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UPSC IAS Prelims Exam: Indian Polity MCQ Set 11

Jan 15, 2016 18:13 IST

    Indian Polity is easy to understand but it is harder to attempt the questions correctly in the Civil Services because the questions asked are very ambiguous. To the rescue of the IAS aspirants, here we present the set of very useful questions for the practice of the IAS Prelims Exam:

    Q1. Consider the following statements regarding constitution of India
    1. Indian federation is not result of agreement between the units of which it is made of.
    2. India was already a union at the time of constituent assembly debates.

    Which of the above is true?
    a. Only1
    b. Only2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: c

    Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar preferred using ‘Union’ instead of ‘federation’ because Indian federation is not result of agreement between the units of which it is made of. The country is one integral whole, though the country and people may be divided into different states for convenience of administration. The expression India is ‘union of states’ was chosen as India was already a union at the time of constituent assembly debates.

    Q2. With reference to the power of parliament to admit into union or establish new states. Which of the following is true?

    1. There is no need of any law by parliament to acquire new territory.
    2. There is need of legislation by parliament to establish new state.

    Codes
    a. Only1
    b. Only2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: c

    Explanation:
    According to article 2 of constitution of India parliament may by law admit into the union, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions, as it thinks fit. According to article 3 of constitution of India parliament may by law allow formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.

    Q3. With reference to the procedure for changing name of the state. Which of the following is true?

    1. Bill for such purpose as to be introduced in loksabha only on the recommendation of president.
    2. Bill for such purpose is constitution amendment bill.

    Codes
    a. Only 1
    b. Only 2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: d

    Explanation:
    Bill for such purpose as to be introduced in either of the parliament only on the recommendation of president. Article 4 of the constitution says that laws made under article 2 and 3 are not to be deemed to be an amendment of constitution. Parliament needs to pass the bill only by a simple majority.

    Q4. Constitutional amendment act is required for which of the following?

    1. To cede territory
    2. Alter the boundaries of any state

    Select the correct answer using following codes
    a. Only 1
    b. Only 2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: a

    Explanation:
    Alteration of boundaries of any state falls under article 3 of the constitution of India which does not require ordinary law and not constitutional amendment. To cede a territory requires constitutional amendment. For instance 100th amendment act is about Exchange of certain enclave territories with Bangladesh.

    Q5. With reference to common wealth citizenship of India. Which of the following statements is true?

    1. Every person of common wealth country enjoys status of citizenship of India.
    2. Any person who rendered distinguished service in philosophy, science, literature, arts, world peace can acquire citizenship of India through naturalization.

    Codes
    a. Only1
    b. Only2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: b

    Explanation:
    The Commonwealth of Nations, 53 member states that were mostly territories of the former British Empire. Every common wealth country enjoys status of common wealth citizenship of India. The condition for acquiring citizenship through naturalisation can be waived if in the opinion of central government, the applicant is a person who rendered distinguished service in philosophy, science, literature, arts, and world peace can acquire citizenship of India through naturalization.

    Q6. Which of the following is correct about important features of democracy?

    1. Rule of law
    2. Independent judiciary
    3. Individual rights

    Select the correct answer using following codes
    a. 1 and 2 only
    b. 2 and 3 only
    c. Only 2
    d. 1,2 and 3

    Answer: d

    Explanation:
    Rule of law is a basic feature of all modern constitutional democracies. Rule of law means absence of arbitrary power on the part of government, no one is above the law, and constitution is not the source but the consequence of rights of individuals. Rule of law implies separation of powers, since the fusion of powers in one authority leads to dictatorship and absolutism.

    Q7. Consider the following statements

    1. Nations are culturally homogenous groups of people larger than a single tribe.
    2. State is a self governing political entity.

    Which of the above statements are correct?
    a. Only 1
    b. Only 2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: c

    Explanation:
    Nation and state are often used interchangeably, there is a difference. A state is usually a division of federal state such as states of India. A state is self governing political entity. Nations are culturally homogenous groups of people which share a common language, institutions, religion, and historical experience.

    Q8. Which of the following can be considered as government reaction to regionalist demands?

    1. Grant of separate state
    2. Inclusion of language in 8th schedule
    3. Constitutional establishment of local and urban self government institutions.

    Select the correct answer using following codes
    a. Only 1
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 2 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: d

    Explanation:
    Government provided following mechanisms to satisfy demands for autonomy and respect for cultural identity: special category status, autonomous councils as in Darjeeling, Bodo, 73rd and 74th amendments, inclusion of languages in the 8th schedule, sixth schedule benefits, development boards for backward region.

    Q9. Which of the following is not valid reason for the demand of statehood?
    a. Developmental deficit
    b. Cultural identities
    c. Population explosion
    d. Checking centralising tendency

    Answer: d

    Explanation:
    Development deficit, population explosion, cultural identities and vested interest of political parties are valid reason for demand of statehood. Demand of statehood weakens centralising tendency

    Q10. With reference to dual citizenship law in India. Which of the following statements are true?
    1. Dual citizens are not subject to all Indian laws.
    2. Dual citizens do not have voting rights.

    Codes
    a. Only 1
    b. Only 2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: b

    Explanation:
    In 2004 by an amendment to citizenship act, the facility of overseas citizenship of India (OCI) was made available to PIOs in 16 specified countries. Dual citizens are subject to all Indians laws, do not have voting rights, neither can they be elected to public office, nor are they eligible for defence jobs.

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