UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers

Dec 17, 2018 19:10 IST
    UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers
    UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers

    For cracking NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Geography Previous Year Paper held on 8th July, 2018 alongwith their answers.

    UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers

    1. The concept of geosynctive was propounded by:

    (1) Holmes

    (2) James Hutton

    (3) Hall and Dana

    (4) J.W. Powell

    2. The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined and divided into ‘Uranography’ and Geography by:

    (1) Ritter

    (2) Peschal

    (3) Humboldt

    (4) Verinious

    3. Ice Crystal Theory related to precipitation was postulated by:

    (1) Muir

    (2) Darwin

    (3) Bergeron

    (4) Boven

    4. The subsidence theory related to the coral reef was propounded by:

    (1) Davis

    (2) Darwin

    (3) Dally

    (4) Dana

    5. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the:

    (1) Crust and mantle

    (2) Mantle and Core

    (3) Upper Core and Lower Core

    (4) Upper mantle and lower mantle

    6. The concept of panplain was propagated by:

    (1) C.A. Cotton

    (2) Von Rithofen

    (3) Crickmay

    (4) Alfred Von Wegener

    7. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as:

    (1) Strike

    (2) Dip

    (3) Anticline

    (4) Free face

    8. Which one of the following scholars is the proponent of the turbidity Current Theory on origin of submarine Canyons?

    (1) Salin

    (2) Gregory

    (3) Daly

    (4) Harry Hen

    9. Paternoster lakes are:

    (1) Lakes formed on glacial stairways

    (2) Lakes having volcanic origin

    (3) Lakes formed by a shallow stretch of water caused by sea erosion

    (4) Crescent shaped lakes formed due to cut-off of a river meander

    10. “The present in the key to the past.” This phrase is related to the concept of:

    (1) Isostasy

    (2) Diastrophism

    (3) Plate tectonics

    (4) Uniformatarianism

    11. Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel?

    (1) Viscometer

    (2) Radiosondes

    (3) SONAR

    (4) pH meter

    12. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): Antarctica is constantly snow-covered but receives less than 8 cm annual precipitation.

    Reason (R): Constant speedy wind blow in Antarctica.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    13. Which one of the following types of plate boundaries and motions are exemplified by the San Andreas fault of California?

    (1) Transform boundary with Sinistral motion

    (2) Transform boundary with dextral motion

    (3) Divergent boundary with sinistral motion

    (4) Convergent boundary with dextral motion

    14. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Thornthwait’s Temperature Provinces)

    List - II (T/E Index values)

    (a) Mesothermal

    (b) Microthermal

    (c) Taiga

    (d) Tundra

    (i) 16 – 31

    (ii) 1 - 15

    (iii) 64 - 127

    (iv) 32 - 63

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)           (i)

    (2) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (3) (iii)   (iv)         (i)           (ii)

    (4) (ii)    (i)           (iv)        (iii)

    15. Which one of the following latitudes is known as the ‘Calms of Cancer’?

    (1) 66½o S

    (2) 66½ o N

    (3) 25 o N

    (4) 25 o S

    16. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Instrument)

    List - II (Measured entity)

    (a) Sling psychrometer

    (b) Pedometer

    (c) Spectrometer

    (d) Pycnometer

    (i) Soil density

    (ii) Radiant energy

    (iii) Relative Humidity

    (iv) Distance

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iii)   (iv)         (i)           (ii)

    (2) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)             (i)

    (3) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)             (i)

    (4) (i)     (ii)           (iv)         (iii)

    17. The American climatologist C.W. Thornthwaite revised the scheme of the classification of world climates in which one of the following years?

