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NDA & NA (II) 2017 Exam – GAT Question Paper & Solution

Oct 10, 2017 10:33 IST
    NDA & NA (II) 2017 Exam – GAT Question Paper & Solution
    NDA & NA (II) 2017 Exam – GAT Question Paper & Solution

    The UPSC conducted the NDA & NA (II) 2017 Exam on 10 September 2017. The exam consisted of two papers – Mathematics and General Ability Test (GAT). The GAT consisted of 150 Questions and included two sections – English and General Knowledge. For the benefit of aspirants, we are providing the GAT Question Paper and the answer key. The answer key is prepared by subject matter experts.

    PART –A


    Directions: Each item in this selection consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your

    1. The discussion was wound up after a long and fruitful exchange of views.

    (a) postponed

    (b) cut short

    (c) interrupted

    (d) concluded

    Ans. (d) concluded

    2. He was fully alive to the need for making adjustments.

    (a) concerned about
    (b) worried about
    (c) aware of
    (d) indifferent about

    Ans. (c) aware of

    3. The police officer tried to intimidate the witness but in vain.

    (a) inform

    (b) reward

    (c) frighten

    (d) persuade

    Ans. (c) frighten

    4. We must adopt drastic measures to control population growth.

    (a) simple

    (b) dramatic

    (c) realistic

    (d) severe

    Ans. (d) severe

    5. He is extremely meticulous in his approach.

    (a) simple

    (b) careful

    (c) fair

    (d) reasonable

    Ans. (b) careful

    6. The experts’ minute examination brought to  light some important clues.

    (a) quick

    (b) detailed

    (c) superficial

    (d) prolonged

    Ans. (b) detailed

    7. The decision of the Union Government to repeal the Urban Land Ceiling Act has been welcomed by all.

    (a) suppress

    (b) amend

    (c) cancel

    (d) withhold

    Ans. (c) canel

    8. This is his maiden appearance on the screen.

    (a) first

    (b) last

    (c) girlish

    (d) shy

    Ans. (a) first

    9. At the end of the marathon everybody was exhausted.

    (a) weakened

    (b) honoured

    (c) satisfied

    (d) tired

    Ans. (d) tired

    10. He gave me a counterfeit coin.

    (a) rare

    (b) fake

    (c) unmatured

    (d) inferior

    Ans. (c) fake

    Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

    11. My mother has been working hard for the last two weeks and she feels run down.

    (a) morbid

    (b) energetic

    (c) exhausted

    (d) emotional

    Ans. (b) energetic

    12. The President condemned the act of violence during the celebration of the festival.

    (a) reason

    (b) instigation

    (c) restraint

    (d) sobriety

    Ans. (c) restraint

    13. The students made a generous contribution to the flood relief fund.

    (a) niggard

    (b) selfish

    (c) spendthrift

    (d) indecent

    Ans. (a) niggard

    14. He was just idle by temperament.

    (a) employed

    (b) occupied

    (c) industrious

    (d) happy

    Ans. (b) occupied

    15. Most of the decisions taken by the officer were unjust.

    (a) serious

    (b) lenient

    (c) correct

    (d) imbecile

    Ans. (c) correct

    16. He is a loving father and takes great delight in his children.

    (a) revolt

    (b) dissatisfaction

    (c) enjoyment

    (d) disgust

    Ans. (d) disgust

    17. He was quite concerned about his son's career.

    (a) unrelated

    (b) indifferent

    (c) dispassionate

    (d) carefree

    Ans. (b) indifferent

    18. They are confident of success.

    (a) imprudent

    (b) impatient

    (c) diffident

    (d) reluctant

    Ans. (c) diffident

    19. We carried on the search for the missing person.

    (a) delayed

    (b) reconsidered

    (c) broke up

    (d) called off

    Ans. (d) called off

    20. This T.V. has many indigenous components.

    (a) Indian

    (b) foreign

    (c) unnatural

    (d) genuine

    Ans. (b) foreign

    Seleeting Words

    Directions : In the following passage, at certain points you are given a choice of four words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the four. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b), (c) or (d), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you.


    Ans. 21 (b) barely
    Ans. 22 (c) off
    Ans. 23 (c) with
    Ans. 24 (a) jumping
    Ans. 25 (a) could
    Ans. 26 (c) felt
    Ans. 27 (c) on
    Ans. 28 (b) glow
    Ans. 29 (b) appears
    Ans. 30 (b) starving

    Ordering of words in A sentence

    Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q. R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

    31. The spirit of man

    has slowly and painfully surmounted       and his growing intelligence

                       P                                                                             Q

    all the obstacles that have come in his way        has faced all kinds of dangers

                               R                                                                    S

    (a) Q P S R

    (b) S Q P R

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) P R Q S

    Ans. (d) P R Q S

    32. After our school boys had won a well-contested hockey match

    so that they might communicate the news of their victory to the headmaster


    who is a keen sportsman               they came to school in high spirits

                      Q                                                            R

    and takes a very lively interest in school games


    (a) Q P S R

    (b) S Q P R

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) P R Q S

    Ans. (c) R P Q S

    33. Even a leisurely game like cricket

    demanding grace rather than strength


    and over the rough tactics of the Australian team that visited England in 1921


    as we saw in the controversy over body-line bowling          can cause much ill-will

                                  R                                                                                   S

    (a) P S R Q

    (b) R S P Q

    (c) S R Q P

    (d) Q P R S

    Ans. (a) P S R Q

    34. Scientists point out of sunspot activity        that it is an aftermath that       has now reached its peak

                                                      P                                           Q                                               R

    of the eleven-year cycle


    (a) R S P Q

    (b) P Q S R

    (c) Q R P S

    (d) Q S P R

    Ans. (d) Q S P R

    35. As the ship streams from San Diego as walls of gray water from a distant storm in the North Pacific


    making the greener among us miserable with sea sickness         rock and toss the ship

                                              Q                                                                             R

    those of us aboard have a personal demonstration of powerful ocean movement


    (a) P Q R S

    (b) S R P Q

    (c) S P R Q

    (d) Q S R P

    Ans. (c) S P R Q

    Spotting Errors

    Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

    38. An electrical circuit       is the complete path       traversed by electric current.     No error

                    (a)                                         (b)                                        (c)                             (d)

    Ans. (d) No error

    37. He waved us a by-by   as he boarded the train      which disappeared into the tunnel.     No error

                          (a)                               (b)                                           (c)                                          (d)


    Ans. (b) as he boarded the train

    38. There was great deal that had to be scrapped, that must be scrapped;


    but surely India could not have been what she undoubtedly was,


    and could not have continued a cultured existence for thousands of years.     No error

                                                      (c)                                                                           (d)

    Ans. (a) There was great deal that had to be scrapped, that must be scrapped;

    39. With regard to interior decoration, it is the attention given to the less overt aspects of using space


    that give it life, an identity, a quality      that makes it exciting and unusual.    No error

                      (b)                                                           (c)                                           (d)

    Ans. (b) that give it life, an identity, a quality

    40. A small parcel     of novels is       better than none.   No error

                      (a)                  (b)                      (c)                       (d)

    Ans. (c) better than none

    Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    41. He looks as if he is __________ weary.

    (a) is

    (b) was

    (c) would be

    (d) were

    Ans. (a) weary

    42. My house is insured _________ theft and fire.

    (a) for

    (b) against

    (c) in

    (d) towards

    Ans. (b) aginst

    43. The result of the prolonged discussion was _______.

    (a) disappointment

    (b) disappointing

    (c) disappointed

    (d) to disappoint

    Ans. (a) disappointment

    44. You are lucky _________ in the 20th century.

    (a) by being born

    (b) to have been born

    (c) for being born

    (d) to have born

    Ans. (d) to have born

    45. Sita is true to ________.

    (a) word

    (b) her words

    (c) the words

    (d) words

    Ans. (b) her words

    46. Years _________ since I saw her last.

    (a) have passed had passed

    (b) had passed

    (c) had been passing

    (d) have been passing

    Ans. (a) have passed

    47. When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was ________ on.

    (a) happening

    (b) being

    (c) getting

    (d) going

    Ans. (d) going

    48. Could you lend me some money? I am very ________ of cash at the moment.

    (a) down

    (b) low

    (c) short

    (d) scarce

    Ans. (c) short

    49. I saw her when she was standing ________ the side of the old statue.

    (a) by

    (b) at

    (c) in

    (d) beyond

    Ans. (a) by

    50. True friends never __________ their loved ones in adversity.

    (a) abuse

    (b) criticize

    (c) befool

    (d) desert

    Ans. (d) desert


    51. Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan period 2012 — 2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

    (a) 7 percent

    (b) 8 percent

    (c) 9 percent

    (d) 10 percent

    Ans. (c) 9 percent

    52. Which one of the following is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

    (a) Non-conventional energy resources

    (b) Roads

    (c) Higher education

    (d) Libraries

    Ans. (c) Higher Education

    53. Who among the following used the term Industrial Revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

    (a) Friedrich Engels

    (b) Eric Hobsbawm

    (c) Arnold Toynbee

    (d) Georges Michelet

    Ans. (c) Arnold Toynbee

    54. Who among the following is the author of the book The Indian Struggle, 1920 - 1934?

    (a) Maulana Abul Kalam

    (b) Jayprakash Narayan

    (c) Subhash Chandra Bose

    (d) Manabendra Nath Roy

    Ans. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose

    55. Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct?

    (a) Its centre was Maharashtra

    (b) Its main participants were students

    (c) It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

    (d) It publicly burnt foreign clothes

    Ans. (c) It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

    56. Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?

    (a) The Bengal British India Society

    (b) The East India Association

    (c) The British Indian Association

    (d) The Madras Native Association

    Ans. (b) The East India Association

    57. Mariana Trench is located in the ocean floor of

    (a) Southern Atlantic Ocean

    (b) Western Pacific Ocean

    (c) Eastern Pacific Ocean

    (d) Northern Atlantic Ocean

    Ans. (b) Western Pacific Ocean

    58. Taklamakan Desert is situated in

    (a) Western Asia

    (b) Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa

    (c) South America

    (d) Central Asia

    Ans. (d) Central Asia

    59. Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and

    (a) Bhagirathi

    (b) Mandakini

    (c) Nandakini

    (d) Dhauliganga

    Ans. (a) Bhagirathi

    60. Arrange the following Indian cities according to their locations from west to east:

    1. Bilaspur

    2. Jodhpur

    3. Bhopal

    4. Ranchi

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    (a) 3-2-1-4

    (b) 2-3-1-4

    (c) 4-1-2-3

    (d) 2-1-3-4

    Ans. (b) 2-3-1-4

    61. The Kashmir region receives additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by

    (a) South-west Monsoon

    (b) Western Disturbances

    (c) Retreating Monsoon

    (d) Temperate Cyclone

    Ans. (b) Western Disturbances

    NDA Exam Previous Question Papers (2005-2017)

    62. Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal field?

    (a) Brahmaputra river basin of Assam

    (b) Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal

    (c) Himalayan mountain region

    (d) Cardamom hills in Kerala

    Ans. (c) Himalayan Mountain Range

    63. Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein?

    (a) Fibrin

    (b) Collagen

    (c) Elastin

    (d) Cellulose

    Ans. (b) firbrin

    64. Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis?

    (a) Ascaris lumbricoides

    (b) Culex pipiens

    (c) Wuchereria bancrofti

    (d) Fasciola hepatica


    65. Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against

    (a) Ultraviolet radiation

    (b) Infrared radiation

    (c) X-ray radiation

    (d) Short wave radio radiation

    Ans.(a) Ultraviolet radiatio

    66. Intake of which one of the following food components should be minimized by patients having Gouty Arthritis due to elevated serum uric acid level?

    (a) Food fibres

    (b) Nucleic acids

    (c) Lipids

    (d) Carbohydrates


    67. Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct?

    (a) They are used in sewage treatment plants.

    (b) They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages.

    (c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

    (d) They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases.

    Ans. (c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

    68. Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of

    (a) Omega-3 fatty acids

    (b) Vitamin A

    (c) Vitamin B

    (d) Vitamin C

    Ans. (b) Vitamin A

    69. An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius).

    (b) The centripetal acceleration is greater for a gentle curve than that for a sharp curve.

    (c) The centripetal acceleration is the same for both, the gentle and sharp curves.

    (d) The centripetal acceleration causes the object to slow down.


    70. The force acting on a particle of mass m moving along the x-axis is given by F(x) = Ax2 — Bx. Which one of the following is the potential energy of the particle?

    (a) 2Ax — B

    (b) —x2/6 (2Ax — 3B)

    (c) Ax3 — Bx2

    (d) Zero


    71. The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for

    (a) Holm

    (b) Halogen

    (c) Henry

    (d) Hertz

    Ans.(c) Henry

    72. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow bird and a mango are dropped simultaneously from the same height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom is t1, t2 and t3 respectively. In this situation, we will observe that

    (a) t1 > t2 > t3

    (b) t1 > t3 > t2

    (c) t3 > t1 > t2

    (d) t1 = t2 = t2


    73. Electron emission from a metallic surface by application of light is known as

    (a) Thermionic emission

    (b) Photoelectric emission

    (c) High field emission

    (d) Autoelectronic emission


    74. How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun?

    (a) About 4 minutes

    (b) About 8 minutes

    (c) About 24 minutes

    (d) About 24 hours

    Ans.(b) About 8 minutes

    75. Radioactivity is measured by

    (a) GM Counter

    (b) Polarimeter

    (c) Calorimeter

    (d) Colorimeter

    Ans. (a) GM Counter

    76. The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles are

    (a) concave

    (b) convex

    (c) cylindrical

    (d) plane

    Ans. (b) convex

    77. Which one of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes?

    (a) Ultraviolet waves

    (b) Infrared waves

    (c) Radio waves

    (d) Microwaves

    Ans. (a) Ultraviolet waves

    78. The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are

    (a) free electrons

    (b) conduction electrons

    (c) ions

    (d) holes

    79. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is

    (a) 13.6 MeV

    (b) 13.6 eV

    (c) 13.6 Joule

    (d) Zero

    80. When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily of

    (a) air

    (b) hydrogen

    (c) hydrogen and oxygen

    (d) water vapour

    81. Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution?

    (a) HCl

    (b) CH3COOH

    (c) CH3OH

    (d) NaOH

    82. The principal use of hydrofluoric acid is

    (a) in etching glass

    (b) as a bleaching agent

    (c) as an extremely strong oxidizing agent

    (d) in the preparation of strong organic fluorine compounds

    84. The compound C6H12O4 contains

    (a) 22 atoms per mole

    (b) twice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of C

    (c) six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H

    (d) thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of 0

    85. The proposition 'equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure' is known as

    (a) Avogadro's hypothesis

    (b) Gay-Lussac's hypothesis

    (c) Planck's hypothesis

    (d) Kirchhoff's theory

    86. Which one of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill is correct?

    (a) It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

    (b) It allowed Indians to file criminal cases against Europeans.

    (c) It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts.

    (d) It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists.

    Ans. (a) It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.


    87. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House?

    (a) The Solicitor General of India

    (b) The Vice-President of India

    (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

    (d) The Attorney General of India

    Ans. (d) The Attorney General of India

    88. Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857?

    (a) Mangal Pandey

    (b) Bahadur Shah II

    (c) Queen Zeenat Mahal

    (d) Nana Sahib

    89. Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?

    (a) Murshid Quli Khan

    (b) Saadat Khan

    (c) Alivardi Khan

    (d) Sarfaraz Khan

    Ans. (b) Saadat Khan

    90. Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement?

    (a) Henry Vivian Derozio

    (b) David Hare

    (c) Dwarkanath Tagore

    (d) Prasanna Kumar Tagore

    Ans. (a) Henry Vivian Derozio

    91. Which one of the following statements about the Quit India Movement is not correct?

    (a) It broke out in August 1942.

    (b) Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than three months.

    (c) Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement.

    (d) Communist Party did not support the movement.

    Ans. (c) Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement.

    92. Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men's Singles title 2017?

    (a) Kidambi Srikanth

    (b) Lin Dan

    (c) B. Sai Praneeth

    (d) Kento Momota

    Ans.(c) B. Sai Praneeth

    93. Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in

    (a) Nagpur

    (b) Raipur

    (c) Mumbai

    (d) Secunderabad

    Ans. (a) Nagpur

    94. Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day for Monuments and Sites (World Heritage Day) 2017?

    (a) The Heritage of Sport

    (b) Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

    (c) Past and Present Heritage

    (d) Heritage and Science

    Ans. (b) Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

    95. In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance Air Blast popularly known as the Mother of All Bombs) in the suspected hideouts of militants in which one of the following countries?

    (a) Iran

    (b) Syria

    (c) Afghanistan

    (d) Somalia

    Ans. (c) Afghanistan

    96. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recently by the Government of India to examine framework for virtual currencies?

    (a) Secretary, Department of Financial Services

    (b) Special Secretary, Department of Revenue

    (c) Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

    (d) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

    Ans. (c) Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

    97. SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of

    (a) Finance

    (b) Housing and Urban Affairs

    (c) Food Processing Industries

    (d) Earth Sciences

    Ans. (c) Food Processing Industries

    98. The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern hemisphere is on

    (a) 21st March

    (b) 23rd September

    (c) 22nd November

    (d) 22nd December


    99. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence. Which of the following have taken place in recent years?

    1. Gauge conversion

    2. Track electrification

    3. Automatic signals

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 3

    100. In India, maximum amount of rainfall is received from

    (a) Western Disturbances

    (b) North-east Monsoon

    (c) South-west Monsoon

    (d) Retreating Monsoon

    Ans. (c) South-west Monsoon

    101. Which set of the following biosphere reserves in India is included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves?

    (a) Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal

    (b) Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam

    (c) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Panna

    (d) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Seshachalam

    Ans. (a) Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal

    102. Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct?

    1. It is known as black ore.

    2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.

    3. It possesses magnetic properties.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    103. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting?

    (a) Vitamin A

    (b) Vitamin D

    (c) Vitamin E

    (d) Vitamin K

    Ans. (d) Vitamin K

    104. The term `Probiotic' is applied to

    (a) Organic food

    (b) Antacid

    (c) Antibiotic

    (d) Live microbial food supplement

    Ans. (d) Live microbial food supplement

    105. Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curding of milk?

    (a) Lactic Acid Bacillus

    (b) Clostridium botulinum

    (c) Vibrio cholerae

    (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

    106. Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids?

    (a) Erwin Chargaff

    (b) Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

    (c) Rosalind Franklin

    (d) Phoebus Levene

    Ans. (b) Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

    107. Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes, because

    (a) the air pressure is less

    (b) outside temperature is less

    (c) less latent heat is less

    (d) None of the above


    108. Concave mirror is used in headlights of vehicles, because it

    (a) focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles

    (b) sends parallel rays

    (c) fits well into the shape of the headlight

    (d) is cheaper than other mirrors

    109. If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air?

    (a) Increase

    (b) Decrease

    (c) Remain exactly the same

    (d) Increase or decrease cannot be predicted

    110. Light year is a measure of

    (a) time

    (b) distance

    (c) total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year

    (d) average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year

    Ans. (b) distance

    111. Which one of the following statements about a satellite orbiting around the Earth is correct?

    (a) Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from ground station.

    (b) Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket and solar energy keeps it moving around the Earth.

    (c) Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid fuels for orbiting. .

