Q1) Consider the following statements about the election of President:
1) All the members of both the houses of parliament, state legislative assemblies and the legislative assemblies of the UT of Delhi and Puducherry take part in election.
2) The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of president must be subscribed by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1 c) Only 2
b) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Explanation: only elected members of both the Houses of Parliament, state legislative assemblies and the legislative assemblies of the UT of Delhi and Puducherry can take part in the election of President ,not all the members (elected & nominated).
Q2) Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
1) UPSC can also serve the needs of a state on the request of the Governor and with the approval of Parliament.
2) Parliament determines the condition of service of the Chairman and members of the UPSC.
3) President can confer additional function on UPSC relating to the Service of Union.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only c) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above
Answer: b
Explanation: UPSC can also serve the needs of a state on the request of the Governor and with the approval of President (not Parliament). President determines the condition of service of the Chairman and members of the UPSC and Parliament (not President) can confer additional function on UPSC relating to the Service of Union.
Q3) Salient features of Parliamentary System are:
1) Dual executive.
2) Separation of powers
3) Majority party rule
4) Double membership
Select the correct code given below:
a) 2,3,4 c) 1,2,3
b) 1,3,4 d) 1,2,3,4
Answer: b
Explanation: Separation of powers is a salient feature of ‘Presidential system’ not Parliamentary system.
Q4) Whenever the President has to addresses the Parliament, who among the following prepares his address?
a) Cabinet secretary
b) Prime minister and his Council of Ministers
c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
d) President himself
Answer: b
Explanation: Prime minister and his Council of Ministers prepare his address.
Q5) who among the following is not a member of committee Which makes recommendation for the post of Chief Information Commissioner:
a) Prime Minister
b) Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
c) Union Law Minister
d) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Answer: c
Explanation: Union Law minister is not a part of the committee. This committee consists of Prime Minister as a Chairperson, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha and a Union Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Q6) Consider the following statement about the various Cut Motions:
1) Cut Motions can be moved in both the houses.
2) Token Cut means “demand to be reduced by a Rs 100”.
3) Economy Cut means “demand to be reduced by a specific amount”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only c) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation: Cut motions can be moved in Lok Sabha only. Cut motions are introduced to reduce any demand for grant.
Q7) Consider the following statements about the Consolidated Fund of India. It includes:
1) All revenue received by Government of India.
2) All loans raised by the treasury bills, loans or ways & means of advances.
3) All other public money received by Government of India such as provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, saving bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittance etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Money received by Government of India such as provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, saving bank deposits, departmental deposits ,remittance etc. are included in Public Account of India(article 266).
Q8) who administers oath to the Speaker ‘Pro Tem’?
a) President
b) Outgoing speaker
c) Leader of the Lok Sabha
d) None of these
Answer: a
Explanation: President appoints and administers oath to the Speaker ‘Pro Tem’. Speaker ‘Pro Tem’ is appointed when speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha and main duty of Speaker ‘Pro Tem’ is to administers oath to the new members of the Lok Sabha.
Q9) Which of the following statements are correct about the Attorney General of India?
1) He has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and joint sittings.
2) He is debarred from private legal practice.
3) He does not fall in the category of government servants.
Select the correct code given below:
a) 1 and 2 c) 1and 3
b) 2 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: c
Explanation: - Attorney General of India is appointed by President. He holds office during the pleasure of president. He is not debarred from private legal practice.
Q10) Consider the following statements:
1) Speaker of Lok Sabha is the head of the Lok Sabha and its representatives.
2) He is the guardian of powers and privileges of members, the House as a whole and its committee.
3) He resigns by writing to the President.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only c) 1and 3
b) 3 only d) 1 , 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation: He resigns by writing to the Deputy speaker (not President).
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