    (1) 1931

    (2) 1934

    (3) 1941

    (4) 1948

    18. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Force)

    List - II (Source)

    (a) Coriolis

    (b) Tidal

    (c) Friction

    (d) Resisting

    (i) Earth’s gravity

    (ii) Totographic differences

    (iii) Static state

    (iv) Earth’s rotation

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (ii)           (iii)          (i)

    (2) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)          (i)

    (3) (iv)   (i)           (iii)         (ii)

    (4) (iv)   (i)             (ii)         (iii)

    19. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Process)

    List - II (Outcome)

    (a) Decomposition

    (b) Transpiration

    (c) Respiration

    (d) Photosynthesis

    (i) CO2

    (ii) O2

    (iii) CH4

    (iv) Water vapour

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (iv)         (ii)           (iii)

    (2) (iv)   (iii)          (i)           (ii)

    (3) (iii)   (iv)         (i)           (ii)

    (4) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)            (i)

    20. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): The monsoon of southern and eastern Asia driven by the location and size of the Asian landmass and its proximity to the Indian Ocean.

    Reason (R): The wind and pressure patterns in the upper air circulation are associated with generation of monsoonal flows.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    21. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Ocean Trench)

    List - II (Depth in meters)

    (a) Tonga

    (b) Kuril Kamchatka

    (c) Philippine

    (d) Romanche

    (i) 7760

    (ii) 10540

    (iii) 10880

    (iv) 10500

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (2) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)           (i)

    (3) (iv)   (iii)          (i)           (ii)

    (4) (ii)    (i)           (iv)        (iii)

    Click here to know the latest Exam Pattern and Syllabus of NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam

    22. Which one of the followings is the main source for a vast reservoir of relatively inert nitrogen in homosphere?

    (1) Volcanic activities

    (2) Fossil fuel burning

    (3) Acid rain

    (4) Global Warming

    23. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving?

    (1) East

    (2) West

    (3) South

    (4) North

    24. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea?

    (1) Backshore, Foreshore, Nearshore, Offshore

    (2) Foreshore, Backshore, Nearshore, Offshore

    (3) Offshore, Nearshore, Foreshore, Backshore

    (4) Nearshore, Offshore, Backshore, Foreshore

    25. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): In low latitudes, sea water in the deep cold zone does not freeze.

    Reason (R): The deep sea water does not remain under intense pressure because of its high salinity.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    26. Which one of the followings is the correct average range of worldwide variations in sea water salinity?

    (1) 34% to 37%

    (2) 27% to 29%

    (3) 37% to 39%

    (4) 21% to 26%

    27. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): Energy flow shifts from production to respiration in the entrophic stage, with oxygen demand exceeding oxygen availability.

    Reason (R): Stratospheric ozone layer depletion causes skin diseases.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    28. Which one of the following groups of natural elements in living matters make up more than 99% of Earth’s biomass?

    (1) H, O, C

    (2) N, Ca, K

    (3) H, Ca, N

    (4) S, H, Na

    29. Which one of the following phenomena plays a vital role in the dispersion of majestic dinosaurs?

    (1) Volcanic eruption

    (2) Zonal faulting

    (3) Global cooling

    (4) Continental drift

    30. The U.N. Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro during June 3 - 14, 1992 was chaired by:

    (1) George W. Bush

    (2) Maurice F. Strong

    (3) Tony Blair

    (4) Rachel Carson

    31. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Emitter)

    List - II (Emitted Products

    (a) Decaying plants

    (b) Volcanoes

    (c) Ocean

    (d) Forest fires

    (i) Carbon monoxide

    (ii) Salt spray

    (iii) Hydrogen sulphide

    (iv) Sulfur oxides

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iii)   (iv)         (i)           (ii)

    (2) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)            (i)

    (3) (iii)   (ii)          (iv)          (i)

    (4) (ii)    (iii)           (i)          (iv)

    32. Who among the following scholars laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus species Geography?

    (1) Immanual Kant

    (2) Sebastian Munster

    (3) Bernhard Varenius

    (4) Peter Apian

    33. Which of the following pairs does not match?

    Author

    Book

    (1) Al - Masudi

    (2) Al - Balaki

    (3) Al - Biruni

    (4) Ibn – Khaldun

    Router and Realms

    Kitabul Ashkal

    Kitab-al-Hind

    Muqaddimah

    34. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propounded by:

    (1) R.E. Horton

    (2) Darwin

    (3) Penck

    (4) Mallot

    35. Who among the following scholars emphasized on the behavioural approach in Geography?

    (1) Johnston

    (2) Kirk

    (3) Burton

    (4) Gregory

    36. Which one of the following in the correct sequence of German geographers contributing to the development of geographical thought?

    (1) Ratzel - Troll - Hettner - Peschel

    (2) Peschel - Hettner - Ratzel - Troll

    (3) Peschel - Ratzel - Hettner - Troll

    (4) Troll - Hettner - Peschel - Ratzel

    37. ‘The same environment carries different meanings to people with different ways of living and culture’. This statement is related to which one of the following concepts?

    (1) Probabilism

    (2) Determinism

    (3) Possibilism

    (4) Stop and Go determinism

    38. Which school of thought first developed the idea of possibilism?

    (1) Russian school

    (2) German School

    (3) British School

    (4) French School

    39. “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is attributed to:

    (1) Friedrich Ratzel

    (2) Vidal-de-la-Blache

    (3) Richard Hartshorne

    (4) Jean Brunhes

    40. Which one among the following perspectives was responsible for redicap transformation in the sprit and purpose of geography?

    (1) Structuralism

    (2) Post-modernism

    (3) Humanism

    (4) Quantification

    41. Which one of the following states in India recorded the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?

    (1) Uttarakhand

    (2) Tamil Nadu

    (3) West Bengal

    (4) Himachal Pradesh

    42. Which one of the following countries recorded highest population density as per U.N. Demographic Year Book, 2010?

    (1) India

    (2) Japan

    (3) Bangladesh

    (4) Pakistan

    43. Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the threshold according to Central Place Model?

    (1) Point at which consumer movement is minimum.

    (2) Distance far which consumer will travel for a service.

    (3) Minimum number of people needed to support a service.

    (4) Economic base of a service centre.

    44. Which one of the following groups of states in Indian recorded Sex Ratio higher than 950 according to year 2011 census?

    (1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Telengana

    (2) Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

    (3) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh

    (4) Haryana, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

    45. Which one of the following Models is explained by the given figure below:


    (1) Weber’s Model

    (2) Central place Model

    (3) Von Thunen Model

    (4) Gravity Model

    46. Which one of the following code is correctly depicting the pattern of distribution of population among cities by ‘d’ curve in the given graph?


    Code:

    (1) Primate

    (2) Slepped order

    (3) Binary

    (4) Rank Size Rule

    47. Match List - I with List - II and select correct answer from the code given below:

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (ii)    (iii)          (iv)         (i)

    (2) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)          (i)

    (3) (i)     (ii)          (iii)         (iv)

    (4) (iv)   (iii)           (ii)           (i)

    Click here to Download the Previous Papers of UGC NET Exam for free

    48. Which one of the following statements indicates to the potential use of a service at a location according to Gravity Model?

    (1) Direct relationship to both population size and distance

    (2) Inverse relationship to both population size and distance

    (3) Direct relationship to population size and inverse relationship to distance

    (4) Direct relationship to distance and inverse relationship to population

    49. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Demographic terms)

    List - II (Explanation)

    (a) Cohart

    (b) Natural increase

    (c) Total fertility rate

    (d) Dependency ratio

    (i) Birth rate minus death rate

    (ii) A population group unified by a specific common characteristic

    (iii) Average number of children that a women will bear through her child bearing years

    (iv) Measure in terms of number of dependants against productive age groups

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iii)   (iv)        (ii)          (i)

    (2) (ii)      (i)          (iii)         (iv)

    (3) (i)       (iv)         (iii)          (ii)

    (4) (iv)      (ii)           (i)           (iii)

    50. Which one of the following groups of states of India recorded more than one fourth of total population of the country in the census year 2011?

    (1) Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Punjab

    (2) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka

    (3) Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab

    (4) Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana

    51. Among the following scholars, who introduced the concept of ‘least-transport-cost location’ using the frame of ‘locational triangle’.

    (1) W. Isard

    (2) M.K. Bandman

    (3) D.M. Smith

    (4) A. Weber

    52. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Economy)

    List - II (Features)

    (a) Subsistence Economy

    (b) Commercial Economy

    (c) Intensive Subsistence Economy

    (d) Extensive Subsistence Economy

    (i) Market competition as primary force shaping the production patterns

    (ii) Self-sufficiency, low production and low population density

    (iii) Self-sufficiency, high production and high population density

    (iv) Little exchange of goods and only limited need for markets

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (ii)    (iii)          (i)           (iv)

    (2) (iv)   (i)           (iii)         (ii)

    (3) (iii)   (ii)          (iv)          (i)

    (4) (i)     (iv)        (iii)           (ii)

    53. Which one of the following code is correct showing number of vertices, edges and Diameter for the given network?

                  Vertices               Edges            Diameter

    (1)             10                       7                  5

    (2)             10                      10                 7

    (3)             10                       5                  6

    (4)             10                       8                  7

    54. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

    List - I (Whiltlesey’s Agricultural Religions)

    List - II (Name of Countries)

    (a) Commercial Dairy Farming

    (b) Commercial Grain Farming

    (c) Nomadic Herding

    (d) Commercial Plantations

    (i) Argentina

    (ii) Sri Lanka

    (iii) New Zealand

    (iv) Mangolia

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iii)   (i)           (iv)         (ii)

    (2) (i)     (ii)          (iii)         (iv)

    (3) (iv)   (iii)           (ii)           (i)

    (4) (ii)      (iv)          (i)           (iii)

    55. Which one of the following factors most dominants in the localisation of high-tech firms of silicon valley in California?

    (1) Cheap Labour

    (2) Access to the market

    (3) High speed transportation

    (4) Agglomeration economy

    56. The Rimmer model for the development of land transport system in less developed economics was proposed in which of the following years?

    (1) 1975

    (2) 1976

    (3) 1977

    (4) 1978

    57. The formula PI = Y/YN ÷ T/TN where PI = Agriculture Productivity Index ; Y= Total production of selected crops in unit Area; Yn = Total production of same selected crops at national level; T = Total cropped area of the unit ; Tn = Total cropped area at national scale.

    Who applied this formula for measuring agricultural productivity levels?

    (1) Bhatia

    (2) Enyedi

    (3) Weaver

    (4) Shafi

    58. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Countries)

    List - II (Mineral Reserves)

    (a) Liberia

    (b) Guinea

    (c) Togo

    (d) Niger

    (i) Iron

    (ii) Uranium

    (iii) Phosphate

    (iv) Bauxite

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)           (i)

    (2) (i)     (iv)         (iii)          (ii)

    (3) (ii)    (i)           (iv)         (iii)

    (4) (iii)   (ii)          (i)           (iv)

    59. Which one of the following conditions Alfred Weber introduced in his concept of ‘Locational Triangle’?

    (1) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are found universally

    (2) ‘R1’ is fixed but ‘R2’ is found everywhere and both are pure

    (3) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and pure

    (4) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and gross

    (where: ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are two raw materials)

    Click here to know the preparation strategy to crack NTA UGC NET 2018 Exam

    60. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Sectors of the Economy)

    List - II (Activities)

    (a) Primary

    (b) Secondary

    (c) Tertiary

    (d) Quaternary

    (i) Research endavours

    (ii) Train services

    (iii) Pearl culture

    (iv) Spinning cotton year

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (2) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)          (i)

    (3) (ii)    (i)           (iv)        (iii)

    (4) (iv)   (iii)           (i)            (ii)

    61. In which one of the following book/works did Mackinder in 1919 renamed his theory of ‘pivot area’ as ‘Heartland’?

    (1) World War and Geography

    (2) The Democratic ideals and Reality

    (3) The Round world and The winning of the peace

    (4) Foreign Affairs

    62. The Organic Theory of state was propounded by:

    (1) Ratzel

    (2) Mackinder

    (3) Isaiah Bowman

    (4) Haushoffer

    63. The book ‘Geography of peace’ is authored written by:

    (1) Mahan

    (2) Spykman

    (3) Haushoffer

    (4) Ratzel

    64. Which of the following catagories does Chile belong to according to its physical shape?

    (1) Compact and elongated

    (2) Elongated

    (3) Fragmented and elongated

    (4) Fragmented

    65. Whose works epitomized the relationship or political geography with foreign policy?

    (1) Adolf Hitler

    (2) Friedrich Ratzel

    (3) Mackinder

    (4) Karl Haushofer

    66. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Country)

