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UPPCS Mains Exam 2015 GENERAL STUDIES II Question Paper

Aug 12, 2016 15:01 IST

    UPPCS Previous Year Question papers provide the locus of the civil services preparations. UPPCS Question Papers play their part in the factual preparations and also help the candidates to prepare for the repeated questions as asked in the UPPCS Exams. Here is the UPPCS Main Exam 2015 General Studies II Question Paper.

    U.P.P.C.S. (Main) Examination - 2015

    GENERAL STUDIES (SECOND PAPER)

    [Time 2 hours]

    1. Which one of the following salts is found in maximum amount in the human bones?

    (a) Magnesium Chloride

    (b) Calcium Carbonate

    (c) Calcium Phosphate

    (d) Sodium Chloride

    Answer: (c)

    2. What is the full form of BMD test?

    (a) Bone Marrow Density

    (b) Bone Mineral Density

    (c) Bone Marrow Deficiency

    (d) Bone Marrow Differentiation

    Answer: (b)

    3. A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to

    (a) total internal reflection

    (b) absorption of light

    (c) some inherent property

    (d) its molecular structure

    Answer: (a)

    4. The number of colours contained in the sunlight is

    (a) 3

    (b) 5

    (c) 6

    (d) 7

    Answer: (d)

    5. The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is

    (a) Heat liberated during fermentation

    (b) Sugar stored :in the plants

    (c) Solar energy

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    6. Which one: of the following substances is used in glazing the pottery?

    (a) Alum

    (b) Calomel

    (c) Zinc- chloride

    (d) Zinc Oxide

    Answer: (c)

    7. The maximum density of water is at

    (a) 373 Kelvin

    (b) 277 Kelvin

    (c) 273 Kelvin

    (d) 269 Kelvin

    Answer: (b)

    8. Celcius and Fahrenheit thermometers would show same readings at

    Answer: (a)

    9. Hydrogen bomb was developed by

    (a) Adberd Taylor

    (b) Bcrnor Bon Bron

    (c) J. Robert Opan Heemar

    (d) Samual Cohen

    Answer: (a)

    10. Sea ,weeds are important source of which one of the following?

    (a) Sulphur

    (b) Chlorine

    (c) Bromine

    (d) Iodine

    Answer: (a)

    11. Which one of the following is coated on the photographic plate?

    (a) Silver oxide

    (b) Silver Bromide

    (c) Silver chloride

    (d) Silver iodide

    Answer: (c)

    12. Graphite is used in the nuclear reactor as a

    (a) Fuel

    (b) Lubricaant

    (c) moderator

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    13. Heavy water is manufactured in India at

    (a) Trombay

    (b) Assam.

    (c) Delhi

    (d) Bhilai

    Answer: (a)

    14. GPS stands for which one of the following?

    (a) Greenwich Polar Satellite

    (b) Global Police Surveillance

    (c) Global Positioning System

    (d) General Pacific Survey

    Answer: (c)

    15. In all bio-compounds the most necessary fundamental element is

    (a) Sulphur

    (b) Carbon

    (c) oxygen

    (d) Nitrogen

    Answer: (b)

    16. Which one of the following compounds is used to make fireproof clothing?

    (a) Sodium sulphate

    (b) Magnesium sulphate

    (c) Ferrous sulphate

    (d) Aluminium sulphate

    Answer: (d)

    17. Which one of the following is not natural polymer?

    (a) Wool

    (b) Leather

    (c) Nylon

    (d) Silk

    Answer: (c)

    18. Which one of the following is not an explosive?

    (a) Nitrochloroform

    (b) TNG

    (c) TNT

    (d) Potassium chlorate

    Answer: (a)

    19. Insulin is a

    (a) Steroid

    (b) Carbohydrate

    (e) Protein

    (d) Fat

    Answer: (c)

    20. Which one of the following is also known as ‘wood spirit’?

    (a) Methyl alcohol

    (b) Ethyl alcohol

    (e) Ethylene giycol

    (d) Glycerol

    Answer: (a)

