CBSE Class 10 Social Science Pre-Board Sample Paper 2025-26 with Solutions - Download Free PDF

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Pre-Board Sample Paper 2025-26 with Solutions is an essential resource for students aiming to score high in their board exams. Designed as per the latest CBSE guidelines, these sample papers help students understand the updated exam pattern, question distribution, and chapter-wise weightage. With solved answers included, students can compare their responses and improve their accuracy and writing skills. Downloading the FREE PDF of the CBSE Class 10 Social Science pre-board sample paper allows students to practice anytime and identify their strong and weak areas. Regular practie with these papers boosts time management, conceptual clarity, and exam confidence, making them a must-have tool for effective preparation.

CBSE Class 10th Social Science Marking Scheme 2025-26

Internal Assessment (20 Marks)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Pre-Board Sample Paper 2025

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Pre-Board Sample Paper 2025 helps students practice the latest exam pattern and understand important question formats before the board exam. Solving these papers boosts confidence, improves writing skills, and ensures thorough revision of all SST chapters.

General Instructions: 

i. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory. 

ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark.

iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words. 

iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words 

v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words. 

vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each 

vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks). 

viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted. 

ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION A – MCQ (1 x 20 = 20 marks)

1.Which one of the following is an example of ‘Coming together federation’?

2.Which one of the statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming?

(a) crops are grown for sale

(b) Family involved in growing crops

(c) Practiced in large land holdings

(d) Use of higher doses of modern inputs

3.Who can make laws relating to the subjects given in the Concurrent list

(a) State Government               (b) Union Government

(c) Both                                    (d) None of the above

4.Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?

5.Who among the following proclaimed dams as ‘the temple of modern India’?

(a) Rajendra Prasad

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Sardar Patel

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

6.Choose the correct option from the following: 

                List I (Example)                                  List II (Sector) 

   A. Courier                                                        Tertiary Sector 

   B. Fisherman                                                    Secondary Sector 

   C. Carpenter                                                     Primary Sector 

    D. Transporter                                                 Secondary Sector

7.Arrange the following in chronological order:1

1. Print culture created the conditions for the French Revolution

2. Martin Luther’s writings led to beginning of the Protestant Reformation

3. Menocchio reinterpreted the message of the Bible

4. Johann Gutenberg invented Printing press

OPTIONS:

8.The Book Gulamgiri deal with—

(a) Restriction on vernacular press            (b) Treatment of widows         

(c) Injustices of caste system            (d) None of these

9.Which one of the statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming?

(a) crops are grown for sale

(b) Family involved in growing crops

(c) Practiced in large land holdings

(d) Use of higher doses of modern inputs

10.A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors she is working? 

11.The process of integration between different countries is called as ______.

12.Assertion (A): When power is taken away from central and state governments and given to local governments it is called decentralisation. 

Reason (R): At least one third of all positions are reserved for women in local government bodies.

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

(d) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.

13.What is an 'alliance'?

(a) Two parties contest elections

(b) Several parties join hands for contesting elections

(c) One party contests elections

(d) None of these

14.Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:

15.Choose the incorrect option from the following

(a) Courier – Tertiary sector

(b) Fisherman – Primary sector

(c) Carpenter – Primary sector

(d) Banker – Tertiary sector

16.There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:

Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.

Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are adopted for carrying out production processes.

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

4. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

17.Development of a country can generally be determined by

(a) its per capita income                   (b) its average literacy level

(c) health status of its people          (d) all the above

18.Which one of the following Project was launched in 1973?

19.Name the writer of the novel ‘Anandmath’?

20.Based on the conflicting developmental goals, which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

(A) More wages to workers - against the interests of the entrepreneur.

(B) Rich farmers want to sell food grains at high prices - poor workers want to purchase it at low prices.

(C) Construction of a dam means more and cheaper power for people - The tribal do not want to leave the place.

(D) Expansion of roads in the city - good for reducing traffic congestion.

SECTION- B

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2X4=8)

21.Highlight any two measures to conserve minerals

OR

Highlight the importance of petroleum.

22.In what ways Government can increase employment in the rural sector?

23.Explain any two provisions that make India a secular state.

24.What are the modern forms of money?

SECTION-C

SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3X5=15)

25.Describe the provisions of “National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005.”

26.“There is overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world." Support the statement.

27.How had Non-Cooperation Movement spread to the countryside? Explain.

OR

Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowdown in the cities? Explain.

28.Define plantation agriculture. Explain any two characteristics of plantation agriculture.

29.‘Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity.’

Support the statement with suitable examples.

SECTION D 

LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)

30.Describe any five major functions of political parties.

OR

Suggest and explain any five measures to reform political parties.

31.“Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.” Assess the statement.

OR

Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their lending facilities in rural areas? Explain.

32.How would you evaluate Napoleon as an administrator who created a more rational and efficient system? Elucidate with suitable examples.

OR

Analyse the role of folklore and symbols in the revival of nationalism in India during late 19th century.

33.“Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.’’ Explain the statement with five points.

OR

Define the merits and demerits of “Formal Sector of Credit” in India. 

SECTION-E

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4x3=12)

34.Read the given extract and answer following questions:

Do you know that in India about 60 percent of the population belongs to the age group 5-29 years? Out of this, only about 51 per cent are attending educational institutions. The rest and particularly those aged less than 18 years may be at home or many of them may be working as child labourers. If these children are to attend schools, we will require more buildings, more teachers and other staff. A study conducted by the erstwhile Planning Commission estimates that nearly 20 lakh jobs can be created in the education sector alone. Similarly, if we are to improve the health situation, we need many more doctors, nurses, health workers etc. to work in rural areas. These are some ways by which jobs would be created and we would also be able to address the important aspects of development. Every state or region has potential for increasing the income and employment for people in that area. It could be tourism, or regional craft industry, or new services like IT. Some of these would require proper planning and support from the government. For example, the same study by the Planning Commission says that if tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people

i) How many jobs can be created in the education sector alone? (1)

ii) What are the different areas where people can be employed? (1)

iii) What is the study of Planning commission about tourism sector? (2)

35.Read the given extract and answer following questions:

The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine made goods from England, where industrialization was more advanced than on the continent. This was especially so in textile production, which was carried out mainly in homes or small workshops and was only partly mechanized. In those regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in town and country.

i)What kind of economic hardship did Europe face during the first half of the nineteenth century (2)

ii) Which country was producing cheap machine made goods? (1)

iii) How were peasants struggled in the region? (1)

36. In Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit. The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio economic development at the global level. The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity. The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.

Agenda 21- It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.

i) When and where was the first International Earth Summit held? (1)

ii) What did the Rio Convention endorse? (1)

iii) What are the main features of Agenda-21? (2)

SECTION-E

MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)

37a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. (2)

Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them

A. Place where congress session held in December 1920.

B. Place associated with the cotton mill workers movement

37b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable Symbols. (3)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Pre-Board Sample Paper 2025 Solutions 

For more CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper with Solutions download the given pdf below.

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CBSE Class 10 Syllabus 2025-2026: Download Subject-wise Curriculum PDFs