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UGC NET December 2015 Paper-I Set-S Previous Year Paper with Answers

Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your exam preparation. In this article we have shared the UGC NET Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

Jun 12, 2019 12:18 IST
UGC NET December 2015 Paper-I Set-S Previous Year Paper with Answers

For cracking NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the UGC NET December 2015 Paper I (Set-S) Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

UGC NET December 2015 Paper I (Set-S) Previous Year Paper with Answers

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 1 to 5.

I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write: "Good luck, best, Joel".

It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is "tap letters into computer". My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I'm struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don't own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80 % have never written a love letter, 56 % don't have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

"Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography."

Answer the following questions:

1. What is the main concern of the author?

(1) That the teens use computer.

(2) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

(3) That the teens use social networks for communication.

(4) That the teens use mobile phones.

2. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like "a rabbit in the headlight". What does this phrase mean?

(1) A state of anxiety

(2) A state of pain

(3) A state of confusion

(4) A state of pleasure

3. The entire existence of the author revolves round:

(a) Computer

(b) Mobile phone

(c) Typewriter

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

4. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?

(1) 500

(2) 100

(3) 800

(4) 560

5. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?

(1) Sketching

(2) Reading

(3) Handwriting

(4) Photography

6. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?

(1) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.

(2) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

(3) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.

(4) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.

7. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

(1) Patenting policy

(2) Data sharing policies

(3) Thesis format

(4) Copyright

8. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.

(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.

(c) It involves large groups of individuals.

(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?

(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays

(b) Invert authors' names (last name first)

(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals

(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

10. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:

(1) Teacher

(2) State

(3) Family

(4) Society

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11. What are required for good teaching?

(a) Diagnosis

(b) Remedy

(c) Direction

(d) Feedback

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (b)

12. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled:

(1) Learning: The Treasure Within

(2) World Declaration on Education for All

(3) International Commission on Education Report

(4) Millennium Development Report

13. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?

(1) It is a collective process of enquiry.

(2) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.

(3) It recognizes knowledge as power.

(4) It emphasises on people as experts.

14. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple - choice type questions?

(1) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.

(2) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.

(3) They are more objective than true-false type questions.

(4) They are less objective than essay type questions.

15. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (d)

16. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?

(1) Questionnaire

(2) Schedule

(3) Rating scale

(4) Interview

17. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management

(b) Setting examples

(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d) Acknowledging mistakes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

18. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:

(1) Uncle

(2) Father

(3) Son

(4) Brother

19. Every type of communication is affected by its:

(1) Non-regulation

(2) Context

(3) Reception

(4) Transmission

20. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:

(1) Utilitarian

(2) Confrontational

(3) Spurious

(4) Critical

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21. The next term in the series:

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,  __?__ is:

(1) Q62J

(2) J58Q

(3) J56I

(4) I62Q

22. Consider the argument given below:

'Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.'

What type of argument it is?

(1) Psychological

(2) Biological

(3) Deductive

(4) Analogical

23. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

(1) Stipulative

(2) Persuasive

(3) Lexical

(4) Precising

24. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:

(1) 18

(2) 24

(3) 12

(4) 14

25. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:

(1) 74

(2) 72

(3) 80

(4) 76

26. In a classroom, a communicator's trust level is determined by:

(1) the use of abstract concepts

(2) eye contact

(3) the use of hyperbole

(4) the change of voice level

27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:

(1) 12 km

(2) 10 km

(3) 20 km

(4) 14 km

28. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.

(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.

(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.

(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (a) only

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

29. If the proposition 'No men are honest' is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) Some men are not honest

(2) No honest person is man

(3) All men are honest

(4) Some men are honest

30. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:

(1) Para language

(2) Delivery language

(3) Physical language

(4) Personal language

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31. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:

(1) Impersonal

(2) Irrational

(3) Verbal

(4) Non-verbal

32. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:

(A): No man is perfect.

(R): Some men are not perfect.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).

33. The next term in the series

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, _____?_____ is:

(1) 62

(2) 72

(3) 50

(4) 57

34. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called:

(1) An explanation

(2) A valid argument

(3) An inference

(4) An argument

35. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.

Propositions:

(a) Some priests are cunning.

(b) No priest is cunning.

(c) All priests are cunning.

(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (c) and (d)

36. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:

(1) Idea protocol

(2) Mind mapping

(3) Systemisation

(4) Problem - orientation

37. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in:

(1) the Concurrent List

(2) the Residuary Powers

(3) the Union List

(4) the State List

38. Which of the following is not an input device?

(1) Joystick

(2) Monitor

(3) Microphone

(4) Keyboard

39. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Maharashtra

(4) Rajasthan

40. Which of the following is an open source software?

(1) Mozilla Firefox

(2) Acrobat Reader

(3) MS Word

(4) Windows

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41. NMEICT stands for:

(1) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT

(2) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

(3) National Mission on Education through ICT

(4) National Mission on E-governance through ICT

42. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?

(1) Mail insert

(2) Mail merge

(3) Mail join

(4) Mail copy

43. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:

(1) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

(2) not fixed

(3) 4 years

(4) 5 years

44. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to:

(1) 250 GW

(2) 350 GW

(3) 175 GW

(4) 200 GW

45. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.

(1) Russia > China > Brazil > India

(2) China > Russia > Brazil > India

(3) Brazil > Russia > China > India

(4) Russia > China > India > Brazil

46. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are:

(a) Religion

(b) Sex

(c) Place of birth

(d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

47. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:

(a) Unvented gas stoves

(b) Wood stoves

(c) Kerosene heaters

Choose the correct code:

(1) (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

48. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?

(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.

(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.

(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.

(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

49. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:

(1) 16 bits

(2) 10 bits

(3) 4 bits

(4) 8 bits

50. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.

(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.

(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

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51. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?

(a) WhatsApp

(b) Google Talk

(c) Viber

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

52. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.

Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

53. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?

(1) Landslide

(2) Chemical contamination

(3) Wildfire

(4) Lightning

54. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?

(1) Lead

(2) Ozone

(3) Pesticides

(4) Mercury

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.

Year

Population (million)

Electrical Power Production (GW)*

1951

20

10

1961

21

20

1971

24

25

1981

27

40

1991

30

50

2001

32

80

2011

35

100

 

 

* 1 GW =1000 million watt

Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 55 to 60.

55. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?

(1) 2001-2011

(2) 1971-1981

(3) 1981-1991

(4) 1991-2001

56. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?

(1) 400 W

(2) 500 W

(3) 100 W

(4) 200 W

57. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

(1) ~ 6.73%

(2) ~ 5%

(3) ~ 12.21%

(4) ~ 9.82%

58. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?

(1) 37.28 million

(2) 36.62 million

(3) 40.34 million

(4) 38.49 million

59. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?

(1) 600%

(2) 900%

(3) 100%

(4) 300%

60. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?

(1) 1991-2001

(2) 2001-2011

(3) 1961-71

(4) 1971-81

Answer Key:

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

1

2

31

4

2

3

32

3

3

4

33

3

4

2

34

4

5

2

35

2

6

4

36

2

7

3

37

4

8

2

38

2

9

4

39

3

10

1

40

1

11

3

41

3

12

1

42

2

13

2

43

2

14

3

44

2

15

2

45

1

16

1

46

4

17

4

47

2

18

1

48

3

19

2

49

4

20

1

50

4

21

2

51

2

22

4

52

3

23

1

53

2

24

4

54

3

25

2

55

1

26

2

56

2

27

2

57

4

28

4

58

4

29

4

59

2

30

1

60

3

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam.