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UGC NET Home Science Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Home Science Previous Year Paper: Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your UGC NET 2020 Exam preparation. In this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Home Science July 2018 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

May 27, 2020 18:25 IST
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UGC NET Home Science Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys
UGC NET Home Science Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Home Science Previous Year Paper: To score high marks in NTA UGC NET 2020 Home Science Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of UGC NET Home Science Paper-2. Practicing Previous Year Papers will help the candidates to improve their speed of attempting questions time with accuracy. In this article we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Home Science Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.

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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Home Science Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. During fevers with every 18F increase in body temperature, the Basal Metabolic Rate changes by:

(1) 7% increase

(2) 7% decrease

(3) 5% increase

(4) 5% decrease

Answer: (1)

2. Recommended Dietary Allowance of Iron (ICMR, 2010) for a 15 year old girl is:

(1) 32 mg/day

(2) 27 mg/day

(3) 35 mg/day

 (4) 28 mg/day

Answer: (2)

3. According to JNC-7 classification of high blood pressure, the cutoff for systolic and diastolic blood pressure are:

(1) SBP<120, DBP<80

(2) SBP>140, DBP>80

(3) SBP>120, DBP>90

(4) SBP>120, DBP>80

Answer: (4)

4. 1.9 scale in a managerial grid indicates:

(1) Seeking acceptance and approval.

(2) Making contribution that makes a difference.

(3) Being popular and ‘in’.

(4) Desire to Hang on.

Answer: (1)

5. The capacity of an individual to think rationally and solve problems is a part of:

(1) Fine motor activity

(2) Language development

(3) Cognitive development

(4) Good management skills

Answer: (3)

6. A resilient child is one who:

(1) Gives up easily on tasks of endurance.

(2) Lacks emotional stability.

(3) Suffers from various health problems.

(4) Bounces back from circumstances that would harm most others.

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following is not an Embroidery Stitch?

(1) Dabka

(2) Menthi

(3) Phanda

(4) Murri

Answer: (1)

8. For ‘basting’ operations in tailored Men’swear and Women’swear garments which of the following stitch class, is generally used in the garment industry?

(1) Class 100

(2) Class 200

(3) Class 400

(4) Class 500

Answer: (1)

9. The principle of management that “in union there is strength” is called as:

(1) Scalar Chain

(2) Equity to Gain

(3) Stability of Tenure

(4) Esprit De Corps

Answer: (4)

10. The study of the interaction between people and machines is called as:

(1) Ecology

(2) Engineering

(3) Automation

(4) Ergonomics

Answer: (4)

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11. Maximum number of employed women in India are part of the following sector of the Indian economy:

(1) Formal Sector

(2) Informal Sector

(3) Corporate Sector

(4) Industrial Sector

Answer: (2)

12. Advantages of written communication are:

(a) Serves as an evidence

(b) Reduces ambiguity

(c) Enables authority

(d) Enables uniformity

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (4)

13. Researcher wants to test the association of female literacy on infant feeding practices. Which of the following test of significance is the most appropriate for this?

(1) F-test

(2) Chi-square test

(3) ‘t’ test

(4) Mann-Whitney test

Answer: (2)

14. To test the impact of Mid Day Meal Programme (MDM) on the nutritional status of School Children, the heights and weights of children were measured before the start of MDM programme and six months after the programme was started. Which of the following test of significance is the most appropriate for the above data?

