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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Environmental Science Previous Year Paper with Answers

Online Practicing of UGC NET Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your UGC NET Dec 2019 Exam Preparation. In this article we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Environmental Science July 2018 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

Nov 26, 2019 15:36 IST
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UGC NET July 2018 Paper 2 Environmental Science Previous Year Paper
UGC NET July 2018 Paper 2 Environmental Science Previous Year Paper

Scoring high marks in NTA UGC NET December 2019 Environmental Science Paper can be easily achieved by practicing the previous year papers of UGC NET Environmental Science Subject Exam. Practicing previous year papers will help in improving your speed of attempting questions in stipulated time with accuracy. So, in this article, we have shared the UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Environmental Science Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.

UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Environmental Science Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. For a thermally comfortable, seated bare bodied person at 258C, the maximum energy loss is due to:

(1) Radiation

(2) Convection

(3) Conduction

(4) Evaporation

Answer: (4)

2. High concentrations of pollutants at ground level during winter season are due to:

(1) Radiation inversion

(2) Subsidence inversion

(3) Frontal inversion

(4) Landscape induced inversion

Answer: (1)

3. The theme ‘Transforming our world: 2030 Agenda’ pertains to:

(1) Protection of ozone layer

(2) Climate change – Action plans

(3) Sustainable development goals

(4) Millennium development goals

Answer: (3)

4. At a latitude of 308, there is pressure gradient of 5.0 mb per 100 km. Given the density of air ~ 1.25 kg/m3, the geostrophic winds will have velocity (m/s):

(1) 5.48 m/s

(2) 54.86 m/s

(3) 109.72 m/s

(4) 27.43 m/s

Answer: (2)

5. The basic nature of lithosphere does not arise from element(s):

(1) Na and K

(2) Ca

(3) Mg

(4) Si

Answer: (4)

6. If the tropospheric lapse rate be 6.5°C/km and if T denotes temperature and Z denotes the altitude then:

Answer: (2)

7. Identify the statement, which best describes the second law of thermodynamics:

(1) The internal energy of the universe is constant.

(2) Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.

(3) At absolute zero, entropy of a substance is considered to be zero.

(4) When an isolated system undergoes a spontaneous change, the entropy of the universe increases.

Answer: (4)

8. Tropical cyclones occur on:

(1) Meso – scale

(2) Micro – scale

(3) Planetary scale

(4) Synoptic scale

Answer: (4)

9. If e and p are vapour pressure of water and total pressure of moist air, the equation of state for moist atmosphere can be written as:

Answer: (3)

10. Select the incorrect statement about the redox potential of aqueous solutions:

(1) As the concentration of molecular oxygen increases, the redox potential increases.

(2) As the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, the redox potential increases.

(3) As the concentration of molecular oxygen decreases, the redox potential decreases.

(4) As the concentration of hydrogen ions decreases, the redox potential increases.

Answer: (4)

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11. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

List - I (Analyte)

List - II (Method)

(a) Lead

(b) Dissolved oxygen

(c) SO2

(d) PAH

(i) Winkler Method

(ii) Gravimetric Method

(iii) GC-MS

(iv) West Gaeke Method

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (4)

12. The main acidic component of the present atmosphere is:

(1) HCl

(2) NOx

(3) SO2

(4) CO2

Answer: (4)

13. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PCBs:

(1) These are water soluble and hence bioaccumulate.

(2) These are fire resistant.

(3) These are stable at high temperatures.

(4) These have high electrical resistance.

Answer: (1)

14. Toxicity of which of the following metals is not due to reaction with sulfhydryl group?

(1) Arsenic

(2) Cadmium

(3) Lead

(4) Chromium

Answer: (4)

15. By chemical reaction, the hydroxyl radicals fail to remove which of the following trace gases from the atmosphere?

(1) CO

(2) NO

(3) SO2

(4) CFCs

Answer: (4)

16. How many gram of acetic acid (molar mass = 60 g/mole) are present in 100 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid?

