KVS TGT Social Studies 2014 Previous Year Paper with Answers

To crack the KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the KVS TGT Social Studies Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

 

KVS TGT Social Studies Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. Which one of the following is not the cause of the economic depression?

A) Over-production

B) Fall in exports

C) Decline of feudalism

D) Mechanization of industries

Answer: c)

2. Major result of the Industrial Revolution was the:

A) Concentration of workers in the urban area

B) Increased desire of the wealthy class to share power

C) Formation of powerful craft guild

D) Control of agriculture production by government

Answer: a)

3. Who first used the term Industrial revolution in France?

A) Frichdrich Engels

B) Karl Marx

C) Georges Michelet

D) Arnold Toynbee

Answer: c)

4. Which of the following terms is most associated with free-market ‘classical’ economics?

A) Bon Voyage

B) Idee Fixe

C) Laissez Fairre

D) Ressentiment

Answer: c)

5. Who invented the first Steam Engine?

A) Thomas Newcomen

B) Abraham Darby

C) Richard Arkwright

D) Henry Cort

Answer: a)

6. When did France become constitutional Monarchy?

A) 1789

B) 1791

C) 1792

D) 1790

Answer: b)

7. The international body formed by socialists was known as:

A) Social Democratic

B) Second International

C) First international

D) Socialist Party of the world

Answer: b)

8. Which of the following group was in favour of open membership to all in a party?

A) Bolshevik

B) Mensheviks

C) S.D.W. Party

D) S.R. Party

Answer: b)

9. Which two countries were the first to declare war on Germany during World War II?

A) Italy and Greece

B) Britain and France

C) Norway and Denmark

D) U.S.A and U.S.S.R

Answer: b)

10. Italy‘s action in the World War I was primarily against:

A) Germany

B) Greece

C) Austria-Hungary

D) France

Answer: c)

Click here to download the Previous Year Question Papers for KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT Exam

11. Which international organisation got established immediately after the World War II?

A) League of Nations

B) U.N.O.

C) W.H.O.

D) N.A.T.O.

Answer: b)

12. When did Adolf Hitler come into power in Germany?

A) July 1921

B) July 1935

C) June 1929

D) June 1936

Answer: b)

13. During which war did the Russian revolution take place?

A) World War II

B) Russo-Japanese war

C) Napoleonic war

D) World War I

Answer: d)

14. The leader of the revolt of 1857 in Bihar was:

A) Tantiya Tope

B) Nana Saheb

C) Mangal Pandey

D) Kunwar Singh

Answer: d)

15.Who did not participate in the revolt of 1857?

A) Tantiya Tope

B) Rani Laxmi Bai

C) Bahadur Shah Zafar

D) Bhagat Singh

Answer: d)

16. Which of the following could be regarded as the greatest contribution of Arya Samaj?

A) Crusade against the rigidities of the caste system

B) Converting non-Hindus to Hinduism

C) Providing protection to the cow

D) Evoking a sense of pride in India’s past

Answer: d)

17. What was the primary aim of the AKALI movement which rose in the Punjab in 1920’s?

A) To voice the political grievances of the Sikhs

B) To bring about modernisation in the Sikh social customs

C) To streamline the management of the gurudwaras or Sikhs shrines

D) To wipe out the caste system from Sikhism

Answer: c)

18. The industrial development of India began with the introduction of:

A) Railways

B) Textile Mills

C) Mining Technology

D) Post and Telegraph

Answer: a)

19. The Indian industries which were completely ruined on account of British economic policies, were:

A) Sugar and Ship-building

B) Oil and Salt manufacture

C) Textile and handicrafts

D) Iron and steel

Answer: a)

20. Which party did not cooperate in the Quit India Movement?

A) Forward Bloc

B) Hindu Mahasabha

C) Communist

D) Socialists

Answer: c)

Click here to know the latest Exam Pattern and Syllabus of Kendriya Vidyalaya (KVS) PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam

21. Which of the following is incorrect about the earth?

A) The earth is slightly closer to the sun in early January than it is in early July.

B) The earth is farthest from the sun during the Northern Hemisphere summer.

C) The earth is closest to the sun during the Southern Hemisphere summer.

D) The earth is farthest from the sun during the Northern Hemisphere winter.

Answer: d)

22. Which of the following is incorrect about rocks?

A) Intrusive igneous rocks tend to have larger mineral crystals.

B) Granite is an extrusive igneous rock.

C) Coarse -grained intrusive rocks are called plutonic igneous rocks

D) Batholith is a massive pluton.

Answer: b)

23. Which of the following is the least urbanized state after Himachal Pradesh?

A) Sikkim

B) Bihar

C) Assam

D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: b)

24. Which of the following state is not crossed by tropic of cancer?

A) Rajasthan

B) Chattisgarh

C) Manipur

D) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: c)

25. Match the following:

Answer: c)

26. Which of the following denotes the correct order of states in terms of population (2011 census) from the largest to the smallest?

A) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar

B) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

C) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal

D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal

Answer: b)

27. National Institute of Disaster Management is under

A) Ministry of Earth Sciences

B) Ministry of Science and Technology

C) Ministry of Home Affairs

D) Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: c)

28. Which one is the correct order of the spatial character of the universe?

A) Milky Way, Universe, Local Group, Local Super cluster.

B) Universe, Milky Way, Local super cluster, Local Group

C) Milky Way, Local Group, Local Super cluster, Universe.

D) Local Group, Milky Way, Universe, Local Super cluster.

Answer: c)

29. Find the incorrect match

A) Talcher: Odisha

B) Namrup: Assam

C) Koyali: Gujarat

D) Sindri: Bihar

Answer: d)

30. Isohyets are lines joining places of equal

A) Temperature

B) Rainfall

C) Pressure

D) Height

Answer: b)

Click here to know the Best Books for KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT Exam Preparation

31. Bermuda is

A) North Atlantic’s high pressure cell

B) North Atlantic’s low pressure cell

C) Indian Ocean’s high pressure cell

D) Indian Ocean’s low pressure cell

Answer: a)

32. If there is a difference of 2 degrees in the longitudes of two places, there will be a difference of ________ in their time.

A) 4 hours

B) 4 minutes

C) 8 minutes

D) 8 hours

Answer: c)

33. R. F. in the scale of map denotes

A) Rainfall

B) Ratio factor

C) Rough form

D) Representative fraction

Answer: d)

34. To measure humidity, we use

A) Planimeter

B) Psychrometer

C) Lactometer

D) Opisometer

Answer: b)

35. New Moore Island is near the coast of

A) West Bengal

B) Odisha

C) Andhra Pradesh

D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: a)

36. Which one of the following landforms is not associated with continental glaciers?

A) Till

B) Stratified drift

C) Glacial drift

D) Uvala

Answer: d)

37. The rate of decline in temperature with altitude in the troposphere is:

A) 6.5 ° C per 100 m

B) 6.5 ° C per 1000 m

C) 6.5 ° C per 10 m

D) 6.5 ° C per 100 km

Answer: b)

38. Which one of the following statements about RF is not correct?

A) In RF the unit of the numerator and the denominator are taken as the same

B) The units are never mentioned when the scale is expressed in the form of RF

C) The denominator is always 100

D) The numerator should always be 1

Answer: c)

39. In which state of India is Angul, the largest aluminum plant in Asia located?

A) Gujarat

B) Jharkhand

C) Odisha

D) Chattisgarh

Answer: c)

40. Read the following statements

(i) The place of origin of earthquake is called focus.

(ii) The point directly above the focus on the earth’s surface is called epicenter.

(iii) The Richter scale measures the intensity of the earthquake.

(iv) The Modified Mercalli Scale ranges from I- XII.

Identify the incorrect statements:

A) (i) and (ii)

B) (iii)

C) (iii) and (iv)

D) (iv)

Answer: b)

Click here to know the Previous Year Cut-Off of KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT Exam

41. The growth rate of population during 2001-10 as per Census 2011 stood at:

A) 16.3%

B) 16.9%

C) 17.7%

D) 18.3%

Answer: c)

42. As a result of Green Revolution, which foodgrains had a reduced percentage in total foodgrains production?

A) Wheat

B) Rice

C) Cereals and Pulses

D) None of these

Answer: c)

43. Kasturba Gandhi Education Scheme is related to

A) Girl education

B) Adult education

C) Child labour education

D) Tribal woman (above 18 years) education

Answer: a)

44. National Rural Health Mission has been launched in the country since:

A) April 11, 2005

B) April 12, 2005

C) April 1, 2006

D) April 12, 2006

Answer: b)

45. Strategy which makes an all out effort to provide the masses in India access to basic facilities such as health, education, clean drinking water etc. is termed as:

A) inclusive growth strategy

B) exclusive growth strategy

C) rapid growth strategy

D) balanced growth strategy

Answer: a)

46. Which of the two employment programmes are being merged in newly introduced Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme?

A) PMRY and NREP

B) NREP and REGP

C) PMRY and REGP

D) None of these

Answer: c)

47. Central Issue Price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two?

A) Price of BPL is one third of APL price

B) Difference of Rs. 600/- per quintal

C) Difference of Rs. 250/- per quintal

D) Price for APL is double the BPL price

Answer: d)

48. Tendulkar Committee on its alternative methodology for calculating poverty ratio has estimated population below the poverty line at

A) 33.8%

B) 37.2%

C) 39.0%

D) 40.2%

Answer: b)

49. ‘Food for Work Programme’ was renamed as

A) RLEGP

B) IRDP

C) NREP

D) MNP

Answer: c)

50. Global Hunger Index released by IFPRI in Oct. 2010 placed India at

A) 58th rank

B) 67th rank

C) 69th rank

D) 74th rank

Answer: d)

Click here for Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) for KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT Recruitment 2018