(1) ‘t’ test

(2) paired ‘t’ test

(3) chi square test

(4) sign test

Answer: (2)

15. The following serum parameters in biochemical evaluation of blood are indicative of liver disorder:

(a) Serum bilirubin elevated

(b) SGOT and SGPT lowered

(c) Serum albumin lowered

(d) Serum globulin elevated

(e) Serum alkaline phosphate lowered

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (d) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (e)

Answer: (3)

16. Following are the symptoms of diabetes mellitus:

(a) polyuria

(b) polydypsia

(c) hypoglycemia

(d) hyperglycemia

(e) hypophagia

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (e)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

17. Following nutrients are required for an efficient immune response:

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Zinc

(c) Calcium

(d) Protein

(e) Thiamin

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (e)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (e)

Answer: (3)

18. Following are anthropometric methods for assessment of nutrition status:

(a) Haemoglobin estimation

(b) MUAC

(c) Waist hip ratio

(d) Urinary iodine measurement

(e) Body mass index

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (e)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (d) and (e)

(4) (b), (c) and (e)

Answer: (4)

19. Following are the symptoms of ascorbic acid deficiency:

(a) Gingivitis

(b) Delayed wound healing

(c) Angular stomatitis

(d) Petechial hemorrhage

(e) Tachycardia

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (d) and (e)

(3) (c), (d) and (e)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (4)

20. Egg is used in cookery as:

(a) sequestrant

(b) stabilizer

(c) emulsifier

(d) clarifier

(e) tenderiser

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (c), (d), (e)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (e)

Answer: (3)

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21. Fermentation is used in the production of:

(a) Ketchup

(b) Wine

(c) Cocoa powder

(d) Marmalade

(e) Cheese

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (e)

(3) (a), (b), (c)

(4) (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (2)

22. Food cost increase in a restaurant can be attributed to:

(a) Raw material bought off season.

(b) Specification not precise.

(c) Kitchen being automized.

(d) Maintenance of Food Standards.

(e) Storage temperature not maintained.

Code:

(1) (b), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (b), (e)

(3) (a), (b), (c)

(4) (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (2)

23. Records that help in personnel management:

(a) Job specification

(b) Invoice (c) K.O.T.

(d) Work schedule

(e) Organisation chart

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (e)

(3) (a), (d), (e)

(4) (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (3)

24. Strategic Management involves:

(a) Assessment of external environment

(b) Identification of subsystem

(c) Unity of command

(d) Span of control

(e) Assessment of resources and capabilities (f) Identification of goal

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (f)

(2) (a), (c), (e), (f)

(3) (a), (b), (e), (f)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

25. Theorists that extended the work of psychoanalytic theorist Freud are:

(a) Erik Erikson

(b) Carl Jung

(c) Urie Bronfenbrenner

(d) Alfred Adler

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (2)

26. What are the most common Chromosomal Anomalies?

(a) Multiple sclerosis

(b) Down’s syndrome

(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(d) Turner syndrome

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (1)

27. Childhood trauma can cause the following psychiatric problems:

(a) Chronic Disassociation

(b) PTSD

(c) Rhinitis

(d) Depression

Code:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (2)

28. Which of these theorists contributed to behaviourism?

(a) Pavlov

(b) Skinner

(c) Watson

(d) Voigt

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

29. Which of the terms relate to language development?

(a) Syncretic

(b) Semantics

(c) Syntax

(d) Pragmatics

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (1)

30. Which of the following are major properties of activewear that are of interest today?

(a) Thermal insulation

(b) Stretch with full recovery

(c) Moisture transfer

(d) Water resistance

(e) Flame retardant

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (b), (d), (e)

(3) (d), (e), (c), (a)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (4)

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31. Which of the following are Ikat centres in India?

(a) Chirala

(b) Sambalpur

(c) Mandvi

(d) Ajanta

(e) Bhuj

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c), (e)

(4) (a), (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (2)

32. Which of the following are twill weave fabrics?

(a) Chino

(b) Chambray

(c) Monk’s cloth

(d) Drill

(e) Broad cloth

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (d), (e)

(3) (a), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

33. Which of the following reagents can be used for removing brown stains left after the use of potassium permaganate?

(a) Salt of lemon

(b) Acetic acid

(c) Oleic acid

(d) Oxalic acid

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

34. While buying a coat for yourself you realize that its buttonholes are untidy with the cut ends protruding between stitches. What could be the probable reasons?