    List - II (Official Language)

    (a) Luxembourg

    (b) Algeria

    (c) Chile

    (d) Kazakistan

    (i) Arabic

    (ii) Russian

    (iii) French

    (iv) Spanish

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (iii)          (ii)           (iv)

    (2) (ii)    (iv)         (iii)          (i)

    (3) (iii)   (i)           (iv)         (ii)

    (4) (iv)   (ii)          (i)           (iii)

    67. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Names of Books)

    List - II (Names of Authors)

    (a) Human Universals

    (b) The Social Conquest of the Earth

    (c) Not By Gene Alone

    (d) Coevolution

    (i) W.H. Durham

    (ii) Donald E. Brown

    (iii) Edward O-Wilson

    (iv) Peter J. Richerson

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (2) (iv)   (i)           (ii)          (iii)

    (3) (ii)    (iii)          (iv)         (i)

    (4) (iii)   (iv)         (i)           (ii)

    Click here to know 7 Last Minute Tips to crack NTA UGC NET Dec 2018 Online Exam

    68. In India, how many are the officially recognised languages?

    (1) 20

    (2) 21

    (3) 22

    (4) 23

    69. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Religious Community)

    List - II (Population Share (%), 2011)

    (a) Christian

    (b) Buddhist

    (c) Sikhs

    (d) Jains

    (i) 1.7

    (ii) 0.4

    (iii) 2.3

    (iv) 0.7

    Code:

         (a) (b) (c)  (d)

    (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

    (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

    (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

    (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

    70. Which of the following characteristic features are possessed by the nordic race of India?

    (1) Long stature and round face

    (2) Medium stature and round face

    (3) Medium stature and long face

    (4) Long stature and long face

    71. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the selection indicators for conducting any study of development process?

    (1) Either input or output indicators must be selected.

    (2) Negative and positive indicators must not be clubbed with each other.

    (3) Indicators must emerge out of the concept of development defined in the study.

    (4) Indicators of income and expenditure can be clubbed together.

    72. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Name of City)

    List - II (Period of being planned)

    (a) Kanchipuram

    (b) Jaisalmer

    (c) Kodaikanal

    (d) Bhilai

    (i) Post-Independence

    (ii) Colonial

    (iii) Medieval

    (iv) Ancient

    Code:

         (a) (b) (c)  (d)

    (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

    (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

    (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

    (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

    73. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): The partition of India in 1947 provided an impetus for town planning activities in the country.

    Reason (R): Resettlement of displaced persons and providing them employment opportunities created a big opportunity before the town planners to construct new town and make provision of amenities and facilities in existing towns especially in north Indian states.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    Click here to know the UGC NET Exam Previous Year Cut-Off Marks

    74. Which one of the following criteria was used to demarcate 15 agro-climatic regions, which were accepted by the Planning Commission of India (now NITI Aayog) to initiate regional approach to agricultural planning during the Eighth Five-Year Plan?

    (1) Climate, soil characteristics, and rainfall

    (2) Climate, soil characteristics, and water availability

    (3) Climate, soil characteristics, rainfall and water availability

    (4) Climate, cropping pattern, rainfall and water availability

    75. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Name of scholars developed scheme for delineation of Planning Regions)

    List - II (Number of Meso regions)

    (a) Bhat and Prakasarao

    (b) P. Sengupta

    (c) C.S. Chandrasekhar

    (d) V. Nath

    (i) 42

    (ii) 35

    (iii) 48

    (iv) 51

    Code:

         (a) (b) (c)  (d)

    (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

    (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

    (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

    (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

    76. Which one of the following criteria was used to delineate the National Capital Region for planning purpose?

    (1) Functional unity and Physiographic characteristics.

    (2) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and demographic characteristics.

    (3) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and distance from New Delhi.

    (4) Functional unity, Physiographic and demographic characteristics and Administrative contiguity.

    77. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Dimension of development)

    List - II (Indicator of development)

    (a) Economic

    (b) Social

    (c) Political

    (d) Ecological and Environmental

    (i) Percentage of reclaimed land to total waste land

    (ii) Percentage of minority voters to total minority electorates

    (iii) Percentage of female literates to total female population

    (iv) Agriculture production per hectare

    Code:

          (a) (b) (c) (d)

    (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

    (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

    (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

    (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

    78. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of development?

    (1) Development is a continuous process.

    (2) Development is a multi-faceted process.

    (3) Development stands for growth without a change.

    (4) Meaning of development change in time and space.

    79. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) A Perspective Plan may also be termed as long term plan.

    (b) Perspective Plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years.

    (c) A Perspective Plan do not ensure flexibility.

    (d) Perspective Plans ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.

    Code:

    (1) Only (a) is correct

    (2) (a) and (b) are correct

    (3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

    (4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

    80. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Statements:

    (a) Summation of ranks method is best suited to measure development levels, when data used are highly skewed.

    (b) Summation of ranks method is quite simple and easy to handle.

    (c) Z-Score method is the robust and most reliable among all the methods used to measure levels of development.

    (d) Use of Principal Component Analysis method should be avoided if inter-correlation among different components of development weak or doubtful.

    Code:

    (1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

    (2) (a) and (b) are corrrect

    (3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

    (4) (b) and (d) are correct

    Click here to know the answers of Frequently Asked Questions for NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam

    81. Which one of the following countries holds the first rank in commercial dairy farming?

    (1) USA

    (2) India

    (3) China

    (4) Pakistan

    82. Which one of the following years the modern cotton textile mill was first of all established in Maharashtra?

    (1) 1850

    (2) 1854

    (3) 1858

    (4) 1862

    83. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Name of Dams)

    List - II (States)

    (a) Mayurkashi

    (b) Mettur

    (c) Nagarjunsagar

    (d) Hirakund

    (i) Tamil Nadu

    (ii) Andhra Pradesh

    (iii) Odisha

    (iv) West Bengal

    Code:

          (a) (b) (c) (d)

    (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

    (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

    (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

    (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

    84. Which one of the following dates is correct for the normal withdrawl of south-west monsoon from Indian territory?

    (1) September, 1

    (2) September, 5

    (3) September, 10

    (4) September, 15

    85. Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is known for which one of the following ore deposits?

    (1) Bauxite

    (2) Anthracite

    (3) Magnetite

    (4) Muscovite

    86. Who among the following architect-planner prepared Master Plan for Chandigarh City?

    (1) Charles Correa

    (2) Frank Lloyd Wright

    (3) Edwin Lutyens

    (4) Le-Corbusier

    87. Jharkhand ranks third after which one of the following group of states in the availability of coal reserves in India?

    (1) West Bengal and Chhatisgarh

    (2) Odisha and Chhatisgarh

    (3) Odisha and West Bengal

    (4) Chhatisgarh and Karnataka

    88. Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is famous for:

    (1) Engineering and Machine tools

    (2) Wool Textiles

    (3) Automobile and Autocomponents

    (4) Dairy products

    89. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (States)

    List - II (Per Capita SGDP in, 000 Rs.; 2015-16)

    (a) Haryana

    (b) Karnataka

    (c) Kerala

    (d) Punjab

    (i) 156

    (ii) 115

    (iii) 180

    (iv) 146

    Code:

         (a) (b) (c)  (d)

    (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

    (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

    (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

    (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

    90. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): India has not been able to bridge its trade deficity.

