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Current Affairs for IAS Prelims Exam 2017: November 2016 Questions II

Nov 8, 2016 17:33 IST

    The serious aspirants should be able to categorize the relevant current topics from the Exam point of view and doing so is only possible if current affairs are revised frequently. UPSC IAS Prelims Exam preparation requires a deep consolidation and fundamental knowledge of the current affairs.

    Current affairs should be tackled keeping in mind the utility in UPSC IAS Prelims and Mains Exam.  We will continue to provide the current affairs questions for IAS Prelims 2017 to help you gain a better perception of how questions can be asked in the examination.

    CURRENT AFFAIRS ISSUES AND EVENTS

    Q1. Recently, the State of Kerala became the largest State to be declared Open Defecation Free (ODF) under the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM). Consider the following statements regarding the Open Defecation Free (ODF) status definition:

    1)ODF is the termination of faecal-oral transmission defined by no visible faeces found in the environment or village.
    2)ODF is defined as when every household as well as public/community institutions using safe technology option for disposal of faeces.
    3)In India, only 2 states have been declared as Open Defecation Free (ODF).

    Choose the correct code:

    a.1 and 2
    b.Only 3
    c.1, 2 and 3
    d.None of the above.

    Answer: a

    Explanation:

    The Indian Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation has defined "open defecation free" as "the termination of fecal-oral transmission as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Campaign).

    ODF is the termination of faecal-oral transmission, defined by

    a) No visible faeces found in the environment/village; and
    b) Every household as well as public/community institutions using safe technology option for disposal of faeces.
    In definition, Safe technology option means no contamination of surface soil, ground water or surface water; excreta inaccessible to flies or animals; no handling of fresh excreta; and freedom from odor and unsightly condition.

    The State of Kerala became the third State overall and the largest State so far to be declared Open Defecation Free (ODF) under the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) (Gramin) after Sikkim and Himachal Pradesh.


    Q2. Rashtriya Ekta Diwas was observed on 31st October across the nation to marks the occasion of the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

    Which of the following statements is correct regarding the achievements of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel?

    1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of India.
    2) He is also remembered as the "Patron saint of India's civil servants" for having established the modern all-India services system.

    Choose the correct code:

    a. Only 1
    b. Only 2
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. None of the above

    Answer: c

    Explanation:


    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was one of the leaders of the Indian National Congress and one of the founding fathers of the Republic of India. In India and elsewhere, he was often addressed as Sardar which means Chief in Hindi, Urdu and Persian. As the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of India, Patel organized relief for refugees fleeing from Punjab and Delhi and led efforts to restore peace across the nation.

    Patel took charge of the task to forge a united India by integrating into the newly independent nation those British colonial provinces "allocated" to India. Patel's commitment to national integration in the newly independent country was total and uncompromising, earning him the sobriquet "Iron Man of India".

    He is also affectionately remembered as the "Patron saint of India's civil servants" for having established the modern all-India services system. He is also called the Unifier of India. An annual commemoration of Patel, known as the Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day), was introduced by the Government of India in 2014 and it is held annually on his birthday, 31 October.

    Q3. Sushil Chandra has taken over as the new chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) recently. consider the following statements regarding the Central Board of Direct Taxes:

    1) The Central Board of Direct Taxes is a statutory authority.
    2) The Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.
    3) It is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

    Choose the correct code:

    a. Only 2
    b. 1 and 3
    c. 2 and 3
    d. None of the above

    Answer: b

    Explanation:


    The Central Board of Revenue or Department of Revenue is the apex body charged with the administration of taxes in India. It is a part of Ministry of Finance. Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.

    However, when the administration of taxes became too unwieldy for one Board to handle, the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC).

    i.  The CBDT is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
    ii.  It is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
    iii. It provides essential inputs for policy and planning of direct taxes in India and is also responsible for administration of the direct tax laws through Income Tax Department.
    iv. It is India’s official Financial Action Task Force (FATF) unit.
    v.  The CBDT Chairman and Members of CBDT are selected from Indian Revenue Service (IRS), a premier civil service of India, whose members constitute the top management of Income Tax Department.

    CURRENT AFFAIR QUIZZES FOR OCTOBER 2016

    Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index:

    1) It has been launched by NABARD.
    2) A score of 0 will mean no specified agricultural reforms while a score of 100 means complete reforms.
    3) The state of Gujarat achieved first rank in implementation of various reforms.

    Choose the correct code:

    a. Only 2
    b. 1 and 2
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: a

    Explanation:


    NITI AAYOG has launched Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index to rank States and UTs that is based on implementation of seven provisions proposed under model APMC Act, joining eNAM initiative, special treatment to fruits and vegetables for marketing and level of taxes in mandis etc.

    i.  This will reveal ease of doing agribusiness as well as opportunities for farmers to benefit from modern trade and commerce and have wider option for sale of her/his produce.

    ii.  This will also represent competitiveness, efficiency and transparency in agricultural markets.

    iii. The second area of reforms included in the index is relaxation in restrictions related to lease in and lease out agricultural land and change in law to recognize tenant and safeguard land owners liberalization.

    iv. The third area included in the index represent freedom given to farmers for felling and transit of trees grown on private land.

    v.  This Index represents opportunity to diversify farm business.

    vi. The Index has a score which can have minimum value “0” implying no reforms and maximum value “100” implying complete reforms in the selected areas.

    vii. The state of Maharashtra achieved first rank in implementation of various reforms. The state has implemented most of the marketing reforms and it offers best environment for doing agribusiness among all the states and UTs.

    Q5. The Central Vigilance Commission has given the theme of “Public participation in promoting integrity and eradicating Corruption” for the Vigilance Awareness Week 2016. Consider the following statements regarding the CVC:

    1) Central Vigilance Commission is advisory body and submits its report to the parliament.
    2) Central Vigilance Commission was established on recommendation by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption in 1964.
    3) In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the Central Vigilance Commission.

    Choose the incorrect code:

    a.  1 and 2
    b.  1 and 3
    c.  Only 1
    d.  All of the above

    Answer: c

    Explanation:


    The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
     
    Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body but in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. In 2004, the Government of India authorized the CVC as the “Designated Agency” to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action.

    The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
    The CVC is conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.

    Q6. RCEP is the proposed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between 16 Asia-Pacific countries. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the proposed FTA?

    a.    The proposed FTA will aim to open up trade in goods and services as well as liberalise investment policies.
    b.    It will cover a market of over three billion people and account for 40 per cent of world trade.
    c.    India has iterated its partner in Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) to delete the word ‘single undertaking’ for both goods and services.
    d.    Both (a) and (b)

    Answer: d

    Explanation:


    RCEP is the proposed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between 16 Asia-Pacific countries including India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand and the 10-member ASEAN bloc.

    The proposed FTA, which aims to open up trade in goods and services as well as liberalise investment policies and will cover a market of over three billion people in these countries whose total GDP is more than $17 trillion and account for 40 per cent of world trade.

    The concerns of these RCEP countries stem from fears of China dumping its excess capacity in several items including steel as well as highly subsidized items, thereby harming the local industry in the importing countries and distorting trade in the process.

    India has managed to convince its partner countries negotiating the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) to insert the words ‘single undertaking’ for both goods and services to ensure that the pact on services is signed jointly with the one on goods.

    MORE CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZZES FOR PRELIMS 2017

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