    21. Which one of the following compounds is not stored in human body?

    (a) Glycogen

    (b) Amino acids

    (c) Fat

    (d) Tocopherol

    Answer: (d)

    22. Which one of the following is the best conductor of electricity?

    (a) Mica

    (b) Copper

    (c) Gold

    (d) Silver

    Answer: (d)

    23. Which one of the following is made up of Carbon only?

    (a) Kevlar

    (b) Lexan

    (c) Graphene

    (d) Spider silk

    Answer: (c)

    24. The resistance of a semiconductor on heating

    (a) remains constant

    (b) decreases

    (c) increases

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (b)

    25. The weight of human body is

    (a) Maximum at the poles.

    (b) Same at every place on the earth’s surface.

    (c) Maximum at the equator.

    (d) More on the mountains than planes.

    Answer: (a)

    26. The missing term (?) in the series 5, 11, 17, 23, 7, 41 is

    (a) 29

    (b) 31

    (c) 33

    (d) 37

    Answer: (b)

    27. The average of four consecutive odd natural numbers is 26. The largest of these numbers will be

    (a) 35

    (b) 31

    (c) 29

    (d) 27

    Answer: (c)

    28. January 12, 1979 was Friday. What among the following days will be January 12,1984?

    (a) Sunday

    (b) Monday

    (c) Tuesday

    (d) Wednesday

    Answer: (b)

    29. How many squares and triangles are there in the following figure?

    (a) 2 squares, 16 triangles

    (b) 3 squares, 14 triangles

    (c) 3 squares, 16 triangles

    (d) 3 squares. 18 triangles

    Answer: (d)

    30.

    (a) 12

    (b) 20

    (c) 54

    (d) 90

    Answer: (a)

    31. At time 1.10 pm the angle between two arms of a clock is

    (a) 20°

    (b) 25°

    (c) 30°

    (d) 35°

    Answer: (b)

    32. P is brother of K ; M is sister of K ; P is son of R ; M is daughter of S. The relation of S with K is

    (a) Mother

    (b) Father

    (c) Mother or Father

    (d) Undefined

    Answer: (c)

    33. If ‘MALE’ can be written as 15 + 3 + 14 + 7, then ‘BHEL’ can be written as

    (a) 2 + 6 + 14 + 7

    (b) 4 + 10 + 7+14

    (c) 4 + 12 + 7 + 14

    (d) 2 + 6 + 7 + 14

    Answer: (b)

    34. What is the next number (?) in the following series? 1, 7, 31, ?

    (a) 73

    (b) 120

    (c) 121

    (d) 127

    Answer: (d)

    35. A, B, C, D and E weigh differently. Among them B is heavier than C only. A is heavier than B and E but not than D. Who is the second heaviest among them?

    (a) A

    (b) B

    (c) D

    (d) E

    Answer: (a)

    36. The missing number in the following table is

    (a) 12

    (b) 15

    (c) 6

    (d) 4

    Answer: (c)

    37. If H. C. F. of two numbers is 8, then which one of the following numbers cannot be L. C. M. of those numbers?

    (a) 24

    (b) 48

    (c) 56

    (d) 60

    Answer: (d)

    38. Unit digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is :

    (a) 0

    (b) 4

    (c) 6

    (d) 8

    Answer: (a)

    39. The value of x in the following table is

    (a) 19

    (b) 18

    (c) 15

    (d) 13

    Answer: (d)

    40. The value of x in the following table is

    (a) 25

    (b) 32

    (c) 17

    (d) 28

    Answer: (b)

    41. The least number which is divisible by all the natural numbers 1 to 10 is

    (a) 5040

    (b) 2520

    (c) 1000

    (d) 100

    Answer: (b)

    42. If the side of a cube is increased by 20 %, then its volume will be increased by

    (a) 32.8%

    (b) 37.5%

    (c) 72.8%

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    43. A is the uncle of B. C is the wife of B. They have a son D whose sister is E. What relation A has with E?