    Reason (R): India’s exports in terms of value has been declining.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    91. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

    List - I (Map Type)

    List - II (Information Content)

    (a) Chorochromatic

    (b) Choroschematic

    (c) Choropleth

    (d) Isopleth

    (i) showing regional variation in distribution by shades

    (ii) areal distribution by Tints

    (iii) showing imaginary lines joining places of equal value

    (iv) areal distribution by symbols

    Code:

         (a) (b) (c)  (d)

    (1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

    (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

    (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

    (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

    92. On a topographical map of 1: 50,000 scale the contour Interval is given as 10 meters. Place ‘A’ is situated on a contour of 200 m MSL and another place ‘B’ is located on a countour of 240 m MSL. The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ on the map is 4.0 cms. The correct gradiant between ‘A’ and ‘B’ therefore would be:

    (1) 1/30

    (2) 1/40

    (3) 1/50

    (4) 1/60

    Click here to know the Eligibility Criteria for NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam

    93. Which one of the following codes is correct Rn value of the given distribution of 6 settlements of an area of gentle topography?

    (1) 0.95

    (2) 1.45

    (3) 1.63

    (4) 1.86

    94. Which one of the following organisations looks after the receiving and processing of remote sensing data in India?

    (1) SHAR Centre

    (2) SDS Centre

    (3) LPS Centre

    (4) NRSC

    95. Which one of the following is the correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

    (1) Blue-Green-Red-Ultraviolet

    (2) Red-Blue-Green-Ultraviolet

    (3) Ultraviolet-Blue-Green-Red

    (4) Ultraviolet-Green-Blue-Red

    96. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

    Assertion (A): Radars are Considered active sensors.

    Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

    97. A set of sample of 20 places of mean annual rainfall were randomly selected from a normally distributed universe that has mean annual rainfall of 320 cm. The sample mean was recorded 250 cm with standard deviation of 150 cm. Which one of the following significance tests is correct for the selected samples?

    (1) Z - test

    (2) χ2 - test

    (3) F - test

    (4) t - test

    100. Which one of the following scales is correctly measure the rank-size distribution of settlements?

    (1) Nominal

    (2) Ordinal

    (3) Interval

    (4) Ratio

    Answer Key:-

    Q. No.

    Answer

    Q. No.

    Answer

    1

    3

    51

    4

    2

    3

    52

    2

    3

    3

    53

    2

    4

    2

    54

    1

    5

    2

    55

    4

    6

    3

    56

    3

    7

    1

    57

    2

    8

    3

    58

    2

    9

    1

    59

    4

    10

    4

    60

    2

    11

    2

    61

    2

    12

    1

    62

    1

    13

    1

    63

    2

    14

    3

    64

    3

    15

    2

    65

    3

    16

    2

    66

    2

    17

    4

    67

    4

    18

    2

    68

    3

    19

    4

    69

    3

    20

    1

    70

    4

    21

    2

    71

    1

    22

    1

    72

    4

    23

    1

    73

    1

    24

    1

    74

    4

    25

    3

    75

    4

    26

    1

    76

    4

    27

    2

    77

    4

    28

    1

    78

    3

    29

    4

    79

    4

    30

    1

    80

    1

    31

    2

    81

    1

    32

    3

    82

    2

    33

    1

    83

    1

    34

    1

    84

    1

    35

    2

    85

    4

    36

    3

    86

    4

    37

    3

    87

    2

    38

    4

    88

    3

    39

    2

    89

    1

    40

    4

    90

    3

    41

    3

    91

    3

    42

    3

    92

    3

    43

    2

    93

    1

    44

    1

    94

    4

    45

    2

    95

    3

    46

    4

    96

    1

    47

    2

    97

    4

    48

    3

    98

    2

    49

    2

    99

    2

    50

    2

    100

    4

    Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam.

    Register to get FREE updates

      All Fields Mandatory
    • (Ex:9123456789)
    • Please Select Your Interest
    • Please specify

    • ajax-loader
    • A verifcation code has been sent to
      your mobile number

      Please enter the verification code below

    This website uses cookie or similar technologies, to enhance your browsing experience and provide personalised recommendations. By continuing to use our website, you agree to our Privacy Policy and Cookie Policy. OK
    X

    Register to view Complete PDF