(a) Buttonholes cut after they are made

(b) Use of lock stitch for buttonhole sewing

(c) Absence of gimp

(d) Incorrect stitch bight

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (4)

35. Which of the following are the intrinsic values in management?

(a) Co-operation

(b) Technological satisfaction

(c) Honesty

(d) Creativity

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d)

Answer: (3)

36. Hidden Family Income is derived from a combination of:

(a) Investment Income

(b) Community Income

(c) Employment Benefit

(d) Psychic Income

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (4)

37. The 4 P’s of marketing mix given by Philip Kotler are:

(a) Price

(b) Purchase

(c) Promotion

(d) Place

(e) Product

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (c), (d), (e)

(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d), (e)

Answer: (2)

38. Which of the following combination of colours on the Prang color wheel make a complementary colour scheme?

(a) Red and Blue

(b) Blue and Orange

(c) Red and Green

(d) Yellow and Purple

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (b), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (4)

39. Which of the following are included in the four C’s of credit?

(a) Character

(b) Capacity

(c) Causes

(d) Capital

(e) Collateral

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(3) (a), (c), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (b), (d), (e)

Answer: (4)

40. The tools used for Public Relations are:

(a) Organising a Press Conference

(b) Issuing a Press Release

(c) Managing Media Relations

(d) Advertising for Promotion

Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d)

Answer: (1)

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41. Our ‘self-concept’ which influences our communication behaviour is developed due to the following factors:

(a) Cultural traditions

(b) Self-evaluation

(c) Social roles

(d) Social organisation

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

42. A whatsapp chat between two friends can be an example of the following:

(a) Formal Communication

(b) Informal Communication

(c) Dyadic Communication

(d) Interpersonal Communication

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d)

Answer: (2)

43. The adopters of new ideas and technologies can be categorised under the following heads as per the Evret Roger’s diffusion of innovation approach.

(a) Laggards

(b) Explorers

(c) Early Majority

(d) Inventors

(e) Innovators

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (e)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

44. Which of the following are time related PLA methods?

(a) Historical Transect

(b) Venn diagrams

(c) Matrix ranking

(d) Seasonal diagram

(e) Trend analysis

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (c), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (d), (e)

Answer: (4)

45. Following are the characteristics of pearson’s ‘r’:

(a) Bivariate distribution

(b) Univariate distribution

(c) Value varies between ±1

(d) Value varies between +1 & 0

Code:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

Answer: (1)

46. Following are the characteristics of a positively skewed distribution:

(a) Skewed to right

(b) Skewed to left

(c) Median and mode greater than mean

(d) Mean greater than median and mode

(e) Bell shaped curve

Code:

(1) (c) and (e)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (d)

(4) (a) and (c)

Answer: (3)

47. Assertion (A): Public Health Nutrition Programmes should create more open spaces for physical activity to promote fitness.

Reason (R): Overweight and obesity are major predisposing factors for developing Non-communicable diseases.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Answer: (4)

48. Assertion (A): To assess malnutrition levels in population during famines the most widely accepted practice is to assess it in children ages 6 to 59 months.

Reason (R): In times of food shortages, the young children are the first to develop signs of malnutrition.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

Answer: (1)

49. Assertion (A): Dietary Guidelines of all countries strongly recommend that vegetable and fruits be consumed daily in sufficient quantities.

Reason (R): Vegetable and fruits are recognised as foods for promotion of health and prevention of chronic diseases due to their bioactive constituents.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

Answer: (1)

50. Assertion (A): Green leafy vegetables should be cooked in open pan to retain its green colour.

Reason (R): The formation of dark green colour is brought about by the reaction of iron and sulphur present in it which forms ferrous sulphide.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct .

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

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51. Assertion (A): Prime vending is a method of purchase that has gained popularity among restaurants.

Reason (R): The buyer agrees to buy certain items from a supplier for an agreed on period of time, based on a fixed mark-up over the vendor’s cost.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

52. Assertion (A): Food safety plan serves as an operational tool.

Reason (R): HACCP is a stand alone safety plan for food service unit.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct .

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

53. Assertion (A): Premature child tends to make faster developmental strides through life than those born at full term.

Reason (R): The parental overprotectiveness leads to positive gains for children who are born prematurely.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

54. Assertion (A): When the elderly are not cared for by their children they develop early dementia.

Reason (R): Caring for the aged leads to a greater sense of well being and this prevents onset of dementia.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

55. Assertion (A): Studies have also shown that bilingual children achieve higher scores than monolingual on a number of tests of cognitive theory.

Reason (R): Bilingualism trains children to focus their attention on the relevant variables in the context, particularly that is ambiguous or contradictory.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

56. Assertion (A): Embroidery, sequins and applique form the structural design in a Garment.

Reason (R): Structural design is the surface enrichment of the Garment.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

57. Assertion (A): The grain in a woven fabric can be identified by the degree of stretch along the yarns.

Reason (R): Warp yarns stretch more in comparison to weft yarns.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

Answer: (4)

58. Assertion (A): Acid dyes are suitable for wool and silk.

Reason (R): Acid dyes form ionic bonds with the hydroxy groups found in wool and silk.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

59. Assertion (A): The system is a set of inter-dependent subsystems that constitute a united whole.

Reason (R): The management of a family depends upon the components of the environments of these subsystems.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

60. Assertion (A): Record keeping in money management helps to compare monthly expenditure with the spending plan.

Reason (R): Records show distribution of money after expenditure has been made.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct .

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (1)

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61. Assertion (A): Work curve is an important tool for managing work time.

Reason (R): Work curves help to study the changes in output of work over a period of time.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

62. Assertion (A): Listening is the same activity as hearing.

Reason (R): Most people are capable of receiving many sounds that they do not listen to at all.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

63. Assertion (A): The process of socialisation of children as girls and boys is called gendering.

Reason (R): Children internalise behaviours and roles as per the gendering processes.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

64. Assertion (A): Organising for social change is empowering and transformative.

Reason (R): Organising for social change has to be pro-empowered and pro-rich to be more effective.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct .

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (1)

65. Arrange the following food items in increasing order of their protein content per 100 g of food.

(a) egg (hen)

(b) almonds

(c) white bread

(d) rajmah

(e) buffalo milk

Code:
(1) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)

(2) (e), (c), (a), (d), (b)

(3) (e), (c), (a), (b), (d)

(4) (c), (e), (a), (b), (d)

Answer: (3)

66. Arrange in correct sequence the monitoring and evaluation process of a national nutrition programme.

(a) Develop a structure for the analysis.

(b) Determine key indicators for the evaluation and monitoring process.

(c) Write up the findings and conclusions.

(d) Identify patterns, trends and possible interpretations.

(e) Collect information on the indicators.

Code:

(1) (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(2) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)

(3) (e), (b), (a), (c), (d)

(4) (b), (e), (a), (d), (c)

Answer: (4)

67. Arrange the process of cheese making in the proper sequence.

(a) Curd formation

(b) Cheddar

(c) Pasteurization

(d) Ripening

(e) Moulding

(f) Milling and salting

Code:

(1) (c), (a), (b), (f), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d), (f)

(3) (c), (a), (b), (f), (e), (d)

(4) (b), (d), (f), (e), (a), (c)

Answer: (3)

68. Arrange in the right sequence the steps required for establishing a TQM program.

(a) Brainstorm

(b) Be persistent

(c) Analyse the process

(d) Be openminded and flexible

(e) Learn from others

(f) Be selective

(g) Listen to employee’s problem

Code:
(1) (c), (g), (a), (f), (b), (d), (e)

(2) (e), (g), (c), (a), (b), (f), (d)

(3) (c), (d), (a), (f), (b), (g), (e)

(4) (a), (c), (e), (f), (d), (g), (b)

Answer: (3)