    (a) Uncle

    (b) Grandfather’s brother

    (c) Father

    (d) Grandfather

    Answer: (b)

    44. The missing number in the following table is

    (a) 18

    (b) 16

    (c) 15

    (d) 10

    Answer: (d)

    45. A 110 metres long train passes a telegraph pole in 3 seconds. It will cross a railways platform 165 metres long in

    (a) 4.5 seconds

    (b) 5 seconds

    (c) 7.5 seconds

    (d) 10 seconds

    Answer: (c)

    46.

    Answer: (d)

    47.

    Answer: (d)

    48. If price of 3 pens, 2 pencils and 4 erasers is Rs. 92 and price of 8 pencils and 16 erasers is Rs. 68, then price of 24 pens is

    (a) Rs. 625

    (b) Rs. 500

    (c) Rs. 675

    (d) Rs. 600

    Answer: (d)

    49. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are starting in a circle. B is in between F and C, A is in between E and D, F is in the left of D. then in between A and F is

    (a) B

    (b) C

    (c) D

    (d) E

    Answer: (d)

    50. Which one of the following words will be at (?) given below? Shout: Whisper  Run?

    (a) Stay

    (b) Stand

    (c) Walk

    (d) Hop

    Answer: (c)

    51. A number is of two digits. The positions of digits are interchanged and the new number is added to the original number. The resultant number will be always divisible by

    (a) 9

    (b) 10

    (c) 11

    (d) 12

    Answer: (c)

    52. The least non- negative prime integer is

    (a) 0

    (b) 1

    (c) 2

    (d) 3

    Answer: (c)

    53. A point is selected at random inside a rectangle and perpendiculars are drawn on each side of the rectangle from the point. If the sum of these perpendiculars is 32 cm, then the perimeter of the rectangle will be

    (a) 48 cm

    (b) 64 cm

    (c) 96 cm

    (d) 32 cm

    Answer: (b)

    54. Choose odd one from the following :

    (a) 5, 12, 13

    (b) 6,8, 10

    (c) 5, 13, 17

    (d) 12,35,37

    Answer: (c)

    55. Pointing towards Geeta, Arjun said, “I am the only son of her mother’s son”. How is Geeta related to Arjun?

    (a) Paternal aunt

    (b) Maternal aunt

    (c) Mother

    (d) Mother or maternal aunt

    Answer: (a)

    56. Three years back the average age of a family of 6 members was 19 years. A baby having being born, the average of the family remains the same. Then the age of the baby (in years) is

    (a) 1

    (b) l1/2

    (c) 2

    (d) 3

    Answer: (a)

    57. The average of 5 numbers is 8 and the average of last 3 numbers is 6. The average of first two numbers will be

    (a) 9

    (b) 10

    (c) 11

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    58. The pie-chart below gives the expenditure on different items A, B, C, D and E in a household

    Answer: (b)

    59. The geometric mean of 3, 9,27, 81, 243 is

    Answer: (d)

    60. The mean or a, b, c, d is 50. If A = a - 5, B = b -10, C = c - 25 and D = d - 40, then the mean of A, B, C, D is

    (a) 25

    (b) 30

    (c) 41

    (d) 50

    Answer: (b)

    61. The harmonic mean of three numbers is 18. If two numbers are 12 and 36, the third number is

    (a) 18

    (b) 20

    (c) 24

    (d) 14

    Answer: (a)

    62. For X’s and Y’s the arithmetic mean are 64 and 57, respectively, then the arithmetic mean of Z = X + 2Y is

    (a) 171

    (b).172

    (c) 177

    (d) 178

    Answer: (d)

    63. If in a grouped data median is 50 and each frequency is multiplied by 3, then the new median is

    (a) 300

    (b) 150

    (c) 50

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    64. The mean of the following series :

    Answer: (c)

    65.

    Answer: (c)

    66. According to the pie- charts given below, how many students are enrolled in class X out of 2500 students?

    (a) 375

    (b) 525

    (c) 750

    (d) 850

    Answer: (a)

    67. Consider the following table :

    The percentage of students obtaining more than 10 and less than or equai to 40 marks is

    (a) 15

    (b) 65

    (c) 69

    (d) 74

    Answer: (b)

    68. If in a pie-diagram for a given data of 3600 individuals, the angle subtended by a component at the centre is 100", then the number of individuals in the component will be

    (a) 950

    (b) 1000

    (c) 1100

    (d) 1150

    Answer: (b)

    69. It has been observed that four consecutive years, the number of car manufactured by a company has been doubled over the previous year’s. If the average number of cars manufactured by the company in four years is 750, the number of cars manufactured during the fourth year will be

    (a) 1000

    (b) 1200

    (c) 1600

    (d) 2000

    Answer: (c)

    70.

    Answer: (d)

    71.

    Answer: (c)

    72. If ages are noted in completed years, then a child’s age who is 4 years 10 months, will be noted as

    (a; 4 years

    (b) 5 years

    (c) 4.10 years

    (d) 4-5 years

    Answer: (d)

    73. Which one of the following is the most refined level of measurement?

    (a) Ordinal level

    (b) Ratio level

    (c) Nominal level

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (b)

    74.

     

    Answer: (c)

    75. If the average of 10% of a number, 25% of that number, 50 % of that number and 75% of that number is 24, then the number will be

    (a) 50

    (b) 60

    (c) 70

    (d) 80

    Answer: (b)

    76. The percentage of attendance of a student in first semester was 70 % while in second semester it was 80 %. What will be percentage of attendance in two semesters taken together?

    (a) 75%

    (b) more than 75 %

    (c) less than 75 %

    (d) Percentage cannot be computed with the given data

    Answer: (a)

    77. The number of seats won by different parties in an election are given. Which one of the following cannot be an appropriate chart for the given data?

    (a) Bar hart

    (b) Pie hart

    (c) Divided bar hart

    (d) Histogram

    Answer: (c)

    78. A fair die is thrown 3 times and all the times no ‘six’ occurs. The probability of getting a ‘six’.in the fourth throw will be

    Answer: (a)

    79. If the variable X is measured in Kilogram, then the unit of the coefficient of variation is

    (a) Kilogram

    (b) (Kilogram)2

    (c) unit free

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    80. A frequency polygon can be superimposed on which one of the following?

    (a) Bar diagram only

    (b) Histogram only
    (c) Pie diagram only

    (d) All of the above

    Answer: (b)

    81. If the income of a household increases, the percentage of expenditure on food is like to

    (a) decrease

    (b) increase

    (c) remain constant

    (d) No definite pattern is likely to occur.

    Answer: (a)

    82. In a tehsil the numbers of people are as follows :

    Children    Adults       Old

    250           450         200

    The angle subtended at the centre in a pie diagram, corresponding to the children is

    (a) 114°

    (b) 105°

    (c) 100°

    (d) 97°

    Answer: (c)

    83. The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption of electricity by five cities A, B, C, D and E from 2009 to 2011.


    What was the percentage by which the total consumption of electricity by the five cities changed between 2009 to 2011?

    (a) –4

    (b) –4.45

    (c) 4

    (d) Data given is insufficent to answer.

    Answer: (d)

    84. In a survey, it was found that people spend 50 % on food, 10% on clothes, 10 % on house rent, 20% on other items and 10 % is saving. If we exclude saving and present the data on expenditure in a pie-chart, then angle for clothes will be

    (a) 36°

    (b) 40°

    (c) 45°

    (d) 50°

    Answer: (b)

    85. The data on number of couples using different family planning methods are given. These are to be presented in a chart. The appropriate chart for this will be

    (a) Line diagram

    (b) Multiple bar chart

    (c) Pie- chart

    (d) Histogram

    Answer: (c)

    86. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in:

    (a) President

    (b) Lok Sabha

    (c) Supreme Court

    (d) Cabinet

    Answer: (c)

    87. Who among the following is the head of the Special Investigation Team formed by the Government of India on black money?

    (a) Justice H. L. Dattu

    (b) Justice M. B. Shah

    (c) Justice Altamas Kabir

    (d) Justice Raj Mani Chauhan

    Answer: (b)

    88. The Federal Court of India was established in which of the following years?

    (a) 1935

    (b) 1937

    (c) 1946

    (d) 1947

    Answer: (a)

    89. The current sanctioned strength of judges of Supreme Court of India is

    (a) 20

    (b) 25

    (c) 30

    (d) 31

    Answer: (d)

    90. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India is related to equality before law?

    (a) Article 16

    (b) Article 15

    (c) Article 14

    (d) Article 13

    Answer: (c)

    91. Which one of the following is not among the six Fundamental Rights provided by the Constitution of India?

    (a) Right to equality

    (b) Right to protest,

    (c) Right against exploitation

    (d) Right to freedom of religion

    Answer: (b)

    92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    Answer: (d)

    93. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India eradicates untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form?

    (a) Article 17

    (b) Article 16

    (c) Article 15

    (d) Article 28

    Answer: (a)

    94. Under the Constitution who among the following is the guardian of the Fundamental Rights?

    (a) President

    (b) Judiciary

    (c) Parliament

    (d) Cabinet

    Answer: (b)

    95. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution?

    (a) Fundamental Rights

    (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

    (c) The Preamble

    (d) Right to Constitutional remedies

    Answer: (c)

    96. Time of ‘zero-hour’ in Parliament is

    (a) 9 a.m. to 10 a.m.

    (b) 10 a.m. to 11 a.m.

    (c) 11 a.m. to 12 a.m.

    (d) 12 noon to 1.00 p.m.

    Answer: (d)

    97. Which one of the following is empowered to alter the boundaries of States under the Constitution of India?

    (a) Parliament

    (b) Lok Sabha

    (c) President

    (d) Supreme Court

    Answer: (a)

    98. Which one of the following is no! the feature of Indian Constitution?

    (a) Parliamentary Government

    (b) Presidential Government

    (c) Independence of Judiciary

    (d) Ferderal Government

    Answer: (b)

    99. A money bill under the Constitution of India is tabled in the

    (a) Rajya Sabha

    (b) Public Accounts Committee

    (c) Lok Sabha

    (d) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously

    Answer: (c)

    100. Which one of the following is authorized to prorogue the session of the house of the people?

    (a) Speaker

    (b) Attorney General

    (c) Minister of Parliamentary affairs

    (d) President

    Answer: (d)

    101. Which one of the following is net a Standing Committee of Parliament?

    (a) Committee on Public Accounts

    (b) Estimate Committee

    (c) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs

    (d) Committee on Public Undertakings.

    Answer: ()

    102. The Union Territories get represntation in

    (a) Lok Sabha

    (b) Rajya Sabha

    (c) Both houses of Parliament

    (d) None of the above

    Answer: (c)

    103. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constitution Assembly on

    (a) 25th October, 1943

    (b) 26th November, 1949

    (c) 26th ‘November, 1948

    (d) 25th ‘October, 1949

    Answer: (b)

    104. The report of Public Accounts Committee is presented in the

    (a) Lok Sabha

    (b) President’s office

    (c) Finance Ministry

    (d) Prime Minister’s office

    Answer: (a)

    105. A person can remain a member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of the Parliament for

    (a) Three years

    (b) Two years

    (c) One years

    (d) Six months

    Answer: (d)

    106. According to which one of the following Constitutional Amendments in the Indian Constitution the Right to Property has been abolished?

    (a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

    (b) 43rd Amendment Act, 1977

    (c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978

    (d) 45th Amendment Act, 1979

    Answer: (a)

    107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :

         List-I                               List-II

    A. Article 76         1. Comptroller and Auditor General of lndia

    B. Ariticle l48        2. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.

    C. Ariticle 75(1)    3. Attorney General of India

    D. Article 131       4. Appointment of Union Ministers

    Codes:

    A B C D

    (a) 1 2 3 4

    (b) 2 1 4 2

    (c) 4 1 2 3

    (d) 2 3 4 1

    Answer: (b)

    108. Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with

    (a) Allocation of seats for the Council of States

    (b) Political defection

    (c) Panchyat system

    (d) Languages

    Answer: (a)

    109. The joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is summoned by

    (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

    (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

    (c) Prime Minister

    (d) President

    Answer: (d)

