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IBPS PO Prelims 2018: Free Online Mock Test

Aug 21, 2018 17:08 IST
    IBPS PO Mock Test 2018
    IBPS PO Mock Test 2018

    Free Online Mock Test for IBPS PO Prelims recruitment exam (2018) with solutions is available here. This Mock Test is based on latest IBPS PO Prelims Syllabus and Exam Pattern and is extremely helpful for the preparation of IBPS PO Prelims 2018-19. Detailed explanations for all the questions of this Mock Test are also given at the end of this article.
    As we all know, Online Mock Tests are one of the most important resources for the preparation of IBPS PO recruitment exam. In order to qualify in IBPS PO Prelims, one needs diligent practice with Mock Test.  
    After the analysis of previous years’ IBPS PO question papers, experts at Jagranjosh.com have compiled 100 (English Language 30, Quantitative Aptitude 35, Reasoning Ability 35) important questions in the form of a Mock Test. These questions are expected to be asked in IBPS PO Prelims 2018.

    Free Online Mock Test IBPS PO Prelims 2018-19: Click to Jump Directly

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: English Language

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Reasoning Ability

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Quantitative Aptitude

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Syllabus and Exam Pattern

    As per the latest examination pattern of IBPS PO Prelims 2018, 100 questions will be asked in the computer-based online exam. There will be 3 sections in IBPS PO Prelims 2018 and candidates will get 20 minutes to solve each section in a single seating. More details about IBPS PO Prelims 2018 exam pattern is given below:

    Name of Tests

    Number of Questions (Marks)

    Time allotted for each test

    English Language

    30 Questions (30 Marks)

    20 Minutes

    Quantitative Aptitude

    35 Questions (35 Marks)

    20 Minutes

    Reasoning Ability

    35 Questions (35 Marks

    20 Minutes

    Total

    100 Questions (100 Marks)

    1 hours

    In order to qualify in the IBPS PO Prelims 2018, candidates need to clear sectional as well as an overall cut-off (as decided by IBPS). Candidates can learn about the syllabus of IBPS PO Prelims 2018 from this link. 

    Candidates should take special care of time while attempting this Online Mock Test. The time duration to finish each section of this Online Mock Test is 20 minutes but candidates should try to finish it in less time (as this practice will enhance their speed).

    Attempt Free Online Mock Test IBPS PO Prelims 2018 Now!

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: English Language

    Directions (1 - 6): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

    India’s gross domestic product (GDP) grew by 7.3 per cent during 2014-15, according to the official data. The figure fell short of the 7.4 per cent predicted by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO). This is certainly a creditable achievement when the growth rate in many developed countries is not even half of it. However, what is most distressing is that the growth rate in the agriculture sector was a negligible 0.2 per cent during the same period. Had it performed better, the overall growth rate would have been far more creditable. As a majority of the people still depends on agriculture for their livelihood, the niggardly growth rate is nothing but a national disaster the consequences of which are difficult to be visualised.

    That the agricultural sector is in distress and some of the farmers are even forced to commit suicide is no news. The fact is that little has so far been done to strengthen agriculture. It is also well known that the agricultural output has close relations with the climatic conditions. The recent unseasonal rains in many parts of India, followed by searing heat wave conditions, have caused extensive damage to the crops. In the weeks to come, demands for waiving of agricultural loans and increasing the procurement prices of food grains are bound to be taken up by political leaders. Eventually, the government would be forced to concede some of their demands.

    Needless to say, this will not help the agricultural sector to regain health. Instead, it will only perpetuate the dependency of the farmer on government subsidy, a problem that needs to be addressed in right earnest. What is needed is a shift in emphasis—from subsidy to investment. It is a fact that agriculture has not seen any investment worth the name during the last few decades. In fact, after the success of the Green Revolution, this sector has not seen much investment. Cold storages that can protect perishable commodities like potato and onion and warehouses where grains can be kept protected from rains and moisture are just two areas where heavy investment is required. The insurance industry can be encouraged to come up with crop insurance policies which are imaginatively conceived to meet the needs of the farmer. If this kind of structural change is not attempted, Indian agriculture will remain moribund and the farmers will continue to wallow in distress.

    1. According to the passage, the growth in the India’s GDP is:

    a) More than the Estimated Rate.

    b) Exactly same as the Estimated Rate.

    c) Less than the Estimated Rate.

    d) First Increased and then decreased as per the estimates.

    e) None of the above

    2. The growth rate in agricultures sector compared to other sector:

    a) Contributes largely to the India’s GDP.

    b) Contributes very less to the India’s GDP.

    c) Helps in controlling inflation of the country.

    d) Indicates a boom in the agriculture sector.

    e) None of the above

    3. According to the passage, what are the main reasons for the damage of the crops in India?

    1. Unseasonal Rains

    2. Lack of Financial Support

    3. Lack of Irrigation Facility

    4. Hot Climate

    a) Only A and B

    b) Only B and C

    c) Only A and D

    d) Only C and D

    e) All of the above

    4. Due to distress in agriculture sector, the government can face which of the following demands from the farmers?

    a) Waiving of agricultural loans.

    b) Increasing the procurement prices of food grains

    c) Increasing the agricultural loans.

    d) Waiving of agricultural loans and increasing the procurement prices of food grains.

    e) None of the above

    5. At present, what is needed in the agriculture sector of India?

    a) Infrastructural Development

    b) Investments

    c) Subsidies

    d) Technological Advancement

    e) All of the above

    6. Which industry can be encouraged to enter agriculture industry for helping the farmers to meet their needs?

    a) Banking Industry

    b) Automobile Industry

    c) Small Scale Industry

    d) Insurance Industry

    e) None of the above

    Directions (7 - 8): The following questions have a word highlighted from the passage with four words following it. Choose the best word that matches the meaning of the highlighted word as your answer.

    7. Searing

    a) Freezing

    b) Boiling

    c) Chilling

    d) Frosting

    e) None of the above

    8. Waiving

    a) Denying

    b) Refusing

    c) Holding

    d) Stopping

    e) Forgoing

    Directions (9 - 10): The following questions have a word highlighted from the passage with four words following it. Choose the best word that is opposite in meaning to the highlighted word as your answer.

    9. Moribund

    a) Dying

    b) Fading

    c) Expiring

    d) Increasing

    e) None of the above

    10. Wallow

    a) Immerse

    b) Sprawl

    c) Steady

    d) Flounder

    e) Lurch

    Directions (11 - 15): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow.

    (A) In addition, the thrust on rural health programmes, life saving drugs and preventive vaccines also augurs well for the pharma companies.

    (B) Moreover, the government has been taking several cost effective measures in order to bring down healthcare expenses.

    (C) The growth in Indian domestic market will be on back of increasing consumer spending, rapid urbanisation, raising healthcare insurance, and so on.

    (D) Going forward, better growth in domestic sales will depend on the ability of companies to align their product portfolio towards chronic therapies for diseases such as such as cardiovascular, anti-diabetes, anti-depressants and anti-cancers are on the rise.

    (E) The Indian Pharmaceuticals market size is expected to grow to US$ 85 billion by 2020.

    (F) Thus, governments are focusing on speedy introduction of generic drugs into the market.

    11. Which of the following sentence should be the 6th (Last) after rearrangement?

    a) C

    b) B

    c) A

    d) E

    e) F

    12. Which of the following sentence should be the 3rd after rearrangement?

    a) A

    b) E

    c) B

    d) C

    e) D

    13. Which of the following sentence should be the 5th after rearrangement?

    a) A

    b) F

    c) C

    d) E

    e) D

    14. Which of the following sentence should be the 1st after rearrangement?

    a) C

    b) B

    c) E

    d) D

    e) A

    15. Which of the following sentence should be the 2nd after rearrangement?

    a) A

    b) B

    c) D

    d) C

    e) E

    Fill in Blanks (in sentences)

    Directions (16 - 20): Each question below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

    16. High _____________ costs and a deficient monsoon will ____________ the financial condition of cotton farmers.

    a) Output, Strengthen

    b) Output, Worsen

    c) Input, Worsen

    d) Input, Strengthen

    e) None of the above

    17. Long term bonds are __________ from ____________ regulatory norms like CRR and SLR, if the money raised by it is used for funding infrastructural projects.

    a) Hindered, Optional

    b) Prevented, Optional

    c) Prevented, Mandatory

    d) Exempted, Mandatory

    e) None of the above

    18. The government has been repeatedly asking people to ______________ from buying gold and instead invest in other saving _____________.

    a) Persist, Accounts

    b) Desist, Instruments

    c) Persist, Instruments

    d) Desist, Accounts

    e) None of the above

    19. The government had been forced to slash public ________________ in the last quarter of the previous ____________ year.

    a) Earning, Leap

    b) Earning, Fiscal

    c) Spending, Leap

    d) Spending, Fiscal

    e) None of the above

    20. Through vocational and technical training frameworks, the government can help in ___________ existing skills and _____________ new skills of youth of India.

    a) Degrading, Ignoring

    b) Lowering, Dismantling

    c) Upgrading, Creating

    d) Decreasing, Breaking

    e) Deteriorating, Concluding

    Directions (21 - 25): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. For each number some words are suggested below the passage, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate words.

    This optimism stems from factors such as the Government working hard to __21__ the industrial growth in the country and the RBI initiating a number of measures that would go a long way in helping the banks to __22__. The recent announcements of RBI, it is felt, are a clear pointer to the future of the restructured domestic banking industry. The Indian banking sector is __23__, with 46 commercial banks jostling for business with dozens of foreign banks as well as rural and co-operative lenders. State banks control 80 percent of the market, leaving relatively small shares for private rivals. At the end of February, 13.7 crore accounts had been opened under Pradhanmantri Jan Dhan Yojna (PMJDY) and 12.2 crore RuPay debit cards were __24__. These new accounts have __25__ deposits of Rs 12,694 crore (US$ 2.01 billion).

    21.

    a) Absorb

    b) Cripple

    c) Anticipate

    d) Revitalise

    e) Impede

    22.

    a) Subsist

    b) Prevail

    c) Restructure

    d) Survive

    e) None of the above

    23. 

    a) Collaborated

    b) Fragmented

    c) Aligned

    d) Combined

    e) None of the above

    24.

    a) Issued

    b) Released

    c) Furnished

    d) Equipped

    e) None of the above

    25.

    a) Divided

    b) Dissuaded

    c) Mobilised

    d) Dispersed

    e) Separated

    Directions (26 - 30): In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c and d, among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’ if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

    26. The National Survey (a)/ has brought up an (b)/ important finding regarding (c)/ female foeticide rate in India (d).

    27. A trained (a)/ crew of salespersons (b)/ was employed (c)/ in an organisation (d). 

    28. As it was Mahesh’s (a)/ first day in the college, (b)/ he dressed him in his (c)/ most favorite attire (d). 

    29. All the police officers were (a)/ puzzled on the evidences (b)/ found on the murder site (c)/ reported by the watchman (d). 

    30. Having come to Bangalore, (a)/ she had found the people (b)/ were cold and unfriendly (c)/ and there was nothing optimistic in them (d).

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Reasoning Ability

    Directions (1 - 4): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below.

    P S U 3 G D 6 Q F 5 = A 1 H B 7 I 9 T M 8 # E J 2 * R 4 W

    1. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the fifteenth from the right end?

    a) 8  

    b) T  

    c) #  

    d) M

    e) None of the above

    2. If order of the last eleven elements is reversed, which of the following will be seventh to the right of ninth from the left end?

    a) B  

    b) 7  

    c) I  

    d) H

    e) None of the above

    3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

    a) P U G 

    b) = 1 B

    c) Q = H

    d) I T 8

    e) None of the above

    4. If the position of 6 and 2 are interchanged and similarly the position of U and R are interchanged then how many symbols will be there each of which is either preceded or followed by a vowel?

    a) 1  

    b) 2  

    c) 3  

    d) 4 

    e) None of the above 

    Directions (5 - 6): Some groups of letters are given, all of which, except one, share a common similarity while one is different. Choose the odd one out.

    5.

    a) Flower: Petal 

    b) Triangle : Angle

    c) Cover : Page

    d) Table : Leg

    e) None of the above

    6.

    a) Ostrich 

    b) Penguin

    c) Emu

    d) Owl

    e) None of the above

    Directions (7 - 11): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, δ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

    ‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

    ‘A δ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.

    ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

    ‘A © B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

    ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

    Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

    Give answer

    a) If only Conclusion I is true

    b) If only Conclusion II is true

    c) If either Conclusion I or II is true

    d) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true

    e) If both Conclusion I and II are true

    7. Statements: P © T, T @ M, M δ C

    Conclusions:

    I. C # T

    II. M # T

    8. Statements: Q @ N, N % R, R © E

    Conclusions:

    I. Q @ E

    II. N # E

    9. Statements: F # T, T @ R, R © G

    Conclusions:

    I. G # F

    II. G # T

    10. Statements: M δ H, H % F, F # R

    Conclusions:

    I. F © M

    II. R © H

    11. Statements: X @ G, N © G, N % Y

    Conclusions:

    I. X @ N

    II. Y © G

    Direction (12 - 16): Read the following information carefully and answer these questions:

    In a certain coding system,

    • ‘816321’ means ‘the big lion scared the rat’;
    • ‘64851’ means ‘the scared rat ran away’;
    • ‘7621’ means ‘the rat was big’;
    • ‘341’ means ‘the lion ran’

    12. What is the code for ‘the lion was scared’?

    a) 8763

    b) 8731

    c) 8453

    d) 8463

    e) None of the above

    13. What is the code for ‘big’?

    a) 1

    b) 3

    c) 4

    d) 2

    e) None of the above

    14. What is the code for ‘away’?

    a) 6

    b) 7

    c) 5

    d) 2

    e) None of the above

    15. What is the code for ‘ran’?

    a) 6

    b) 3

    c) 1

    d) 4

    e) None of the above

    16. What is the code for ‘rat’?

    a) 5

    b) 6

    c) 4

    d) 3

    e) None of the above

    17. Ravi told Ram, “yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”. Whom did Ravi defeat?

    a) Father

    b) Brother

    c) Son

    d) Father –in –law

    Directions (18 - 22): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

    A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

    • B sits second to the left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
    • D’s daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
    • Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G.
    • H’s brother D sits on the immediate left of H’s mother.
    • Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.
    • Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

    18. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?

    a) Immediate left

    b) Third to the right

    c) Third to the left

    d) Second to the right

    e) Fourth to the left

    19. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

    a) B

    b) C

    c) E

    d) G

    e) H

    20. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild? 

    a) Immediate right

    b) Third to the right

    c) Third to the left

    d) Second to the left

    e) Fourth to the left

    21. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

    a) One

    b) Two

    c) Three

    d) Four

    e) More than four

    22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group

    a) F

    b) C

    c) E

    d) H

    e) G

    Directions (23 - 26): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

    Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table (two on each side) facing the centre. L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbor of L or K .The one who likes A in an immediate neighbor of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate neighbor do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are immediate neighbor of each other. L likes neither H nor E. Only one person sits between J and the person who likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

    23. Which of the following is true regarding R?

    a) R like the B

    b) S and M are immediate neighbors of R

    c) One person sits between R and J 

    d) R sits second to the right of J  

    e) None of the above

    24. Who amongst the following likes movie E?

    a) L 

    b) R

    c) M

    d) N

    e) Cannot be determined

    25. How many person sit between S and the person who likes H, when counted from the left hand side of the person who likes H?

    a) None 

    b) One

    c) Two 

    d) Three

    e) Four

    26. Which of the following is true?

    a) Only one person is sitting between P and J

    b) S likes D brand.

    c) The person who likes E is an immediate neighbor of K.

    d) One person sits between K and S.

    e) None is true

    27. Two cars start from the opposite points of a main road, 200 kms apart. The first car runs for 35 kms and takes a right turn and then runs for 20 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meanwhile, due to a minor breakdown, the other car has run only 45 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two cars at this point?

    a) 105 kms

    b) 100 kms

    c) 95 kms

    d) None of these

    e) Can’t be determined

    28. In a row of boys, Shekhar and Prabhat occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place from the left end, respectively. If they interchange their places, then Shekhar and Prabhat occupy seventeenth place from the right and eighteenth place from the left respectively. How many boys are there in the row?  

    a) 22

    b) 24

    c) 26

    d) 28

    e) None of the above

    29. In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

    _ baa _ aa _ aab _

    a) baba

    b) bbab

    c) aabb

    d) abba

    e) None of the above

    Directions (30 - 33): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

    Eight professionals, numbered 1 to 8 not in the same order, work for three different organisations namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for an organisation. There are two ladies in the group with different specializations and do not work for the same organisation. Among the others two have specialization each in IT, Finance and Sales. One is an engineer and another is a lawyer. Person 8 is an IT specialist and works with 2 who is a Sales specialist not for organisation Y. 3 is an engineer and his sister works in organisation Z as a Finance specialist. 4 is an IT specialist working in organisation X while her friend 7 is a Finance specialist for organisation Z. No two similarly specialized people work together. Sales specialist 6 works for organisation Y and his friend 1, a Finance expert works for organisation X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a Sales Specialist or a lawyer.

    30. Which among the following person is not a male?

    a) 2

    b) 4

    c) 6

    d) 8

    e) Cannot be determined

    31. Who among the following is a lawyer?

    a) 3

    b) 4

    c) 5

    d) 6

    e) None of the above

    32. Which of the following combination is true?

    a) 3 works in Z as an Engineer

    b) 3 works in Y as an Engineer

    c) 5 works in X as a Lawyer

    d) 8 works in X as a IT

    e) None of the above

    33. Which among the following pair are sales professionals?

    a) 2 and 6

    b) 2 and 4

    c) 3 and 5

    d) 6 and 3

    e) None of the above

    Directions (34 – 35): In each question below are given some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

    Give answers:

    Give answer (a) if only conclusion I is true.

    Give answer (b) if only conclusion II is true.

    Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or II is true.

    Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

    Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II is true

    34. Statements:

    Some red are green.

     

    Some green are yellow.

     

    No yellow is red.

    Conclusions:

    I. Some green that are yellow are red.

    II. Some red that are green are yellow.

    35. Statements:

    Some wood are plastic.

     

    All plastic are metal.

     

    No metal is stone.

     

    Some stone are wood.

    Conclusions:

    I. Some wood which are metal are not stone.

    II. All plastic which are metal are necessarily wood.

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Quantitative Aptitude

    Directions (1- 5): What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

    1. (57% of 2442 - 26% of 2412) ÷ 63 = ?

    a) 19

    b) 12

    c) 22

    d) 24

    e) 31

    2. (8576 + 7286 + 4639) ÷ (512 + 315 + 312) = ?

    a) 18

    b) 22

    c) 24

    d) 10

    e) 26

    3. 2524.79 × 29.92 + 495.26 = ?

    a) 74000

    b) 78000

    c) 80000

    d) 76000

    e) 77000

    4. 8735.96 - 4454.03 - 2612.86 = ? - 1311.43

    a) 3170

    b) 2780

    c) 2980

    d) 3080

    e) None of the above

    5. (42.13)2 + (23.96)2 - (17.11)2 = ?

    a) 2176

    b) 2274

    c) 2309

    d) 2056

    e) None of the above

    Number Series

    Direction (6 - 10): What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

    6. 110   111    103    130    66    ?

    a) 140

    b) 135

    c) 191

    d) 150

    e) None of the above

    7. 64      128    92    156    148    212    ?

    a) 260

    b) 280

    c) 290

    d) 300

    e) None of the above  

    8. 24       14    26    15    28    16    30   ?

    a) 14

    b) 17

    c) 36

    d) 16

    e) 28

    9. 5        6      16        57        244      1245    ?

    a) 7406

    b) 7516

    c) 8257

    d) 7248

    e) 7506

    10. 3      17    113    ?    3361    13441    40321

    a) 534

    b) 673

    c) 616

    d) 673

    e) 713

    Quadratic Equation

    Directions (11 - 15): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer:

    a) If x>y

    b) If x≥y

    c) If x<y

    d) If x≤y

    e) If x=y or no relation can be established between x and y

    11.

    I. 56x - 99√x + 35 = ?

    II. 32y - 52√y + 21= 0

    12.

    I. x2 - 5√3 x + 35√21 - 7√7x = 0

    II. y2 - 5√5 y + 30 = 0

    13.

    I. 16x2 + 14x - 15 = 0

    II. 20y2 - 31y + 12 = 0

    14.

    I. √36x + √25y = 61
    II. √25x - √36y = 60

    16. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then find the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects.

    a) 40%

    b) 41%

    c) 43%

    d) 44%

    e) None of the above

    17. Sohan marked his bicycle 50% above his cost price. He Sold is after allowing a discount and still made a profit of 20%. What is the discount percentage he offered of it?

    a) 20%

    b) 25%

    c) 30%

    d) 35%

    e) None of the above

    Ratio and Proportion

    18. In a certain exam, the ratio of the number of students passed to the number of students failed is 7: 4. Has 8 more students passed, the ratio of the number of students passed to the number of students failed would have been 9: 2. Find the number of students who failed in the exam.

    a) 20

    b) 16

    c) 12

    d) 24

    e) None of the above

    Time and Distance

    19. It takes 16 hours for a 1200 km journey, if 240 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 40 minutes more, if 400 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is?

    a) 2: 3

    b) 3: 2

    c) 3 : 4

    d) 4 : 3

    e) None of the above

    Problem on Trains

    20. Find the time taken by a train 180 m long, running at 72 kmph, in crossing an electric pole.

    a) 8 sec

    b) 9 sec

    c) 10 sec

    d) 12 sec

    e) None of the above

    21. A project is done by three people X, Y and Z. X alone takes 20 hours to complete a single project but Y and Z working together takes 8 hours, for the completion of the same project. If all of them worked together and completed 28 products, then how many hours have they worked?

    a) 140 hours

    b) 120 hours

    c) 160 hours

    d) 180 Hours

    e) None of the above

    Compound Interest

    22. Rs.12,500 is borrowed at C.I. rate of 3% for the first year, 4% for the second year and 5% for the third year. The amount to be paid after 3 years will be:

    a) Rs. 14590.50

    b) Rs. 14509.50

    c) Rs. 14059.50

    d) Rs. 14950.50

    e) None of the above

    Simple Interest

    23. Imran borrowed a sum of money from Jayant at the rate of 8% per annum simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the next six years and 12% per annum for the period beyond 10 years. If he pays a total of Rs.12,160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, how much way did he borrow?

    a) Rs.8000

    b) Rs.10,000

    c) Rs.12,000

    d) Rs.9,000

    e) None of the above

    Probability

    24. A positive integer is divided by 5. What is the probability that the remainder is not 3?

    a) 1/5

    b) 4/5

    c) 2/5

    d) 3/5

    e) None of the above

    Pipes & Cisterns

    25. How much time will it take to fill the tank if two pipes A and B fill it in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively and both the pipes are opened?

    a) 12

    b) 15

    c) 18

    d) 20

    e) None of the above

    Bar Graph

    Directions (26 - 30): Study the following graph and answer the following questions:


    Number of students from various faculties studying in various Management Institutes (in thousands)

    26. What is the ratio of the number of Marketing students in Institute A to the number of Finance students in Institute D?

    a) 11:13

    b) 13:15

    c) 9:7

    d) 7:11

    e) None of the above

    27. What is the average number of students in each faculty of Institute D?

    a) 30000

    b) 26000

    c) 28500

    d) 31667

    e) None of the above

    28. What is the average number of IT students in all the Institutes?

    a) 21625

    b) 25625

    c) 23225

    d) 24575

    e) None of the above

    29. What percentage of the total students of Institute C are its IT students?

    a) 36%

    b) 27.5%

    c) 26.92%

    d) 28.13%

    e) None of the above

    30. What is the difference between the total number of IT and Finance students in all the colleges?

    a) 27500

    b) 24000

    c) 29000

    d) 17500

    e) None of the above

    Pie Chart

    Directions (31 - 35): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions:


    31. What percentage of Indian IT Professionals work either in Australia or New Zealand?

    a) 12%

    b) 2%

    c) 14%

    d) 26%

    e) None of the above

    32. What is the ratio of Indian IT Professionals working in Middle East to Australia?

    a) 2:1

    b) 1:2

    c) 3:2

    d) 2:3

    e) None of the above

    33. If the total population of Indian IT Professionals in places other than USA and UK is 19200, then what is the number of Indian IT Professionals working there?

    a) 16000

    b) 10600

    c) 18000

    d) 10800

    e) None of the above

    34. If the Indian IT Professionals working in Europe is to double the next year and the remaining is constant, then what is the percentage of Indian IT Professionals working in Europe to the total Indian IT Professionals population working abroad next year?

    a) 12%

    b) 18%

    c) 9%

    d) 14%

    e) None of the above

    35. If the Indian IT Professionals working in USA and UK triples in the next year, what would be the ratio of their population?

    a) 6:7

    b) 5:13

    c) 13:5

    d) 3:5

    e) None of the above

    a) 18     
    b) 22
    c) 24     
    d) 10
    e) 26
    Answer: a)
    Explanation:
    2524.79× 29.92 +495.26= ? (L2)
    74000
    78000
    80000
    76000
    77000
    Answer: d)
    Explanation:2524.79 × 29.92 + 495.26 = 76037 0r 76000 approx.
    8735.96-4454.03-2612.86=?-1311.43 (L2)
    3170
    2780
    2980
    3080
    None of the above
    Answer: c)
    Explanation:    (8736 -4454 -2613) +1311 =?
                1669 + 1311 = 2980
        〖(42.13)〗^2 +〖(23.96)〗^2 -〖(17.11)〗^2   = ? (L2)
        2176
        2274
        2309
        2056
        None of the above
    Answer: d)
    Explanation:       〖(42.13)〗^2 +〖(23.96)〗^2 -〖(17.11)〗^2
                     1775 + 574 – 293 = 2056
    Number Series
    Direction (6 - 10): What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?
        110   111    103    130    66    ? (L2)
        140
        1 35        
        191        
        150        
        None of the above
    Answer: c)
    Explanation:     110    111    103    130    66    ?
                + 13    – 23    +33    –43    +53
                Hence, question mark (?) will be replaced by 191.

        64      128    92    156    148    212    ? (L2)
        260
        280
        290
        300
        None of the above    
    Answer: a)
    Explanation:     64    128    92    156    148    212    ?
                See the bold part. It makes a series as follows:
                64    92    148    ?
                +28    +56    +112
                Hence, ? will be replaced by 260.

        24       14    26    15    28    16    30   ? (L2)
        14    
        17    
        36        
        16    
        28
    Answer: b)
    Explanation:    Here the series consists of two series S1 and S2:
        5        6    16    57    244    1245    ? (L2)
        7406    
        7516
        8257    
        7248
        7506
    Answer: e)
    Explanation:    Here the series is:
                5 × 1 + 12 = 6;
                6 × 2 + 22 = 16;
                16 × 3 + 32 = 57;
                57 × 4 + 42 = 244;
                244 × 5 + 52 = 1245;
                1245 × 6 + 62 = 7506

        3       17    113    ?    3361    13441    40321 (L2)
        534
        673
        6 16    
        673
        713
    Answer: b)
    Explanation:     Here the series is:    
    3 × 8 – 7 = 17
                17 × 7 – 6 = 113
                113 × 6 – 5 = 673
                673 × 5 – 4 = 3361
                3361 × 4 – 3 = 13441
                13441 × 3 – 2 = 40321

    Quadratic Equation
    Directions (11 - 15): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer:
        If x>y
        If x≥y
        If x<y
        If x≤y
        If x=y or no relation can be established between x and y

        (L2)
        56x-99√x+35 = ?
        32y-52√y+21=0
    Answer: d)
    Explanation:

    Answer Key and Detailed Solutions of IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: English Language

    1. Answer: c)

    Explanation: The passage clearly mentions that the growth in the India’s GDP fell short of the 7.4 per cent predicted by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO).

    2. Answer: b)

    Explanation: It has been clearly mentioned in the passage that the growth rate in the agriculture sector is quite distressing and negligible (0.2 per cent).

    3. Answer: c)

    Explanation: It has been clearly mentioned in the second paragraph that the unseasonal rains in many parts of India, followed by searing heat wave conditions, have caused extensive damage to the crops.

    4. Answer: d)

    Explanation: It has been clearly mentioned in the second paragraph that demands for waiving of agricultural loans and increasing the procurement prices of food grains are bound to come from farmers due to damage in the crops.

    5. Answer: b)

    Explanation: It has been clearly mentioned in the third paragraph that a shift in emphasis—from subsidy to investment is required at present in agriculture sector of India.

    6. Answer: d)

    Explanation: The last lines of the third paragraph clearly mention that the insurance industry can be encouraged to come up with crop insurance policies which are imaginatively conceived to meet the needs of the farmer.

    7. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Both ‘Searing’ and ‘Boiling’ means extremely hot or intense.

    8. Answer: e)

    Explanation: Both ‘Waiving’ and ‘Forgoing’ means to give or let go.

    9. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Moribund means something in terminal decline and ‘Increasing’ is the exact opposite word.

    10. Answer: c)

    Explanation: Wallow means to indulge in an unrestrained way in something that one finds pleasurable and ‘Steady’ is the exact opposite word.

    11. Answer: c)

    12. Answer: e)

    13. Answer: b)

    14. Answer: c)

    15. Answer: d)

    Explanation for 16-20: The proper sequence of sentences to make a meaningful paragraph will be ‘ECDBFA’:

    1) The Indian Pharmaceuticals market size is expected to grow to US$ 85 billion by 2020.

    2) The growth in Indian domestic market will be on back of increasing consumer spending, rapid urbanisation, raising healthcare insurance, and so on.

    3) Going forward, better growth in domestic sales will depend on the ability of companies to align their product portfolio towards chronic therapies for diseases such as such as cardiovascular, anti-diabetes, anti-depressants and anti-cancers are on the rise.

    4) Moreover, the government has been taking several cost effective measures in order to bring down healthcare expenses.

    5) Thus, governments are focusing on speedy introduction of generic drugs into the market.

    6) In addition, the thrust on rural health programmes, life saving drugs and preventive vaccines also augurs well for the pharma companies.

    16. Answer: c)

    Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the words ‘Input’ which means putting in something, and ‘Worsen’ which means making a situation bad, fits in the blanks.

    17. Answer: d)

    Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the words ‘Exempted’ which means freed from some responsibility and ‘Mandatory’ which means required by law, fits in the blanks.

    18. Answer: b)

    Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the words ‘Desist’ which means stop doing something and ‘Instruments’ which means a tradable asset or negotiable item, fits in the blanks.

    19. Answer: d)

    Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the words ‘Spending’ which means give money to pay for goods, services, or so as to benefit someone or something and ‘Fiscal’ which means the financial year, fits in the blanks.

    20. Answer: c)

    Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the words ‘Upgrading’ which means raising something to a higher standard and ‘Creating’ which means to bring something into existence, fits in the blanks.

    21. Answer: d)

    Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘Revitalise’ which means to instill something with new life and vitality.

    22. Answer: c)

    Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘Restructure’ which means to organize differently.

    23. Answer: b)

    Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘Fragmented’ which means to divide something in segments.

    24. Answer: a)

    Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘Issued’ which means to supply or distribute something for use or sale.

    25. Answer: c)

    Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘Mobilised’ which means to organize and make something ready for action.

    26. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Add ‘the’ before the word ‘female foeticide rate’.

    27. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Replace ‘crew of salespersons’ with ‘group of salespersons’.

    28. Answer: c)

    Explanation: Replace ‘him’ with ‘himself’.

    29. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Replace ‘on the evidences’ with ‘by the evidences’.

    30. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Replace ‘in them’ with ‘about them’.

    Answer Key and Detailed Solutions of IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Reasoning Ability

    1. Answer: d)

    Explanation: The fifteenth element from the right end of the arrangement is B, and the fifth element to the right of B is M.

    2. Answer: b)

    Explanation: P S U 3 G D 6 Q F 5 = A 1 H B 7 I 2 W 4 R * 2 J E # 8 M T

    The ninth element from the left end of this arrangement is F, and the seventh element to the right of F is 7.

    3. Answer: c)

    Explanation: In all other groups, the first and second elements each move 2 steps forward to give the second and third elements respectively.

    4. Answer: c)

    Explanation: Such symbols in the new arrangement may be indicated as follow:

    5. Answer: c)

    Explanation: In all other pairs, second is a part of the first.

    6. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Out of the four except owl, all is flightless birds.

    7. Answer: e)

    Explanation:  Statement- P ≥ T > M =C

    Conclusion I- C < T (True)

    Conclusion II- M < T (True)

    8. Answer: d)

    Explanation:  Statement- Q > N ≤ R ≥ E

    Conclusion I- Q > E (False)

    Conclusion II- N <E (False)

    9. Answer: b)

    Explanation:  Statement- F < T > R ≥ G

    Conclusion I- G < F (false)

    Conclusion II- G < T (True)

    10. Answer: a)

    Explanation:  Statement- M = H ≤ F < R

    Conclusion I- F ≥ M (True)

    Conclusion II- R ≥ H (false)

    11. Answer: b)

    Explanation:  Statement- X > G ≤ N ≤ Y

    Conclusion I- X > N (false)

    Conclusion II- Y ≥ G (True)

    12. Answer: b)

    13. Answer: d)

    14. Answer: c)

    15. Answer: d)

    16. Answer: b)

    Explanation (12 - 16): By looking at the four statements it can deduced that code for:

    1 – the,

    6 – rat,

    8 – scared

    3 – lion

    2 – big

    4 – ran

    5 – away

    17. Answer: a)

    Explanation: Daughter of grandmother –aunt, aunt’s only brother—father.

    18. Answer: d)

    Explanation: B is mother-in-law of A. Hence, A’s position with respect to his mother-in-law is second to the right.

    19. Answer: c)

    20. Answer: a)

    21. Answer: c)

    22. Answer: b)

    Explanation (18 – 22):

    23. Answer: e)

    24. Answer: d)

    25. Answer: d)

    26. Answer: b)

    Explanation (23 - 26):

    27. Answer: c)

    Explanation:

    28. Answer: c)

    Explanation: Since Shekhar and Prabhat exchange places, so Shekhar’s new position is the same as Prabhat’s earlier position and vice versa. This position is 17th from the right and 10th from the left. Therefore, Number of boys in the row = (16 + 1 + 9) = 26.

    29. Answer: d)

    Explanation: The series is aba/aba/aba/aba. Thus, the pattern 'aba' is repeated.

    30. Answer: b)

    31. Answer: c)

    32. Answer: b)

    33. Answer: a)

    Explanation (30 – 33):

    Organisation

    Person

    Sex

    Specialization/ Profession

    X

    1

    Male

    Finance

    4

    Female

    IT

    Y

    3

    Male

    Engineer

    5

    Male

    Lawyer

    6

    Male

    Sales

    Z

    2

    Male

    Sales

    7

    Female

    Finance

    8

    Male

    IT

    34. Answer: d)

    Explanation:

    35. Answer: a)

    Explanation: 

    IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test 2018: Reasoning Ability

    1. Answer: b)

    Explanation:


    2. Answer: a)

    Explanation:

    3. Answer: d)

    Explanation: 2524.79 × 29.92 + 495.26 = 76037 0r 76000 approx.

    4. Answer: c)

    Explanation: (8736 - 4454 - 2613) + 1311 =?
    1669 + 1311 = 2980

    5. Answer: d)

    Explanation: (42.13)2 + (23.96)2 - (17.11)2
                              1775 + 574 – 293 = 2056

    6. Answer: c)

    Explanation: 110    111    103    130    66    ?
                      + 13    – 23    +33    –43    +53
    Hence, question mark (?) will be replaced by 191.

    7. Answer: a)

    Explanation: 64    128    92    156    148    212    ?
    See the bold part. It makes a series as follows:
                         64    92    148    ?
                    +28    +56    +112
    Hence, ? will be replaced by 260.

    8. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Here the series consists of two series S1 and S2:

    The next term will be 17.

    9. Answer: e)

    Explanation: Here the series is:
    5 × 1 + 12 = 6;
    6 × 2 + 22 = 16;
    16 × 3 + 32 = 57;
    57 × 4 + 42 = 244;
    244 × 5 + 52 = 1245;
    1245 × 6 + 62 = 7506

    10. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Here the series is:   
    3 × 8 – 7 = 17
    17 × 7 – 6 = 113
    113 × 6 – 5 = 673
    673 × 5 – 4 = 3361
    3361 × 4 – 3 = 13441
    13441 × 3 – 2 = 40321

    11. Answer: d)

    Explanation:

    12. Answer: a)

    Explanation:

    13. Answer: c)

    Explanation:

    14. Answer: a)

    Explanation:

    15. Answer: c)

    Explanation:

    16. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Failed in mathematics, n (1) = 34
    Failed in English, n(2) = 42
    n(AUB) = n(1) + n(2) – n(A ∩ B)
    = 34 + 42- 20 = 56
    Failed in either or both subjects are 56
    Percentage passed = (100 - 56)% = 44%

    17. Answer: a)

    Explanation: Let CP = 100
    So, MP = 150
    SP = 120
    Discount = 150 – 20 = 30
    Discount % = 20%

    18. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Let the students passed be 7x and failed be 4x.
    (7x + 8)/(4x - 8) = 9/2
    X = 4
    Number of students failed = 4x = 4 × 4 = 16

    19. Answer: c)

    Explanation: Let the speed of the train be x km/hr and that of the car be y km/hr.
    Then, 240/x + 960/y = 16    .... (i) 
    And, 400/x + 800/y  = 50/3  .... (ii)   
    Solving (i) and (ii), we get: x = 60 and y = 80.
    Ratio of speeds = 3 : 4.

    20. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Speed of the train = (72 × 5/18) m/sec = 20 m/sec
    Distance moved in passing the pole = 180m
    Required time taken = (180/20) sec = 9 sec

    21. Answer: c)

    Explanation: In 20 hours, one project is completed by X and in the same time, Y + Z will complete 2.5 project and X + Y + Z will complete 3.5 projects in 20 hours.
    Thus, to complete 28 projects, 160 hours are needed.

    22. Answer: c)

    Explanation:

    23. Answer: a)

    Explanation:

    24. Answer: b)

    Explanation: When a positive integer is divided by 5, the remainder could be 0, 1, 2, 3 or 4. The sample space is 5 i.e. n(S) =5.
    The probability that the remainder is not 3 is 4/5.

    25. Answer: a)

    Explanation: Net part filled by both pipes A and B together in 1 hour
    =1/20 + 1/30 = (30 + 20) / 600 = 1/12
    Hence the time taken to fill the tank = 12 hours

    26. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Number of Marketing students in Institute A = 32500
    Number of Finance students in Institute D = 37500
    The ratio= 32500:37500 =13:15

    27. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Total number of students in Institute D in all three faculties = 22500 + 35000 + 37500 = 95000
    The average student in each faculty = 95000/3 = 31667

    28. Answer: b)

    Explanation: The number of IT students in all the Institutes = 27500 + 30000 + 22500 + 22500 = 102500
    The average IT students in each Institute = 102500/4 = 25625

    29. Answer: d)

    Explanation: The total number of IT students in Institute C = 22500
    Total number of students in Institute C = 80000
    Percentage of IT students = 22500/80000 × 100 = 28.13%

    30. Answer: e)

    Explanation: Total number of Finance students in all the Institutes = 127500
    Total number of IT students in all the Institutes = 102500
    Their difference = 127500 - 102500 = 25000

    31. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Percentage of Indian IT Professionals working either in Australia or New Zealand is 14% + 12% = 26%

    32. Answer: a)

    Explanation: Ratio of Indian IT Professionals working in Middle East to Australia is 28:14 = 2:1

    33. Answer: d)

    Explanation: Population of Indian IT Professionals in USA and UK is 36%. So rest of the population is 64% that is 19200.
    So, Population of Indian IT Professionals in USA and UK is
    36 × (19200/64) = 10800

    34. Answer: b)

    Explanation: Percentage of Indian IT Professionals working in Europe currently is 10%.
    If doubled, then the new population of Indian IT Professionals population working abroad will be is 20/110 = 18.18%

    35. Answer: c)

    Explanation: If tripled the percentages become 78 and 30. The ratio is 78:30 = 13:5

    a) 18
    b) 22
    c) 24
    d) 10
    e) 26
    Answer: a)
    Explanation:
    2524.79× 29.92 +495.26= ? (L2)
    74000
    78000
    80000
    76000
    77000
    Answer: d)
    Explanation:2524.79 × 29.92 + 495.26 = 76037 0r 76000 approx.
    8735.96-4454.03-2612.86=?-1311.43 (L2)
    3170
    2780
    2980
    3080
    None of the above
    Answer: c)
    Explanation:    (8736 -4454 -2613) +1311 =?
      1669 + 1311 = 2980 〖(42.13)〗^2 +〖(23.96)〗^2 -〖(17.11)〗^2   = ? (L2)
        2176
        2274
        2309
        2056
        None of the above
    Answer: d)
    Explanation:   〖(42.13)〗^2 +〖(23.96)〗^2 -〖(17.11)〗^2
      1775 + 574 – 293 = 2056
    Number Series
    Direction (6 - 10): What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?
        110   111    103    130    66    ? (L2)
        140
        1 35   191   150   None of the above
    Answer: c)
    Explanation: 110    111    103    130    66    ?
      + 13    – 23    +33    –43    +53
      Hence, question mark (?) will be replaced by 191.

        64 128    92    156    148    212    ? (L2)
        260
        280
        290
        300
        None of the above    
    Answer: a)
    Explanation: 64    128    92    156    148    212    ?
      See the bold part. It makes a series as follows:
      64    92    148    ?
      +28    +56    +112
      Hence, ? will be replaced by 260.

        24   14    26    15    28    16    30   ? (L2)
        14    17    36   16    28
    Answer: b)
    Explanation:    Here the series consists of two series S1 and S2:
        5    6    16    57    244    1245    ? (L2)
        7406    7516
        8257    7248
        7506
    Answer: e)
    Explanation:    Here the series is:
      5 × 1 + 12 = 6;
      6 × 2 + 22 = 16;
      16 × 3 + 32 = 57;
      57 × 4 + 42 = 244;
      244 × 5 + 52 = 1245;
      1245 × 6 + 62 = 7506

        3   17    113    ?    3361    13441    40321 (L2)
        534
        673
        6 16    673
        713
    Answer: b)
    Explanation: Here the series is:    
    3 × 8 – 7 = 17
      17 × 7 – 6 = 113
      113 × 6 – 5 = 673
      673 × 5 – 4 = 3361
      3361 × 4 – 3 = 13441
      13441 × 3 – 2 = 40321

    Quadratic Equation
    Directions (11 - 15): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer:
        If x>y
        If x≥y
        If x<y
        If x≤y
        If x=y or no relation can be established between x and y

        (L2)
        56x-99√x+35 = ?
        32y-52√y+21=0
    Answer: d)
    Explanation:

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