69. Arrange in sequence the development of language in children.

(a) Holophrastic

(b) Early complex sentences

(c) Telegraphic stage

(d) Linguistic Intutions

(e) Complex sentences

Code:

(1) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b), (e)

(3) (e), (b), (c), (a), (d)

(4) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)

Answer: (1)

70. Arrange in sequence the development of milestones during infancy.

(a) Social smile

(b) Sits without support

(c) Turns from prone to supine

(d) Pulls to standing

(e) Climbs stairs

Code:

(1) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b), (e)

(3) (e), (b), (c), (a), (d)

(4) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)

Answer: (1)

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71. Give the correct sequence in the processing of textiles.

(a) Bleaching

(b) Mercerization

(c) Scouring

(d) Singing

(e) Desizing

Code:

(1) (d), (e), (b), (c), (a)

(2) (d), (e), (c), (a), (b)

(3) (e), (c), (b), (a), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (e), (d)

Answer: (2)

72. Give the correct sequence of ‘Kani’ shawl weaving.

(a) Drawing of design pattern

(b) Threading of warp onto the loom

(c) Weaving of shawl in long strips

(d) Winding of thread

(e) Combing and spinning of fibers

(f) Collection and sorting of fleece

(g) Joining together of fragments of shawl

(h) Washing and dyeing

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (a), (g), (h)

(2) (f), (e), (h), (d), (b), (a), (c), (g)

(3) (f), (g), (h), (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (b), (d), (c), (f), (e), (g), (h)

Answer: (2)

73. A consumer passes through five stages in buying decision process. Arrange the sequence of decision making steps in correct order.

(a) Information search

(b) Problem recognition

(c) Purchase decision

(d) Post purchase behaviour

(e) Evaluation of alternatives

Code:

(1) (c), (d), (e), (b), (a)

(2) (a), (c), (e), (d), (b)

(3) (b), (a), (e), (c), (d)

(4) (e), (d), (b), (c), (a)

Answer: (3)

74. Arrange the following stages of family life cycle as per their order of occurrence.

(a) Period of establishment and elementary school

(b) Child-bearing and pre-school

(c) Vocational adjustment of children

(d) High School and College

(e) Retirement

(f) Financial Recovery

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c), (f), (e)

(2) (b), (a), (c), (d), (f), (e)

(3) (c), (b), (d), (a), (e), (f)

(4) (a), (b), (d), (c), (e), (f)

Answer: (All)

75. Arrange the following legislations in the chronological order of their implementation.

(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act

(b) Dowry Prohibition Act

(c) Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostics techniques Act

(d) Hindu Marriage Act

(e) Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act

(f) The sexual harassment of women at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal Act)

Code:

(1) (f), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a)

(2) (d), (b), (a), (c), (e), (f)

(3) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e), (f)

(4) (f), (e), (d), (c), (b), (a)

Answer: (2)

76. Arrange the following steps of persuasive speech as proposed by Aristotle.

(a) Arrangement

(b) Invention

(c) Style

(d) Delivery

(e) Memory

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)

(3) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(4) (b), (a), (e), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

77. Match the tests given in List – I with the chemical compounds in List – II.

List-I

List-II

(a) Fehling's test

(b) Seliwanoff’s test

(c) Kjeldahl’s test

(d) xanthoproteic test

(e) Nitroprusside test

(i) Nitrogen

(ii) Free fatty acids

(iii) Ketose sugar

(iv) Aromatic amino acids

(v) Reducing sugar

(vi) Distinguish between mono & di saccharides

(vii) Sulphur containing amino acids

Code:

      (a) (b)  (c) (d)  (e)

(1) (v) (iii) (i) (iv) (vii)

(2) (vi) (v) (i) (ii) (vii)

(3) (v) (vi) (i) (vii) (iv)

(4) (v) (ii) (i) (vi) (vii)

Answer: (1)

78. Match the nutrient in List – I with its deficiency symptom in List – II.

List-I

List-II

(a) Folic acid

(b) Zinc

(c) Calcium

(d) Iodine

(c) Riboflavin

(i) Tetanv

(ii) Microcytic anaemia

(iii) Cheilosis

(iv) Koilonvchia

(v) Megaloblastic anaemia

(vi) hypogeusia

(vii) Impaired mental function

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (v) (vi) (i) (vii) (iii)

(2) (ii) (vi) (i) (vii) (iii)

(3) (v) (vii) (iv) (vi) (iii)

(4) (ii) (vi) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (1)

79. Match the active ingredient of foods in List – I related to cancer prevention with their sources in List – II.

List-I

List-II

(a) Phytochemical

(b) Alpha Lipor acid

(c) Flavonoids

(d) Glutathione

(e) Selenium

(i) Tomatoes

(ii) Green tea

(iii) Potatoes

(iv) Turmeric

(v) Broccoli

(vi) Sea foods

(vii) Asparagus

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (i) (v) (ii) (vi) (iv)

(2) (v) (i) (iv) (vii) (ii)

(3) (i) (ii) (vii) (vi) (iv)

(4) (v) (iii) (ii) (vii) (vi)

Answer: (4)

80. Match the organism in List – I with the food through which it is transmitted in List – II.

List—I

List-II

(a) Salmonella

(b) Streptococcus

(c) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Taenia Solium

(e) Shigella

(i) Raw vegetables and salad

(ii) Low acid canned foods

(iii) Dehydrated vegetables

(iv) Egg and meat products

(v) Pork and its products

(vi) Cream and dairy products

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (v)

(2) (iv) (vi) (ii) (v) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (v) (ii)

(4) (iii) (v) (ii) (vi) (i)

Answer: (2)

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81. Match the items in List – I with the foods in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Sorb acid

(b) Benzoic acid

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Sodium nitrate

(e) Acetic acid

(f) Niscin

(i) Jelly

(ii) Beer

(iii) Cheese

(iv) Yogurt

(v) Chutney

(vi) Bread

(vii) Processed meat

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)

(1) (i) (ill) (iv) (vi) (v) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (vii) (v)

(3) (iii) (v) (vi) (vii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii (vii) (v) (iii)

Answer: (4)

82. Match the terms in List – I with the areas of operation in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Invoice

(b) Prospectus

(c) Satelliting

(d) Factor method

(e) BARS

(f) Percentage method

(i) Recipe adjustment

(ii) Pricing the product

(iii) Performance appraisal

(iv) Purchase

(v) Storage technique

(vi) Commissary service

(vii) Layout planning

Code:

      (a) (b)  (c)  (d)  (e)  (f)

(1) (ii) (iii) (vii) (v) (i) (vi)

(2) (iv) (vii) (vi) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (v) (i) (ii) (iv) (vi) (vii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (v) (vii) (vi)

Answer: (2)

83. Match the terms in List – I with description in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Anorexia nervosa

(b) Dementia

(c) Addiction

(d) Pragmatism

(i) Learning by doing

(ii) Eating disorder

(iii) Psychological dependence

(iv) Neurological disorder

(v) Emotional imbalance

Code:

     (a)  (b)   (c)  (d)

(1) (v) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer: (4)

84. Match the organisation in List – I with their area of function in List – II.

List-I

List-II

(a) NHRC

(b) NCPCR

(c) CARA

(d) NIPCCD

(i) Adoption

(ii) Training and documentation

(iii) Human rights

(iv) Child rights

(v) Disability

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (v) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (4)

85. Match the stage in List – I with achievement in List – II.

List—I

List-II

(a) Sensory motor stage

(b) Preoperational stage

(c) Concrete operations

(d) Formal operations

(i) Centration

(ii) Object permanence

(iii) Test hypothesis

(iv) Conservation of numbers

(v) Formation

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (v)

Answer: (1)

86. Match the dyes given in List – I with their characteristics given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Disperse dye

(b) Direct dye

(c) Azoic dye

(d) Metallized dye

(i) Contain a functional group to improve solubility in alcohols

(ii) Applied from acid bath

(iii) water-soluble dyes and substantive to cellulose and protein fibers

(iv) Dye developed with in textile from chemical reactions

(v) Only slightly soluble in water and diffuses into most thermoplastic fibers

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)

(2) (iii) (i) (v) (iv)

(3) (v) (ii) (iv) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer: (3)

87. Match the items given in List – I with their description given in List – II.

List-I

List-II

(a) Toiles de Jouy

(b) Tapestry

(c) Tapa

(d) Waffle doth

(i) Fabric with honey comb weave

(ii) Fabric with delicate printed designs

(iii) Pattern woven in coloured filling yarns

(iv) A non woven cloth

(v) Type of quilting

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (v) (iii)

(2) (ii) (ill) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (2)

88. Match the testing equipments given in List – I with their purpose for testing given in List – II.

List-I

List-II

 (a) Gray scale

(b) Xenon Arc

(c) Crockometer

(d) Sharp Point tester

 (i) Light fastness

(ii) Rub fastness

(iii) Safety in clothing

(iv) Wash fastness

(v) Staining test and change in colour

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer: (1)

89. Match the description given in List – I with the terms given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) A device for transmitting information to some machine

(b) Measurement of intensity of sound

(c) A study of human motion and its physical aspecis

(d) Measurement of frequency of sound

(e) A technique of presenting information about the state of a system

(i) Display

(ii) Hertz (Hz)

(iii) Electromyography

(iv) Control

(v) Biomechanics

(vi) Decibel (dB)

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (iii) (ii) (vi) (i) (v)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)

(3) (iv) (vi) (v) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (3)

90. Match the terms given in List – I with the items in List – II.

List-I

List-II

(a) Proportion

(b) Butt

(c) Glare

(d) Valve

(e) Pattern

(i) Furniture Joint

(ii) Greek oblong

(iii) Color dimension

(iv) Surface ornamentation

(v) Illumination

(vi) Accessories

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (vi) (i)

(3) (i) (iv) (vi) (iii) (ii)

(4) (vi) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (1)

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91. Match the terms given in List – I with the description given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) CERC

(b) GNP

(c) CI

(d) OMBUDSMAN

(e) District Forum

(i) Flow of goods and services in the economy

(ii) International Organisation for Consumer Protection

(iii) National Consumer Organisation

(iv) Alternative Agency for consumer Redressel

(v) Journal for Consumer Education

(vi) Consumer Protection Act

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (v) (vi)

(2) (ii) (i) (ii) (iv) (vi)

(3) (i) (v) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) (i)

Answer: (2)

92. Match the mass communication theories given in List – I with their basic guiding philosophy given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Authoritarian

(b) Libertarian

(c) Social Responsibility

(d) Soviet Communist

(e) Development Media

(i) Media are free

(ii) Media are free but responsible

(iii) Media are controlled

(iv) Media are universal

(v) Media to assist in growth of society

(vi) Media are agents of government

 

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (iii) (vi) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (vi) (v)

(3) (iii) (vi) (ii) (i) (v)

(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (2)

93. Match the names of the proponents of the extension and development initiatives given in List – I with the project/scheme they are associated with given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Albert Mayer

(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(c) F.L. Bryam

(d) M.K. Gandhi

(e) Spencer Hatch

(i) Sriniketan Project

(ii) Sevagram Project

(iii) Marthandam Project

(iv) Ettawah Project

(v) Gurgaon Project

(vi) Servants of India Project

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (v) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (vi) (i) (iii)

(3) (iv) (vi) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (v) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (4)

94. Match the elements of communication process given in List – I with the type of communication research they relate to given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Who says?

(b) Says what?

(c) In which channel?

(d) To whom?

(e) With what effect?

(i) Content research

(ii) Medium research

(iii) Audience research

(iv) Control research

(v) Effects research

(vi) Flexibility research

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (vi) (v)

(2) (ii) (vi) (iv) (iii) (v)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (vi) (v)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)

Answer: (4)

95. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II.

List-I

List—II

(a) Type I error

(b) Kruskal-Wallis test

(c) Centile rank

(d) Directional alternate hypothesis

(e) X±3S.D.

(i) 95% area under curve

(ii) % of cases falling below a given score point

(iii) Distribution free test

(iv) 99.7% area under curve

(v) Rejecting true null hypothesis

(vi) Accepting false null hypothesis

(vii) HA: μ ≠ 30

(vii) HA: μ < 30

 

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (vi) (iii) (ii) (viii) (i)

(2) (v) (iii) (ii) (viii) (iv)

(3) (vi) (iii) (ii) (vii) (iv)

(4) (v) (iii) (ii) (vii) (i)

Answer: (2)

96. Match the types of indicators given in List – I with their explanation given in List – II.

List—I

List—II

(a) Direct indicators

(b) Formative indicators

(c) Summa Live indicators

(d) Quantitative indicators

(e) Process indicators

(i) Set to be measured within a time frame

(ii) Measure magnitude of change

(iii) Used when expected change is not directly observable

(iv) Relate to precise and comprehensive change

(v) Measure performance at the end

(vi) Measure qualitative data

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (v)

(2) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (vi)

(3) (iv) (i) (v) (ii) (vi)

(4) (ii) (v) (i) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

Read the passage given below and answer Q. 97 to 100.

Given the evidence we have, that early and exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months can contribute substantially to enhance child survival, and good complementary feeding can contribute to reduction in stunting, it becomes imperative that action on early nutrition must be taken. A pilot project provides useful model to set up delivery mechanism. It used both community based and facility based strategy for promotion of optimal Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF). The IYCF practices skilled counselling, better supervision and monitoring with the aim of reaching out to all pregnant and lactating women, to contribute to the nutrition and health status of their children under two.

A base-line pre-intervention evaluation was done to document feeding practices. The implementation included building capacity at the grassroots and support system at the block and district level. This was achieved through engaging 48 local  graduate women ‘mentors’ -, eight in each of the six blocks. These ‘mentors’ were trained as trainers with knowledge and skills of counselling on feeding practices. They were also asked to further train a team of 3-4 ‘Village level counsellors’ from among Anganwadi workers, ASHA, Dai (Traditional Birth Attendant) or a link mother from the same village, who formed a ‘Mother Support Group’. These did home-visiting and facility based counselling to provide education to mothers and families on breastfeeding and complementary feeding. They used ‘counselling guides’ received along with their training, for the purpose of counselling. They also used IEC approach and materials like pamphlets and posters etc. The village level counsellors helped and supported mothers with feeding difficulties, and referred them to block level counselling centres if they were not able to solve any problem.

The post intervention evaluation showed significant improvement in four feeding practices, namely, reduction in prelacteal feeding from 44.4% to 28.3%, increase in initiation of breastfeeding within one hour of birth from 39.2% to 57.9%, exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months from 6.85% to 24.9% and introduction of complementary foods along with continued breastfeeding between 6-9 months from 4.6% to 35.8%.

97. Which research design was used in the pilot project?

(1) Descriptive

(2) Exploratory

(3) Experimental

(4) Survey

Answer: (3)

98. The use of training a few ‘mentors’ to train village level workers is called:

(1) Counselling guides

(2) Mother’s support group

(3) Training of trainers

(4) Village level counsellors

Answer: (3)

99. Why was action on early nutrition intervention important?

(a) To promote child survival

(b) To reduce malnutrition among children

(c) To achieve global targets of child feeding programmes

(d) To reduce stunting among children

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

100. Why was it important to know base-line pre-intervention figures for key behaviours related to IYCF?

(a) To measure gain in knowledge

(b) To assess change in skills

(c) To know the priorities of intervention

(d) To assess change in attitudes towards breastfeeding

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (4)

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam.

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