    110. The provision for the representation of anglo Indian Community in the Lok Sabha has been made in the Constitution of India under

    (a) Article-221

    (b) Article-222

    (c) Article-331

    (d) Articie-223

    Answer: (c)

    111. Who among the following was the first Lokayukt of Uttar Pradesh?

    (a) Justice K. N. Goyal

    (b) Justice Bishamabhar Dayal

    (c) Justice Murtaza Hussain

    (d) Justice N. K. Mehrotra

    Answer: (b)

    112. Which one of the following States is an exception to the Article 170 as a subject to the provision of the composition of the Legislative Assembly, a State shall consist of not less than sixty members?

    (a) Sikkim

    (b) Jammu & Kashmir

    (c) Haryana

    (d) Uttaranchal

    Answer: (a)

    113. Who among the following was the strong supporter of the principle that “Which is morally wrong, can never be politically right”?

    (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

    (b) Sardar Patel

    (c) M. K. Gandhi

    (d) C. Rajagopalachari

    Answer: (c)

    114. Who has said it : ‘I have not to beg pardon in connection with the allegation that in the draft of the Constitution, a major part of the Government of India Act, 1935, has again been reproduced’?

    (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    (b) Sardar Patel

    (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

    (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

    Answer: (d)

    115. Who among the following used to say “Wrong means never take us to right ends”?

    (a) Sardar Patel

    (b) M. K. Gandhi

    (c) Lala Lajpat Jai

    (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

    Answer: (b)

    116. Assertion (A) : The President of India is elected by indirect election.

             Reason (R) : There is a provision of electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected

    members of Legislative Assemblies of the Slates.

    In the context of above statements select the correct answer.

    (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    Answer: (c)

    117. Which one of the following States was the first set-up Panchayati Raj institutions in accordant with the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?

    (a) Uttar pradesh

    (b) Andhra Pradesh

    (c) Rajasthan

    (d) Telangana

    Answer: (c)

    118. In Panchayati Raj system the Panchayat Samiti is constituted at the

    (a) Village level

    (b) Block level

    (c) District level

    (d) State level

    Answer: (a)

    119. Which one of the following five Years Plan of India focused on ‘Growth with Social Justice and Equity’?

    (a) 9th

    (b) 8th

    (c) 7th

    (d) 6th

    Answer: (a)

    120. Manila Samridhi Yojana was started in India in

    (a) 1992

    (b) 1993

    (c) 1994

    (d) 1995

    Answer: (b)

    121. Mission Indradhanush Campaign in India is associated with

    (a) Nutrition to pregnant women.

    (b) Awareness to diabetes.

    (c) Eradication of blindness.

    (d) Vaccination of children.

    Answer: (d)

    122. Akshaypatra Foundation in India is associated with

    (a) Mid-day meal for primary school students.

    (b) Nutrition for Rural pregnant women.

    (c) Nutrition for Rural children

    (d) Nutrition for Rural old men.

    Answer: (a)

    123. The World Population Day is observed on

    (a) October 4

    (b) May 31

    (c) July 11

    (d) December 10

    Answer: (c)

    124. The main strategy adopted in the new economic policy of 1991 was

    (a) Liberalisation

    (b) Privatisation

    (c) Globalisation

    (d) All of the above

    Answer: (d)

    125. The term ‘Evergreen Revolution’ has been used for increasing agricultural production in Indja by

    (a) Norman Barlogue

    (b) M. S. Swaminathan

    (c) Raj Krishna

    (d) R. K. V Rao

    Answer: (b)

    126. Economic Survey in India is published by

    (a) Ministry of Finance ‘

    (b) Planning Commission

    (c) Ministry of Commerce

    (d) Indian Statistical Institute

    Answer: (a)

    127. India became a member of International Monetary Fund in

    (a) 1952

    (b) 1951

    (c) 1950

    (d) 1947

    Answer: (d)

    128. Value Added Tax was first introduced in India in

    (a) 2007

    (b) 2006

    (c) 2005

    (d) 2008

    Answer: (c)

    129. Which one of the following statements is not true about Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana?

    (a) It is a personal accident cover.

    (b) It is open to anyone between the age of 18 and 50 years.

    (c) It is open to anyone between the age of 18 and 70 years.

    (d) Premium payable is Rs. 12 per annum.

    Answer: (b)

    130. The decaded growth rate of population during 2001-2011 was maximum in the State of

    (a) Madhaya Pradesh

    (b) Rajasthan

    (c) Bihar

    (d) Uttar Pradesh

    Answer: (c)

    131. Which one of the following is the most important item of non-plan expenditure of the Central Government during 2015-16 budget?

    (a) Interest payment

    (b) Subsidies

    (c) Defence sen-ices

    (d) Pensions

    Answer: (a)

    132. After deducting grants for the creation of Capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at

    (a) Budgetary deficit

    (b) Fiscal deficit

    (c) Primary deficit

    (d) Effective Revenue eficit

    Answer: (d)

    133. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana was launched in India on

    (a) 26th January, 2015

    (b) 28 th August, 2014

    (c) 5 th September, 2014

    (d) 8 th December, 2014

    Answer: (b)

    134. Which one of the following programmes is not employment related?

    (a) MGNREGA

    (b) NRLM

    (c) RMSA

    (d) STEP

    Answer: (c)

    135. The focus of Saakshar Bharat Programme is on

    (a) Female literacy

    (b) Male literacy

    (c) Child literacy

    (d) Secondary education

    Answer: (a)

    136. ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ scheme has been launched in India in

    (a) Aprril.2015

    (b) March, 2015

    (c) February. 2015

    (d) January, 2015

    Answer: (d)

    137. Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) has been launched in India in

    (a) September 2014

    (b) October, 2014

    (c) November, 2014

    (d) December, 2014

    Answer: (b)

    138. Which one of the following is not a social development programme of Indian Government?

    (a) Mid Day Meal Scheme

    (b) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan

    (c) Look East Policy

    (d) Rural Health Mission

    Answer: (c)

    139.

    Answer: (a)

    140. Index ‘Residex’ is associated with :

    (a) Share prices

    (b) Mutual fund prices

    (c) Price index

    (d) Land prices

    Answer: (d)

    141. National Institute of Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development is situated at

    (a) New Delhi

    (b) Noida

    (c) Bengaluru

    (d) Hyderabad

    Answer: (b)

    142. When did the Community Development Programme start in India?

    (a) In 1958

    (b) In 1955

    (c) In 1952

    (d) In 1951

    Answer: (c)

    143. Under the new GDP series, the base year has been shifted from 2004-2005 to

    (a) 2011-2012

    (b) 2010-2011

    (c) 2008-2009

    (d) 2007-2008

    Answer: (a)

    144. Fiscal deficit/GDP ratio has been maximum in the financial year

    (a) 2014-2015

    (b) 2013-2014

    (c) 2012-2013

    (d) 2011-2012

    Answer: (d)

    145. Who among the following was the Chairman of National Income Committee appointed by Government of India in 1949?

    (a) C. R. Rao

    (b) P. C. Mahalnobis

    (c) V.K.R.V. Rao

    (d) K.N. Raj

    Answer: (b)

    146. Which one of the following phenomenon is used in optical fibres?

    (a) Interference

    (b) Refaction

    (c) Total internal reflection

    (d) Polaristion

    Answer: (c)

    147. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Ascorbic acid - Lemon

    (b) Maltose - Malt

    (c) Acetic acid - Curd

    (d) Formic acid - Red ant

    Answer: (c)

    148. Which one of the following biotransformations provides maximum energy to human body?

    (a) ADP-AMP

    (b) ATP-ADP

    (c) ADP-ATP

    (d) AMP-ADP

    Answer: (c)

    149. Which one of the following fuels produces least environmental pollution?

    (a) Hydrogen

    (b) Power alcohol

    (c) Petrol

    (d) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)

    Answer: (a)

    150. Which one of the following materials is strongest?

    (a) German silver

    (b) Brass

    (c) Steel

    (d) Graphene

    Answer: (d)

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