(1) 0.6 g

(2) 0.06 g

(3) 6.0 g

(4) 60.0 g

Answer: (1)

17. Three coloured sheets of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs 20% of light incident upon it. What is the intensity of light transmitted after the third plate?

(1) 9.0%

(2) 10.5%

(3) 51.2%

(4) 40.0%

Answer: (3)

18. In a volumetric titration, a 20 ml aqueous HCl solution, needs 10 ml of 0.1 N NaOH for complete neutralization.

The concentration of HCl solution is:

(1) 0.2 N

(2) 0.002 N

(3) 0.01 N

(4) 0.05 N

Answer: (4)

19. The best way for assessing the organic component of a water sample is the determination of:

(1) TOC

(2) COD

(3) BOD

(4) DO

Answer: (1)

20. Biogas produced by the anerobic digestion is a mixture of:

(1) CO2, SO2, N2O, CH4 and H2O

(2) CO, CO2, H2S, CH4 and natural gas

(3) CH4, CO2 NH3, H2S and H2O

(4) CO2, NH3, C2H5OH and H2O

Answer: (3)

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21. The percentage concentration of which of the following ions is highest in sea water?

(1) Bicarbonate

(2) Chloride

(3) Sulfate

(4) Sodium

Answer: (2)

22. In which of the following ecosystems, the food web involves more species and more trophic levels?

(1) Rain forest

(2) Ocean

(3) Desert

(4) Glacier

Answer: (2)

23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The available energy of an ecosystem decreases with the length of food chain.

Reason (R): At each transfer of energy in food chain, a large proportion of potential energy is lost as heat.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

24. The origin of eukaryotic cell on earth took place:

(1) 1500 Million years ago

(2) 1850 Million years ago

(3) 850 Million years ago

(4) 1000 Million years ago

Answer: (2)

25. Ratio of energy transfer at different trophic levels in the food chain is called:

(1) Metabolic efficiency

(2) Ecological efficiency

(3) Energy flow rate

(4) Food chain complexity

Answer: (2)

26. At which stage of ecological succession, an ecosystem exhibits, photosynthesis (P) = Respiration (R):

(1) Pioneer stage

(2) Mid seral stage

(3) Climax stage

(4) Early seral stage

Answer: (3)

27. The species determining the ability of large number of other species to persist in a community, are called:

(1) Indicator species

(2) Keystone species

(3) Dominant species

(4) Endemic species

Answer: (2)

28. Biodiversity:

(a) Increases towards the Arctic region

(b) Decreases towards the Arctic region

(c) Increases towards the equator

(d) Decreases towards the equator

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

29. Arctic Tundra is situated around:

(1) 66.5° N

(2) 55.5° N

(3) 45° N

(4) 66.5° S

Answer: (1)

30. Main limiting factor governing primary productivity in pelagic zone of the ocean is: 

(a) Light

(b) Available nutrients

(c) Number of primary producers

(d) Tidal current

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

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31. The nature of food web at the developmental stage of a succession is:

(1) linear, predominantly grazing

(2) linear, predominantly detritus

(3) weblike, predominantly detritus

(4) weblike, predominantly grazing

Answer: (1)

32. Based on the casualties reported worldwide, which one of the following is most deadly airborne bacterial disease?

(1) Diphtheria

(2) Whooping cough

(3) Pneumonia

(4) Meningitis

Answer: (2)

33. Match the List – I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Endangered animals)

List - II (Distribution)

(a) Lion tailed Macaque

(b) Golden Langur

(c) Spotted Linsang

(d) Pallas’s cat

(i) Himalayan foothills

(ii) Jammu and Kashmir

(iii) Western Ghats

(iv) Central and Eastern Himalayas

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (2)

34. Reproductive isolation of populations leads to:

(1) infertility

(2) population explosion

(3) speciation

(4) population decline

Answer: (3)

35. In the context of local environment, heleoplankton refers to:

(1) Saltwater plankton

(2) Pond plankton

(3) Stream plankton

(4) Lake plankton

Answer: (2)

36. According to India State Forest Report (ISFR), 2017 of MOEFCC, GOI, the increase in forest cover of the country with reference to the year 2015 is:

(1) 1.8%

(2) 2.0%

(3) 2.2%

(4) 1.0%

Answer: (4)

37. Which one of the following is a cultivable species of tropical earthworm?

(1) Elsenia fetida

(2) Lumbricus rubellus

(3) Drawida nepalensis

(4) Polypheretima elongata 

Answer: (4)

38. Slow downslope movement of water saturated rock mass which is not confined to a definite channel, is called:

(1) Soil creep

(2) Debris flow

(3) Mudslide

(4) Solifluction

Answer: (4)

39. Isogons are the points which join beds of:

(1) Equal dip amount

(2) Same strike direction

(3) Equal thickness

(4) Opposite strike direction

Answer: (1)

40. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Ecosystem service)

List - II (Function)

(a) Provisioning

(b) Regulating

(c) Cultural

(d) Supporting

(i) Nutrient cycling

(ii) Recreational

(iii) Carbon sequestration

(iv) Pharmaceuticals

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (2)

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41. Cartostat – 2 satellite has a spatial resolution of:

(1) better than 1 m

(2) 2 m

(3) 5.8 m

(4) 23 m

Answer: (1)

42. L – band in microwave remote sensing provides information about scattering from:

(a) Volume

(b) Soil

(c) Canopy

(d) Trunks and boles

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b), only

(3) (a), (b), (c)

(4) (a), (b), (d) only

Answer: (4)

43. In temperate lakes upwelling replenishes nutrients turnover during:

(a) Autumn and spring

(b) Autumn and winter

(c) Summer and winter

(d) Summer and spring

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (d) only

Answer: (1)

44. Soil pollution is caused by:

(a) Industrial waste

(b) Agrochemicals

(c) Petrochemicals

(d) Detergents

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

45. In an aquifer having a coefficient of permeability k = 0.1 mm/s and water table sloping at a rate of 1 m over a distance of 200 m, the value of groundwater flow is:

(1) 0.005 mm/s

(2) 0.0010 mm/s

(3) 0.0015 mm/s

(4) 0.0025 mm/s

Answer: (All)

46. Seismic waves travel faster through:

(1) Gas

(2) Liquid

(3) Solid

(4) Lava

Answer: (3)

47. Urban Heat Island effect is best studied using remote sensing in the following spectral region:

(a) 0.5 – 0.9 μm

(b) 3 – 5 μm

(c) 10 – 12 μm

(d) 3 – 6 cm

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and

(b) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

48. In landscape ecological studies, the term landscape process includes:

(a) The exchange of materials and energy

(b) Exchange or movement of organisms

(c) Patch, matrix and corridor

(d) Porosity

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

49. A drowned river valley estuary is formed when?

(1) a barrier island or sand bar separates a section of the coast where fresh water enters.

(2) sea level rose at the end of the last glacial age invading low lands and rivers.

(3) a deep valley is created by retreating glaciers.

(4) land sinks due to movements of the crust.

Answer: (2)

50. Fringing reef generally develops:

(1) as a narrow band close to a shore.

(2) at some distance from the coast.

(3) as a ring around central lagoon.

(4) as a patch in the pelagic zone of the sea.

Answer: (1)

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51. According to River Continuum Concept of Vannote et. al (1980), the major sources of energy in medium – sized streams are:

(a) Fine particulate organic matter

(b) Coarse particulate organic matter

(c) Algae

(d) Aquatic plants

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b), (c), and (d)

Answer: (3)

52. Self purification of running streams may be due to:

(1) oxidation, sedimentation and coagulation

(2) sedimentation, dilution and oxidation

(3) dilution, sedimentation and coagulation

(4) dilution, oxidation and coagulation

Answer: (2)

53. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The efficiency of a PV cell is limited by the quantum processes involving incident photons and the electrons in the cell.

Reason (R): The band gap energy of the semiconducting material used to fabricate PV cell is less in comparison to the energies of photons of insolation.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

54. Given below are two statements. one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The recoverable renewable energy is a fraction of the resource base of the renewable sources available in the world.

Reason (R): Much of the renewable energy is either of high entropy or too inaccessible to use.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

55. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Tidal range is a critical factor in determining whether an estuary would be useful for tidal power generation.

Reason (R): Tidal power is proportional to tidal range.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

56. A single solar cell on illumination by insolation of about 800 Wm−2 produces a voltage of 0.5 V and a current upto 2.0 A. The efficiency of the solar cell is 12.5%. The area of the cell is:

(1) 2×10−2 m2

(2) 5×10−3 m2

(3) 4×10−4 m2

(4) 10−2 m2

Answer: (4)

57. If the ion density in a high temperature fusion plasma consisting of deuterium and tritium fuel is 2.5×1020 m−3, the minimum confinement time required for nuclear fusion to produce net energy will be:

(1) 0.5 s

(2) 0.4 s

(3) 0.25 s

(4) 4.0 s

Answer: (2)

58. At present, which geothermal resource is exploited on commercial scale in the world?

(1) Magma

(2) Hot dry rock

(3) Geopressured

(4) Hydrothermal

Answer: (4)

59. Which of the following substances has the maximum energy content (MJ/m3)?

(1) Methane gas

(2) Liquid butane

(3) Natural gas

(4) Hydrogen gas

Answer: (2)

60. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The nuclei of elements such as plutonium and uranium have extremely large energy potentials.

Reason (R): They are in states of thermodynamic non-equilibrium.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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(1) 426.7 GJ

(2) 85.3 GJ

(3) 170.6 GJ

(4) 42.6 GJ

Answer: (1)

62. Which of the following biofuels is produced from acidification and distillation of woody crops?

(1) Methanol

(2) Ethanol

(3) Producer gas

(4) Esters

Answer: (1)

63. How thick a sound barrier be made if it is to attenuate efficiently sound transmitted at 5.0 kHz?

(1) ~ 2.0 cm

(2) ~ 3.3 cm

(3) ~ 6.6 cm

(4) ~ 2.0 m

Answer: (3)

64. Identify the most reducing water sample as inferred from pE values given below: 

(1) pE = 15

(2) pE = 12

(3) pE = 7

(4) pE = 5

Answer: (4)

65. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): In an unpolluted and dust free atmosphere, rainwater pH is ~ 5.6. 

Reason (R): Dissolution of carbon dioxide in rainwater produces hydrogen ions. 

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

66. As per BIS, the recommended pH for drinking water is:

(1) 5.0 – 6.5

(2) 6.5 – 8.5

(3) 7.5 – 9.0

(4) 8 – 10

Answer: (2)

67. In the disinfection of water by chlorine, the most reactive chlorine species is:

(1) Cl2

(2) ClO

(3) HOCl

(4) Cl

Answer: (3)

68. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Black carbon contributes to global warming.

Reason (R): Black carbon behaves like a black body.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

69. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for photochemical smog?

(a) Oxides of nitrogen

(b) Ozone

(c) Unburnt hydrocarbons

(d) Sulphur dioxide

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (2)

70. Temporary hardness is caused by:

(1) Calcium sulfate

(2) Magnesium sulfate

(3) Magnesium carbonate

(4) Magnesium chloride

Answer: (3)

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71. Bioremediation of soil is not achieved readily if:

(1) Contaminant is a lighter molecule.

(2) Contaminant has high aromaticity.

(3) Contaminant is a polar molecule.

(4) Contaminant is non-halogenated.

Answer: (2)

72. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Traffic policemen in urban centres generally suffer from oxygen deficiency.

Reason (R): Carbon dioxide forms a very strong complex with haemoglobin.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

73. A bar graph whose bars are drawn in decreasing order of frequency is:

(1) histogram

(2) frequency polygon

(3) pareto chart

(4) cumulative bar chart

Answer: (3)

74. If four groups of vehicles consisting of 5, 10, 12 and 8 cars reported the gaseous pollutant emissions of 1.2 kg, 2.1 kg, 3.0 kg and 1.5 kg per day respectively, then the mean emission of gaseous pollutant from all cars is: 

(1) 4.43 kg/day

(2) 2.14 kg/day

(3) 4.80 kg/day

(4) 3.12 kg/day

Answer: (2)

75. A sample of 10 measurements of diameter of trees in a survey gives a mean of 43.8 cm and a standard deviation of 0.6 cm. Given t = 2.26, the 95% confidence limit for the actual diameter is in between:

(1) 41.54 and 46.06 cm

(2) 43.348 and 44.252 cm

(3) 43.20 and 44.812 cm

(4) 43.252 and 44.348 cm

Answer: (2)

76. In a fish population of a pond it is believed that males and females are in equal proportion. If out of 200 fish in a catch, 120 are male and 80 are female, then the Chi square (χ2) value is:

(1) 8

(2) 4

(3) 16

(4) 12

Answer: (1)

77. In multiple regression analysis, the value that refers to the extent of possible variance in the dependent variable that can be accounted for, by the independent variable is:

(1) R Value

(2) Adjusted R2 Value

(3) ‘r’ Value

(4) 1/R Value

Answer: (2)

78. A population size at t=0 is 80 and has a growth rate of 0.12. If the population follows logistic growth, what is the growth rate constant if the carrying capacity is 240?

(1) 5.32

(2) 9.60

(3) 0.18

(4) 3.80

Answer: (3)

79. In a city of area (8 km×8 km), the vehicular traffic is releasing 10−5 g/m2−s of CO during the winter season between 4 pm and 8 pm. During this period mixing height is 100 m. The wind is blowing in the city at a speed of 4.0 m/s along the side of the city. If the initial concentration of CO at 4 pm was negligible, the estimated concentration of CO after 4 hours should be:

(1) 0.2 mg/m3

(2) 3.2 mg/m3

(3) 2.0 mg/m3

(4) 20.0 mg/m3

Answer: (1)

80. In the Gaussian plume model, the effective stack height is the sum of actual stack height and the plume rise which depends on:

(a) buoyancy of exhaust gases

(b) momentum of exhaust gases

(c) stability of the atmosphere

(d) emission rate of the pollutants

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

81. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Global shipping is a source of net cooling of atmosphere.

Reason (R): Ships are responsible for significant amounts of sulphur emissions.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

82. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Ozone depletion in stratosphere causes melanoma.

Reason (R): Ozone is a gas which largely absorbs UV – A radiation.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

83. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to saline and alkaline soil: 

(1) These show white incrustation of salts of calcium, magnesium and sodium on the soil surface.

(2) These soils are infertile.

(3) These soils are poor in drainage.

(4) These soils are pervious.

Answer: (4)

84. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Phosphorus limits eutrophication if nitrogen is eight times more abundant (weight wise) than phosphorus in fresh water.

Reason (R): About eight times more nitrogen (weight wise) is required than phosphorus for plant growth.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

85. World Biodiversity day is celebrated every year on:

(1) March 22

(2) May 22

(3) July 22

(4) November 22

Answer: (2)

86. To achieve its objectives, the International Solar Alliance aims to mobilize financial investment over:

(1) Z 1 trillion

(2) Z 100 billion

(3) Z 500 billion

(4) Z 200 billion

Answer: (All)

87. A Ramsar site not able to perform its ecological functions comes under:

(1) Montreal protocol

(2) Montreux record

(3) Montreal record

(4) Montreaux protocol

Answer: (2)

88. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills?

(1) Bacillus denitrificans

(2) Pseudomonas denitrificans

(3) Pseudomonas putida

(4) Bacillus subtillis

Answer: (3)

89. For the scientific research or investigations, the chief wildlife warden may grant the permission to public to enter a sanctuary under the section:

(1) 35 of The wildlife (Protection) Act 1972

(2) 28 of The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972

(3) 72 of The Indian Forest Act 1922

(4) 73 of The Indian Forest Act 1927

Answer: (2)

90. Power to issue notification reserving the trees or class of trees in a protected forest lies with: 

(1) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, GOI

(2) Biodiversity Board

(3) State Government

(4) Central Government

Answer: (3)

91. In which stage of decomposition of landfilled waste, the bacteria acetogen helps to reduce the pH of leachate and allows heavy metals to be solubilized?

(1) Aerobic Phase

(2) Acid Phase

(3) Unsteady Methanogenisis Stage

(4) Steady Methanogenisis Stage

Answer: (2)

92. Choose the correct sequence in resource recovery for mixed solid waste:

(1) Screening → Air classifier → Shredder → Magnetic separation

(2) Magnetic separation → Shredder → Screening → Air classifier

(3) Shredder → Screening → Air classifier →Magnetic separation

(4) Screening → Shredder → Magnetic separation →Air classifier

Answer: (4)

93. Onsight mulching and composting of waste is a component of integrated solid waste management under the process of:

(1) recycling

(2) disposal

(3) source reduction

(4) disinfection

Answer: (3)

94. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Waste types)

List-II (Disposal methods)

(a) Human tissues

(b) Laboratory wastes

(c) Waste sharps

(d) Liquid waste

(i) Disinfection and shredding

(ii) Disinfection and discharge into drains

(iii) Autoclaving

(iv) Incineration and deep burial

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (1)

95. Which of the following materials are used as landfill sealants for the control of gas and
leachate?

(a) Fly ash

(b) Lime

(c) Bentonite

(d) Butyl rubber

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (d) and (a) only

Answer: (3)

96. Select the correct sequence with reference to Environmental Management System ISO1401:

(1) Environmental policy → Implementation and operation → Checking and corrective action → Management review

(2) Implementation and operation → Checking and corrective action → Management review → Environmental policy

(3) Implementation and operation → Environmental policy → Checking and corrective action → Management review

(4) Checking and corrective action → Management review → Implementation and operation → Environmental policy

Answer: (1)

97. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (EIA process)

List-II (Features)

(a) Environmental Baseline

(b) Development Action

(c) Mitigation measures

(d) Review

(i) Systematic Appraisal of EIS

(ii) Avoid, reduce and remedy for impacts

(iii) Rationale of the project

(iv) Establishment of present and future state of environment

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (1)

98. The type of project in ‘B’ category in the schedule attached with EIA notification of 14th September 2006, needs environmental clearance from:

(a) Central Govt. without the recommendation of the Expert Appraisal Committee.

(b) State Govt. on the recommendation of the State Expert Appraisal Committee.

(c) State Environmental Impact Assessment Authority on the recommendation of State Expert Appraisal Committee.

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (c) and (a) only

Answer: (3)

99. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Process)

List-II (Description)

(a) Development action

(b) Environmental baseline

(c) Impacts prediction

(d) Mitigation measures

(i) Compensation for adverse impacts

(ii) Development stages and processes

(iii) Establishment of future and present state of environment

(iv) Magnitude of identified change in environment

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (1)

100. Battelle – Columbus environmental evaluation system is used to assess the impact of:

(1) Mining development projects.

(2) Pulp and paper mill projects.

(3) Water resources projects.

(4) Highway projects.

Answer: (3)

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET December 2019 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET December 2019 Exam.

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