    (d) Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting.

    Ans. ()

    112. Which one of the following statements about energy is correct?

    (a) Energy can be created as well as destroyed.

    (b) Energy can be created but not destroyed.

    (c) Energy can neither 'be created nor destroyed.

    (d) Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed.

    Ans. (c) Energy can neither 'be created nor destroyed

    113. Step-up transformers are used for

    (a) increasing electrical power

    (b) decreasing electrical power

    (c) decreasing voltage

    (d) increasing voltage

    114. Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon?

    (a) X-rays

    (b) Radio waves

    (c) Light waves

    (d) Microwaves

    115. How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon?

    (a) 11/3 kg 

     (b) 3/11 kg

    (c) 4/3 kg

    (d) 3/4 kg

    Ans. (a) 11/3 kg

    116. Zinc is used to protect iron from corrosion because zinc is

    (a) more electropositive than iron

    (b) cheaper than iron

    (c) a bluish white metal

    (d) a good conductor of heat and electricity

    Ans. (a) more electropositive than iron

    117. Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth's atmosphere?

    (a) Oxygen

    (b) Hydrogen

    (c) Nitrogen

    (d) Carbon dioxide

    Ans. (a) Oxygen

    118. Which one of the following is a chemical change?

    (a) Cutting of hair

    (b) Graying of hair naturally

    (c) Swelling of resin in water

    (d) Cutting of fruit

    Ans. ()

    119. Which one among the following chemicals is used as washing soda?

    (a) Calcium carbonate

    (b) Calcium bicarbonate

    (c) Sodium carbonate

    (d) Sodium bicarbonate

    Ans. (c) Sodium Carbonate

    120. Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying drinking water?

    (a) It kills germs

    (b) It dissolves the impurities

    (c) It is a reducing agent

    (d) It is an oxidizing agent

    Ans. (d) It is an oxidizing agent

    121. Consider the following movements:

    1. Moplah Rebellion

    2. Bardoli Satyagraha

    3. Champaran Satyagraha

    4. Salt Satyagraha

    Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order?

    (a) 1-3-4-2

    (b) 3-1-2-4

    (c) 2-3-1-4

    (d) 4-2-1-3

    Ans. (b) 3-1-2-4

    122. Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq?

    (a) Ibn Battuta's Rihla

    (b) Francois Bernier's Travels in the Mogul Empire

    (c) Niccolao Manucci's Storia do Mogor

    (d) Tavernier's Travels in India

    Ans. (a) Ibn Battuta's Rihla

    123. Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint?

    (a) Khwaja Moinuddin

    (b) Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar

    (c) Nizamuddin Auliya

    (d) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

    124. In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi's

    (a) Satyagraha in Kheda

    (b) Dandi March

    (c) Satyagraha in Champaran

    (d) Return from South Africa

    Ans. (c) Satyagraha in Champaran

    125. A rainbow is produced due to which one of the following phenomena?

    (a) Dispersion of light

    (b) Interference of light

    (c) Diffraction of light

    (d) Scattering of light by atmospheric dust

    126. Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected

    (a) Infrasonic waves

    (b) Ultrasonic waves

    (c) Radio waves

    (d) Microwaves

    127. The statement that 'heat cannot flow by itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature', is known as

    (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

    (b) First law of thermodynamics

    (c) Second law of thermodynamics

    (d) Third law of thermodynamics

    128. Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of the other three?

    (a) X-rays

    (b) Microwaves

    (c) Radio waves

    (d) Sound waves

    129. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    (a) Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.

    (b) The retina of the human eye contains millions of light sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert the light into electrical messages.

    (c) Every image that is focused on the retina is upside down.

    (d) We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately.

    130. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    (a) Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed.

    (b) Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal structure of common structure materials.

    (c) Ultrasonic waves can be used for making holes in very hard materials like diamond.

    (d) Ultrasonic waves cannot travel through vacuum.