51. Which of the following is better measure of economic development?

A) Employment

B) Size of exports

C) Rural consumption

D) National income

Answer: d)

52. What is Open Sky Scheme?

A) Export promotion scheme of Civil Aviation Ministry

B) Free economy policy

C) Tax free policy

D) None of these

Answer: a)

53. Which sector constitutes the maximum share in National Income of India?

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) All the above have equal

Answer: c)

54. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for

A) Internet banking

B) FDRs in banks

C) Credit cards

D) Demand drafts of banks

Answer: c)

55. ‘Pure Banking, Nothing Else’ is a slogan raised by

A) ICICI Bank

B) HDFC Bank

C) SBI

D) UTI Bank

Answer: c)

56. The money supply measure M2 as published by RBI includes

A) Currency held by public & other deposits of RBI

B) A + savings deposits with post office saving banks

C) A + net demand deposits of banks

D) B + net demand deposits of banks

Answer: d)

57. The growth of light industries is hampered by the fact that

A) These are run by small entrepreneurs with limited financial resources

B) These do not enjoy economies of scale

C) Perpetuate the dependence on imports of capital goods

D) all of the above

Answer: b)

58. Main distinguishing feature between money market and capital market is based on the

A) Cost of credit

B) Term of credit

C) Use of credit

D) User of credit

Answer: b)

59. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a new index to be included in:

A) World Human Report

B) Human Development Report

C) World Development Report

D) India’s Human Development Report

Answer: b)

60. National Food Security Mission targets to increase the production of wheat, rice and pulses in next four years to –

A) 10, 8 and 2 million tonnes respectively

B) 8, 10 and 2 million tonnes respectively

C) 8, 12 and 2 million tonnes respectively

D) 8, 10 and 4 million tonnes respectively

Answer: b)

61. Parliamentary supremacy is a definite feature of political system in:

A) U.K.

B) India

C) Canada

D) Australia

Answer: a)

62. Indian federation closely resembles:

A) U.S.A.

B) Nigeria

C) Australia

D) Canada

Answer: d)

63. The word ‘ Democracy’ has been derived from the language:

A) Greek

B) Latin

C) English

D) French

Answer: a)

64. Who among the following described democracy as the “Tyranny of the majority”?

A) Rousseau

B) De Tocqueville

C) John Dunning

D) John Modison

Answer: b)

65. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties in India?

A) Political Party Leader

B) Election Committee of Political Party

C) Election Commission

D) Political Party governing committee

Answer: c)

66. The opportunity for all citizens to vote is called:

A) Representative Government

B) Civic Virtue

C) Universal suffrage

D) Democracy

Answer: c)

67. Which one of the following is the chief source of political power in India?

A) The Constitution

B) The Supreme Court

C) The people

D) The Parliament

Answer: c)

68. Which one is not an element of a federation?

A) Written Constitution

B) Supreme Constitution

C) Single Citizenship

D) Bicameralism

Answer: c)

69. Panchayati Raj means:

A) Concentration of power

B) Centralization of power

C) Decentralization of power

D) State power

Answer: c)

70. In which year ‘Jana Andolan’ was started in Nepal

A) 1989

B) 1990

C) 1991

D) 2006

Answer: b)

71. Free Bolivia Movement turned into a progressive political party in Bolivia was formed on:

A) 15 January, 1985

B) 15 January, 1986

C) 15 January 1987

D) 15 January 1988

Answer: a)

72. The Constitution of India was enacted by the Constituent Assembly, set up:

A) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan in 1946.

B) Under the Indian Independence Act 1947

C) By the Indian National Congress

D) Through a resolution of the Provincial Governments.

Answer: a)

73. Which fundamental right prohibits traffic in human beings in India?

A) Right to Equality

B) Right against Exploitation

C) Right to Freedom

D) Cultural and Educational Right

Answer: b)

74. The Constituent Assembly elected as its permanent chairman:

A) B.R. Ambedkar

B) Rajendra Prasad

C) Jawahar Lal Nehru

D) K.M.Munshi

Answer: b)

75. How many Lok Sabha Constituencies are there in India?

A) 540

B) 550

C) 547

D) 543

Answer: d)

76. The joint sitting of the Indian Parliament is presided over by:

A) President

B) Prime Minister

C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: d)

77. The Constitution of India is Republic, because it:

A) Provides for an elected Parliament

B) Provides for adult franchise

C) Contains Bill of Rights

D) has no hereditary elements.

Answer: d)

78. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Courts to release a person unlawfully detained?

A) Quo-warranto

B) Prohibition

C) Habeas Corpus

D) Certiorari

Answer: c)

79. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

A) President

B) Prime Minister

C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

D) Supreme Court

Answer: c)

80. Who is the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party?

A) Jyotiba Phule

B) B.R. Ambedkar

C) Mayawati

D) Kanshi Ram

Answer: d)

---

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting the Social Studies Paper of KVS TGT 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam.