

47. Given

n 1 = 40,     n 2 =60

X1= 8         X 2 = 14/3

The combined mean X is

(a)  5        (b) 6

(c) 6.5       (d) 6.8

48. If the Mean and Median for a moderately asymmetric distribution are 15.6 and 15.73 respectively, then its Mode is

(a) 15.69    (b) 15.80

(c) 15.99    (d) 15.89

49. State which of the following variables are discrete variables:

Select your answer from the given code:

1. Marks scored (to the nearest unit) out of 50 in a test.

2. Daily temperature of your city.

3. Sizes of shoes

4. Distance travelled by a man.


(a) Only 1 and 3     (b) only 1 and 2

(c)  Only 2 and 3    (d) only 3 and 4

50. What is the probability that a non- leap year would have fifty three Sundays?

(a) What is the probability that a non-leap year would have fifty three Sunday?

(a) 1/52

(b) 1/7

(c) 1/6

(d) None of these

51. Frequency polygon can be superimposed on a histogram by joining the

(a) mid points of the upper side

(b) left end points of the upper side

(c) right end points of the upper side

(d) neither of these

52. The cut point of ‘less than’ and ‘more than’ cumulative frequency curves corresponds to the

(a) Mean      (b) Median

(c) Mode      (d) Q1

53. from a pack of 52 cards. Two cards are drawn. The number of ways that these are one King and one Queen, are

(a) 16      (b) 12

(c) 8        (d) 4

54. Find out arithmetic mean from the given table.


Class Interval
30-40 40-50


(a) 26.5        (b) 26.0

(c) 25.5        (d) 25.0

55. The average weight of 4 boys is 60 kg. the first weighs one fourth of the sum of the last three. The weight of the first boy in kg is

(a) 15        (b) 45

(c) 48        (d) 51

56. The average score for boys and girls in Hindi are 63 and 67 respectively. The combined average is 64.5. The ratio of the number of girls (n1) and number of the boys (n2); i.e. (n1/ n2) is

(a) 3/5        (b) 2/5

(c) 3/4        (d) 4/5

57. Find the value of x when the Mean of the following distribution is 31.87.



x 54
90 30

(a) 41        (b) 42

(c) 43        (d) 45

58. A batsman in his 17 th inning makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his average by 3. His average after 17 th inning is

(a) 37        (b) 35

(c) 33        (d) 31

59. Following numbers have been written in ascending order. Their Median is 190. Find the value of x.

20, 35, 50, 80, 100+x, 200+x, 340, 520, 800 and 1205

(a) 45

(b) 40

(c) 36

(d) None of these

60.  State if the following statements are true or false. Find your correct answer from the given code:

(1) Standard deviation can never be negative

(2) The sum of squared deviations measured from mean is lest.


(a) Both (1) and (2) are true.

(b) Both (1) and (2) are false.

(c) (1) is true, (2) is false.

(d) (1) is false, (2) is true.

61. A bag contains 20 tickets marked with numbers 1 to 20. One ticket is drawn at random. Find the probability that it will be a multiple of 2 or 5.

(a) 0.7        (b) 0.6

(c) 0.5        (d) 0.4

62. There are 154 beads in a rosary and all are coloured, either ‘red’ or ‘blue’ or ‘green’. The number of blue ones is three less than red and five more than green ones. The number of red beads is

(a) 55        (b) 52

(c) 47        (d) 45

63. For the Mean (A), Median (M) and Mode (Mo), the correct relation is

(a) Mo = 3M - A

(b) A – Mo = 3(A - M)

(c) M = 3Mo - 2A

(d) A = 3M - 2Mo

64. If 10 men among whom are A and B stand in row; What is the probability that there will be exactly 3 men between A and B ?

(a) 1/15

(b) 1/5

(c) 2/15

(d) None of these

65. Two samples A and B have same standard deviations, but the Mean of A is greater than Mean of B. Then, the coefficient of variation of A is

(a) greater than that of B

(b) less than that of B

(c) equal to that of B

(d) none of these

66. The growth of no-aligned member countries for a certain period is as given below:

(Year)           : Y1   Y2    Y3    Y4    Y5    Y6    Y7

(Members)    :  25   47   54   75    86      94   99

The percentage increase in the members in Y7 compared to Y6 is

(a) 5.41        (b) 5.32

(c) 5.11        (d) 4.97

67. Match – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

             List- I                                 List- II
        (Scientist)                         (Discovery)

A.    Alfred Nobel                1. Theory of Evaluation

B.    Alexander Fleming       2. Dynamite

C.    Charles Darwin            3. Penicillin

D.    Madame Curie            4. Isolation of radium

         A          B          C        D
(a)     1        2       3      4

(b)     2        3       1      4

(c)     3         2       1      4

(d)     1        4        3      2

68. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Antifreeze compound – Ethylene glycol

(b) Antiknock agent           -   Tetra Ethyl Lead

(c) Anti-oxidant                   - β- Carotene

(d) Antibiotics                      - Quinine

69. Which one of the following sets makes the terminals of the ordinary torch cell?

(a) Zinc       - Carbon

(b) Copper  – Zinc

(c) Zinc       - Cadmium

(d) Carbon  – Copper

70. Which of the following explosives does not contain nitroglycerine as an essential constituent?

(a) Cordite

(b) Blasting Gelatine

(c) Dynamite

(d) Amatol

71. Which one of the following substances is used in photography and also as an antichlor?

(a) Chrome red

(b) Sodium thiosulphate

(c) Hydrogen peroxide

(d) Calomel

72. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Antipyretic               –   Paracetamol

(b) Antifoaming agent    –  Polyamides, silicones

(c) Antiseptic                 –  Aspirin

(d) Ant rachitic               –  Calciferol (Vitamin D)

73. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Bordeaux mixture is a mixture of copper (II) sulphate and calcium hydroxide in water and is used as fungicide.

(b) Boric acid is used in Pharmaceutical industry and also as food preservative.

(c) Dry Ice is solid carbon dioxide.

(d) Laughing gas is Nitric oxide.

74. Auxanometer is used to measure the rate of

(a) Photosynthesis

(b) Growth

(c) Osmosis

(d) Loss of Energy

75. Which one of the following is the longest flower in the world?

(a) Lotus

(b) Sunflower

(c) Rafflesia

(d) Glory Lily

76. Buckminster Fullerene is

(a) a form of carbon compound of clusters of 60 carbon atoms bonded together in poly-hedral structure composed of pentagons or hexagons

(b) a polymer of fluorine

(c) an isotope of carbon heavier than C14

(d) none of these

77. Censor mechanism of dispersal of seeds is found in

(a) Pea        (b) Poppy

(c) Cotton     (d) Maize

78. An organism involved in the fermentation of toddy is

(a) Lactobacillus

(b) Acetobacter

(c) Saccharomyces

(d) Penicillium

79. Limus – the acid base indicator is obtained from

(a) Bacterium

(b) lichen

(c) Virus

(d) none of the above

80. Which one of the following plant fibres is obtained from stem?

(a) Cotton        (b) Coir

(c) Sun hemp     (d) Kapak

81. The Type of fruit in which litchi can be placed is

(a) drupe

(b) hesperidium

(c) nut

(d) one seeded berry

82.  “Kuttu” flour is obtained from

(a) Tapioca        (b) Fagopyrum

(c) Plantago        (d) Eleusine

83. Which one of the following is the correct form of www?

(a) Window World Wide

(b) Web Working Window

(c) World Working Web

(d) World Wide Web

84. Which one of the following catalysts is used for hydrogenation of vegetable oils?

(a) Zinc dust        (b) Nickel

(c) Platinum        (d) Copper

85. Phenol is used in the manufacture of which one of the following?

(a) P.V.C        (b) Nylon

(c) Polystyrene (d) Bakelite

86. Consider the following:

Assertion (A)   : Alum is applied to stop bleeding from cuts.

Reason(R)       : Blood is colloidal system containing negatively charged colloidal particles. The Aluminum ions of Alum have high coagulating power so that the blood gets coagulated.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

87. After reaching the female genital tract, human sperms retain their fertilizing capacity for

(a) two minutes

(b) Twenty minutes

(c) ninety minutes

(d) one to two days

88. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

(a) Athlete’s foot        (b) Tuberculosis

(c) Ringworm              (d) Thrush

89. Angora wool is obtained from a breed of

(a) Sheep

(b) Fox

(c) Rabbit or Goat

(d) Tibetan Deer

90. One out of every 200 babies born in India dies of diarrhea caused by

(a) Bacteria        (b) Rotavirus

(d) Amoeba        (d) Fungus

91. Which of the following varieties of dogs is unable to bark?

(a) Dingo        (b) Alsatian

(c) Dalmatian   (d) Labrador

92. The Pulse in the human wrist beats

(a) faster than the heart

(b) slower than the heart

(c) at the same rate as the heart

(d) Independently of the heart

93. Which of the following human organs is responsible for detoxication of alcohol?

(a) Liver     (b) Lung

(c) Heart    (d) Kidney

94. A geostationary satellite a period of

(a) 6 hours        (b) 12 hours

(c) 18 hours        (d) 24 hours

95. The concept of expanding universe is based on

(a) Doppler effect

(b) Stark effect

(c) Zeeman effect

(d) Raman effect

96. Which one of the following coolants is used in the fast breeder reactor at Kalpakkam?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Heavy water

(c) Sea water

(d) Liquid sodium

97. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Knot   - Measure of speed of ship

(b) Nautical mile – Unit of distance used in navigation

(c) Angstrom – Unit of wavelength of light

(d) Light year – Unit for measuring time

98. INS – Shakti is India’s first indigenously built

(a) Warship

(b) Submarine

(c) Destroyer

(d) Rocket launcher

99. Which one the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Cobalt-60   - Treatment of cancer deep inside the body

(b) Iodine-131 - Treatment of Thyroid Cancer

(c) Phosphorous -32 – Treatment of Leukemia

(d) Gold – 198 - Treatment of retinal defects

100. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles?

(a) Plain        (b) Convex

(c) Concave    (b) Cylindrical

101. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Mirage is an optical illusion arising due to total internal reflection of light

(b) Concave mirrors are used in search lights

(c) In summer white or light colored clothes are preferred to dark coloured clothes generally

(d) Convex mirror with a small aperture is used by doctors to examine ear, nose or throat of a patient.

102. In the year 2009-10. Which of the following countries accounted for largest share in exports from India?

(a) U.A.E

(b) China

(c) U.S.A.

(d) Saudi Arabia

103. In the last one year i.e., June 2010 to June 2011, the difference between repo rate and reverse repo rate is of the order of

(a) 0.25 percent    (b) 0.50 percent

(c) 0.75 percent    (d) 1.00 percent

104.  “Skill Development Initiative” has been operationalised in

(a) February 2005

(b) February 2006

(c) May 2007

(d) April 2010

105. What is true for ‘Kurukshetra’ among the following?

(a) It is a theatre company.

(b) It is lead magazine for rural development

(c) It is cultural report of the Central Government.

(d) It is strategy for urbanizing rural areas.

106. “Red Ribbon Express” is a visual and moving medium for

(a) awareness about AIDS

(b) awareness about Pulse Polio

(c) Programme for protecting girl child

(d) Programme for protecting all the children from malnutrition

107. India receives largest inflow of foreign capital in equity investment from

(a) U.S.A

(b) Singapore

(c) Switzerland

(d) Mauritius

108. Which of the following countries is not a member of Asian Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA)?

(a) Lao PDR

(b) China

(c) Myanmar

(d) India

109. Which of the following crops is not covered under the National Food Security Mission?

(a) Pulses

(b) Rice

(c) Wheat

(d) Coarse Cereals

110. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation and publication of “Economic Survey”?

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Ministry of Planning and Programme Implementation

(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Reserve Bank of India

111. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

States                                   Child sex ratio (2011)

(a) Uttar Pradesh       -        890

(b) Madhya Pradesh   -        912

(c) Rajasthan             -       880

(d) Bihar                   -        946

112. Which of the following States has lowest population density in 2011?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Gujarat

(d) Karnataka

113. Which of the following States of India has lowest literacy rate, as per provisional figures of census 2011?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Jharkhand

114. According to the Index of Government Economic Power (IGEP), India’s rank in 2009 was

(a) Second   (b) Tenth

(c) Fifth        (d) Sixth

115. Recently, a scheme named “Swabhimaan” was launched. Its main aim is

(a) to take banks to the doorsteps of the rural poor.

(b) to provide skill to rural artisans.

(c) to empower rural women

(d) to provide houses to BPL families.

116. Which one of the following towns of Uttar Pradesh has been included under the scheme of “Town of Excellence”?

(a) Kanpur    (b) Moradabad

(c) Aligarh    (d) Agra

117. In the Central Government budget 2011-2012, a new category of “very Senior Citizens” has been created for the purpose of Income Tax. This category covers the persons of age

(a) 70 years and above

(b) 75 years and above

(c) 80 years and above

(d) 85 years and above

118. Which of the following ‘BRICS’ nations has highest captia income?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) South Africa

(d) Russian Federation

119. At the end of 2010, India’s external debt had crossed the mark of

(a) US $ 100 Billion

(b) US $ 300 Billion

(c) US $ 500 Billion

(d) US $ 1000 Billion

120. In the financial year 2010-2011, the Government of India announced a “Maharatna” scheme for giving more autonomy and power to expand to some of its “Navratnas”. Which among the following was not given Maharatna status?

(a) Oil India

(b) NTPC

(c) SAIL

(d) Indian Oil Corporation

121. During 2006-2010, which of the following service sectors registered fastest growth in India?

(a) Banking and Insurance

(b) Construction

(c) Transporation

(d) Communication

122. The multidimensional poverty index of UNDP includes

  (a) 8 indicators

  (b) 10 indicators

 (c) 12 indicators

 (d) 14 indicators

 123. Which one of the following is not an objective of JNNURM?

(a) Urban Electrification

(b) Urban Transport

(c) Development of Heritage areas

(d) Sanitation and Sewage

124. Which among the following is providing leats institutional credit to agriculture and allied activities in recent years?

(a) Commercial Banks

(b) Foreign Private Banks

(c) Cooperative Banks

(d) Regional Rural Banks

125. RBI had set up a committee to study and give suggestions on the microfinance sector. Its Chairman was

(a) Y.H. Malegam

(b) Abid Hussain

(c) Bimal Jalan

(d) Rakesh Mohan

126. The Visa-on-Arrival Scheme (V0A) was started in the country in January 2010 on pilot basis. Which of the following countries, was not in this list in this year?

(a) Japan        (b) Philippines

(c) Finland       (d) Singapore

127. In which of the following years. Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) had registered decline over the previous year in the country?

(a) 2006-07        (b) 2007-08

(b) 2008-09        (d) 2009-10

128. Most recentaly, FDI has now been opened in which of the following sectors in India?

(a) Gambling and betting

(b) Lottery business

(c) Chit fund and Nidhi

(d) Retail trade

129. Which among the following are true for Central Sales Tax?

(i) It is levied on interstate trade.

(ii) It is levied in the Union Territories.

(iii) It is levied in the SEZ.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a)  only (i) and (ii)

(b) only (i)

(c) only (ii) and (iii)

(d) all the above

130. “Hariyali” is the programme associated with

(a) Protection of rural environment

(b) Provision of green fodder for animals

(c) a programme of support for watershed management

(d) a private initiation to create rural supply chain

131. The period of recommendations made by Thirteenth Finance Commission is

(a) 2009-14    (b) 2010-15

(c) 2007-12    (d) 2006-11

132. In which of the following years the subsidy as percent of GDP was the highest?

(a) 2010-11

(b) 2009-10

(c) 2008-09

(d) 2007-08

133. Which among the following is the largest item of current revenue expenditure of Central Government in the year 2008-10?

(a) Grants to States and Union Territories

(b) Interest Payment

(c) Defence Expenditure

(d) Major Subsidies

134. Which among the following institutions regulates the external commercial borrowings?

(a) SEBI

(b) Ministry of Finance

(c) Ministry of Commerce

(d) Reserve Bank of India

135. For which of the following States the share of services sector in State GDP has been largest in 2008-09?

(a) Delhi        (b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala       (d) Tamil Nadu

136. Which of the following States is covered under the National Horticulture Mission (NHM)?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Himachal Pradesh

137. By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduce from 21 years to 18 years?

(a) Sixty third Amendment

(b) Sixty second Amendments

(c) Sixty first Amendments

(d) Sixtieth Amendment

138. Who presides over the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament?

(a) Speaker

(b) Vice President

(c) President

(d) Prime Minister

139. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, President’s rule was imposed for the first time in

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Travancore-Cochin


(d) Bihar

140. Which of the following words have been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?

I.   Socialist

II.  Gram Swarajya

III. Secular

IV. Sovereign

Select the correct answer b y using the codes given below:


(a) I, II, III

(b) I, III, IV

(c) I, II, IV

(d) I, III, IV

141. The political parties got the constitutional recognition for the first time in the year

(a) 1975        (b) 1977

(c) 1985        (d) 1995

142. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) Prohibition of Liquor

(b) Right to Work

(c) Equal pay for equal work

(d) Right to Information

143. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

(a) Union Public Service Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) Planning Commission

(d) Election Commission

144. Which of the following statements about the President of India is not correct?

(a) He is a constituent part of Parliament.

(b) He participates in the discussions in the two Houses.

(c) He addresses the two Houses at a joint meeting every year.

(d) He can promulgate ordinances in certain situations.

145. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in The President.

Reason (R): The President’s Powers as Commander-in-Chief are independent of legislative control. In the context of the above, select the correct answer using the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

146. Which of the following motions, the council of Ministers in India can move?

(a) No Confidence Motion

(b) Censure Motion

(c) Adjournment Motion

(d) Confidence

147. Which one of the following conceptions is true about the Revolt of 1857?

(a) Indian historians have described it as an Indian mutiny.

(b) British historians have described it as a war of independence.

(c) It gave a death blow to the system of East India Company’s rule in India.

(d) It was for the improvement of the administrative machinery in India.

148. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes special provision for which of the following State(s)?

(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat

(b) Assam

(c) Nagaland

(d) Manipur

149. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the President?

(a) Article 51

(b) Article 52

(c) Article 53

(d) Article 54

150. A Federal polity involves

1. Relations between Union & States.

2. Relations among States.

3. Mechanism for co-ordination.

4. Mechanism for resolving disputes.

Select your correct answer from the codes given below:


(a)  1,2,3 and 4

(b)  only 1,2 and 3

(c)  only 1,2 and 4

(d)  only 2,3 and 4