    131. According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017 released by the World Economic Forum, among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked

    (a) 50th

    (b) 40th

    (c) 30th

    (d) 20th

    132. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health Day, 2017 celebrated by the World Health Organization?

    (a) Diabetes

    (b) Food Safety

    (c) Depression : Let's Talk

    (d) Ageing and Health

    Ans. (c) Depression : Let's Talk

    133. Which one of the following Ministries has launched a new programme on Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS) to foster and promote R&D?

    (a) Ministry of Earth Sciences

    (b) Ministry of Science and Technology

    (c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

    (d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

    Ans. (b) Ministry of Science and Technology

    134. Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture:

    1. This style of temples are commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.

    2. The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal shikhara.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    135. Ashoka's connection with Buddhism is evident from which one of the following edicts?

    (a) Major Rock Edict 13

    (b) Rock Edict 6

    (c) Minor Rock Edict 1

    (d) Pillar Edict 4

    136. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a

    (a) Federation

    (b) Confederation

    (c) Unitary form of Government

    (d) Union of States

    137. The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by

    (a) Law Commission

    (b) Santhanam Committee

    (c) Shah Commission

    (d) Administrative Reforms Commission

    138. Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains?

    (a) Ozone

    (b) Ammonia

    (c) Sulphur dioxide

    (d) Carbon monoxide

    Ans. (c) Sulphur dioxide

    139. The desirable range of pH for drinking water is

    (a) 6.5 to 8.5

    (b) 5.0 to 6.5

    (c) 6.5 to 7.0

    (d) 7.0 to 8.5

    140. Consider the following reaction:

    CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

    Which of the following about the reaction given above is/are correct?

    1. Carbon is oxidized.

    2. Hydrogen is oxidized.

    3. Hydrogen is reduced.

    4. Carbon is reduced.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 2 and 4 only

    141. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat?

    (a) One hour

    (b) Two hours

    (c) Three hours

    (d) Four hours

    Ans. (b) Two hours

    142. Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage of forest area in relation to the total area of the State:

    1. Karnataka

    2. Odisha

    3. Kerala

    4. Andhra Pradesh

    Which one of the following is the correct descending order?

    (a) 1-2-4-3

    (b) 3-1-2-4

    (c) 3-2-1-4

    (d) 2-3-1-4

    Ans. (c) 3-2-1-4

    143. Which one of the following States in India has the longest coastline?

    (a) Odisha

    (b) Tamil Nadu

    (c) Karnataka

    (d) West Bengal

    Ans. (b) Tamil Nadu

    144. Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover?

    (a) Maharashtra

    (b) Chhattisgarh

    (c) Madhya Pradesh

    (d) Andhra Prades

    Ans. (c) Madhya Pradesh

    145. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?

    (a) Gabbro

    (b) Granite

    (c) Dolomite

    (d) Basalt

    Ans. (c) Dolomite

    146. The Coriolis effect is the result of

    (a) Pressure gradient

    (b) Earth’s axis of inclination

    (c) Earth’s rotation

    (d) Earth’s revolution

    Ans. (c) Earth's rotation

    147. Where is Mekong Delta located?

    (a) Thailand

    (b) Cambodia

    (c) Myanmar

    (d) Vietnam

    Ans. (d) Vietnam

    148. Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched?

    (a) Godavari : Indravati

    (b) Ganga : Penganga

    (c) Krishna : Bhima

    (d) Luni : Sukri

    Ans. (b) Ganga: Penganga

    149. Consider the following characteristics of a tropical cyclone:

    1. A warm sea temperature of > 26 Degree Celcius

    2. High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 m

    3. Atmospheric instability

    The above mentioned characteristics are associated with which one of the following cycles of its development?

    (a) Formulation and initial stage

    (b) Modification stage

    (c) Full maturity

    (d) Decay

    Ans. (a) Formulation and initial stage

    150. In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following terms was used for the Indus Valley (Harappans)?

    (a) Dilmun

    (b) Meluha

    (c) Magan

    (d) Failaka

    Ans. (b) Meluha

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     1.       (b) Western Disturbances

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