Jagran Josh Logo
  1. Home
  2. |  
  3. UPSC|  

UPSC NDA & NA (I) Exam 2017: Question Paper & Answer Key

Apr 24, 2017 14:25 IST

    The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the NDA & NA (I) Exam on 23 April 2017. The exam consisted of two papers – Mathematics and General Ability. For the benefit of the students, the Jagran Josh is providing  the NDA (I) 2017 Question Paper and the Answer Key as prepared by the experts.

     

    UPSC NDA & NA (I) Question Paper Answer Key

                                                 Image Source:  National Defence Academy

    General Ability Paper – English Section-Answer Key

    SPOTTING ERRORS

    Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

    Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

    NDA IAS 23rd Exam 2017

    Ans. (c) his conduct was discussed

    UPSC NDA & NA Exam Question Papers (2005-17) & Answer Keys

    COMPREHENSION

    Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

    In this section, you have two short passages. Read the passages and answer the items that follow. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

    Passage – 1

    We had just passed Tenali, where I roused myself in order to hear the name of the station. As I was falling asleep again, a violent jolt shot me into the arms of somebody in the seat opposite. The engine with one wheel broken was lying across the track and beside it was the luggage van, likewise, derailed. Groaning, wheezing, gasping, sputtering in its death agony, the engine was like a fallen horse which, snorting, trembling in every limb, its flanks heaving, its chest laboring, seems incapable of making the smallest effort to struggle on to its legs again.

    6. The author had roused himself as he wanted to

    (a) get off

    (b) meet someone

    (c) know the name of the station

    (d) keep himself awake

    Ans. (c) know the name of the station

    7. The engine stopped because

    (a) the driver had stopped it

    (b) one of the wheels was broken

    (c) there was a… 

    (d) there was no fuel

    Ans.(b) one of the wheels was broken

    8. The engine is compared to a fallen horse because

    (a) it was groaning like a horse

    (b) it was lying across the track

    (c) it could make no effort to stand upright

    (d) it had a broken wheel

    Ans. (c) it could make no effort to stand upright

    Passage – 2

    I was beginning to tire a little now. I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours, and Tenzing, too, was moving very slowly. As I chipped steps around still another corner, I wondered rather dully just how long we could keep it up. Our original zest had now quite gone and it was turning more into a grim struggle. I then realized that the ridge ahead, instead of still monotonously rising, now dropped sharply away, and far below I could see the North Col and Rongbuk glacier. I looked upwards to see a narrow ridge running up to a snowy summit. A few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow and we stood on top.

    9. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the area in which the narrator had been moving ?

    (a) A steep rocky slope

    (b) A peak with a flight of steps

    (c) A high peak covered with snow

    (d) A long ridge

    Ans. (c) A high peak covered with snow

    10. ‘I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours’ suggests that

    (a) the climber was unskilled in the art of making steps

    (b) he had to cut the steps out of snow before climbing up which was necessarily a slow process

    (c) the slowness was caused by the fact that as soon as he cut the steps they were again covered with snow

    (d) he had to work suspended from a ledge

    Ans. (b) he had to cut the steps out of snow before climbing up which was necessarily a slow process

    11. ‘It was turning more into a grim struggle’ would mean

    (a) that after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature

    (b) that Tenzing was making the task more difficult

    (c) that strong cold wind was pushing him down from above and that he had to struggle with the forces of nature

    (d) that he was in a mood to give up ultimately

    Ans. (a) that after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant  a hard struggle with the forces of nature

    SELECTING WORDS

    Directions for the following 10 (ten) items:

    Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    12. I _________ you to be at the party this evening.

    (a) look forward to

    (b) hope

    (c) expect

    (d) think

    Ans. (c) expect

    13. When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I _________ him since Christmas.

    (a) saw

    (b) have seen

    (c) had seen

    (d) have been seeing

    Ans. (c) had seen

    14. He ________ to listen to my arguments and walked away.

    (a) denied

    (b) disliked

    (c) prevented

    (d) refused

    Ans. (d) refused

    15. The flow of blood was so ________ that the patient died.

    (a) intense

    (b) adequate

    (c) profuse

    (d) extensive

    Ans. (c) profuse

    16. You have never __________ me about your experiences in America.

    (a) said

    (b) told

    (c) explained

    (d) spoken

    Ans. (b) told

    17. I always felt hungry _________ I heard the dinner bell.

    (a) as much as

    (b) as well as

    (c) as soon as

    (d) as close as

    Ans. (c) as soon as

    18. Although they took every precaution, they could not ________ the accident.

    (a) defer

    (b) allow

    (c) avoid

    (d) block

    Ans. (c) avoid

    19. The ambitious nobleman __________ to marry the king’s daughter.

    (a) transpired

    (b) perspired

    (c) aspired

    (d) expired

    Ans. (c) aspired

    20. The dictator of that country was a monster of wickedness, insatiable in his _________ for blood and plunder.

    (a) idea

    (b) vision

    (c) lust

    (d) intention

    Ans. (c) lust

    21. Please don’t give me any more, I have had _________.

    (a) few

    (b) too little

    (c) little

    (d) enough

    Ans. (d) enough

    ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

    Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:

    Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) P Q S R

    (d) R P Q S

    Ans. (c) P Q S R

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q S R

    (b) P Q R S

    (c) P S Q R

    (d) R S P Q

    Ans. (a) P Q S R

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) Q R P S

    (d) Q P R S

    Ans. (a) P  Q R S

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) P Q S R

    (d) R P Q S

    Ans. (c) P Q S R

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) R Q S P

    (b) P S Q R

    (c) R S P Q

    (d) P Q S R

    Ans. (b) P S Q R

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) R S P Q

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) S Q R P

    (d) Q P S R

    Ans. (b) P R Q S

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q S R

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) P S Q R

    (d) P Q R S

    Ans. (d) P Q R S

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) P Q S R

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) P R Q S

    Ans. (b) P Q S R

    NDA Exam 2017

    The proper sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) Q P R S

    (d) Q S P R

    Ans. (b) P R Q S

    SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT

    Directions for the following 10 (ten) items:

    In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

    31. I disliked him not so much for his meanness but for his dishonesty.

    (a) as for

    (b) but because

    (c) but due to

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) but due to

    32. He preferred death rather than imprisonment.

    (a) for

    (b) to

    (c) than

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (b) to

    33. They kept the idea secretly.

    (a) secretive

    (b) secret

    (c) secretively

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) secretively

    34. He ought not to tell me your secret, but he did.

    (a) telling

    (b) have told

    (c) having told

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (b) have told

    35. If I don’t know the meaning of a word, I look it after in the dictionary

    (a) look it out

    (b) look it for

    (c) look it up

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) look it up

    36. Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every evening.

    (a) at home

    (b) inside home

    (c) within their home

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (a) at home

    37. When we saw him last, he ran to catch a bus.

    (a) has run

    (b) had run

    (c) was running

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) was running

    38. She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage.

    (a) made a sorry figure

    (b) cut a sorry face

    (c) cut a sorry figure

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) cut a sorry figure

    39. Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles.

    (a) a spectacle

    (b) two spectacles

    (c) a pair of spectacles

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) a pair of spectacles

    40. I would like to avail a fifteen days’ holiday this summer.

    (a) to avail of

    (b) to avail myself of

    (c) to avail myself

    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) to avail myself

    ANTONYMS

    Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

    In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    41. My first lecture in the classroom was a fiasco.

    (a) success

    (b) joy

    (c) fun

    (d) disaster

    Ans. (a) success

    42. It was indeed arduous to cross streets in New York.

    (a) pleasant

    (b) effortless

    (c) interesting

    (d) risky

    Ans. (b) effortless

    43. Unlike his brother, he is affable.

    (a) reserved

    (b) gullible

    (c) irritable

    (d) lovable

    Ans. (c) irritable

    44. The birth of his child decidedly proved to be an auspicious event in his life.

    (a) precious

    (b) ominous

    (c) useless

    (d) unforgettable

    Ans. (b) ominous

    45. The witness corroborated word for word the statement of the victim.

    (a) accepted

    (b) confirmed

    (c) denied

    (d) repeated

    Ans. (c) denied

    SYNONYMS

    Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

    In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    46. It is unwise to sever diplomatic relations with a neighbouring country over small matters.

    (a) engage

    (b) estrange

    (c) cut off

    (d) twist

    Ans. (c) cut off

    47. Bad tendencies are to be countered by good ones until all that is evil disappears.

    (a) opposed

    (b) balanced

    (c) reduced

    (d) bypassed

    Ans. (a) opposed

    48. The police fired indiscriminately at the crowd, killing many innocent women and children.

    (a) continuously

    (b) without distinguishing

    (c) foolishly

    (d) rapidly

    Ans. (b) without distinguishing

    49. Businessmen who lack acumen cannot be expected to be very successful.

    (a) fairness

    (b) sharpness

    (c) boldness

    (d) righteousness

    Ans. (b) sharpness

    50. His candid opinions have won him many friends.

    (a) kind

    (b) courteous

    (c) generous

    (d) frank

    Ans. (d) frank

                                                                                                                          PART –B

    51. Which one of the following statements regarding King Krishnadevaraya is NOT correct?

    (a) He was a great scholar of Telugu and Sanskrit

    (b) Foreign travelers Paes and Nuniz visited his court

    (c) Barbosa praised him for the great justice and equity prevailing in his empire

    (d) He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit

    Ans. (d) He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit

    52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Amendment to the Constitution of India)    List II (Subject)

    A. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985                           1. Reduction of voting age from 21 to 18

    B. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992                            2. Right to Education

    C. 61st Amendment Act, 1988                            3. Panchayati Raj

    D. 86th Amendment Act, 2006                            4. Disqualification on grounds of defection

    Code:

     

    A

    B

    C

    D

    (a)

    4

    1

    3

    2

    (b)

    4

    3

    1

    2

    (c)

    2

    3

    1

    4

    (d)

    2

    1

    3

    4

    Ans. (b) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

    53. Which one of the following was NOT a cause of the Revolt of 1857?

    (a) The rumour that the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour being sold in the market

    (b) The prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on 23rd June, 1857

    (c) Popular discontent with British rule

    (d) The prophecy that the end of British rule would lead to the end of the Kali Yuga and the return of Ram Rajya

    Ans. (b) The prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on 23rd June, 1857

    54. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of the Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley?

    (a) The British were responsible for protecting the ally from any external threats

    (b) All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British

    (c) The ally was to provide resources for maintaining a British armed contingent stationed in its territory

    (d) The ally could not enter into any agreement with other rulers without the permission of the British

    Ans. (b) All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British

    55. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the List:

    List I (Place)            List II (Mineral)

    A. Lakwa                  1. Copper

    B. Malanjkhand         2. Petroleum

    C. Kalakot                3. Zinc

    D. Zawar                  4. Coal

    Code:
         A    B    C    D

    (a) 3    4    1    2

    (b) 3    1    4    2

    (c) 2     1    4    3

    (d) 2    4    1    3

    Ans. (c) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

    56. Which of the following are the major coral reef areas of India?

    1. Gulf of Kachchh

    2. Gulf of Mannar

    3. Lakshadweep

    4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 and 4 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    57. Which of the following regions is/are NOT known for cotton-textile industry?

    1. Mumbai – Pune region

    2. Madurai – Coimbatore region

    3. Dhanbad – Jamshedpur region

    4. Indore – Ujjain region

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 3

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1, 2 and 4

    (d) 3 only

    Ans. (d) 3 only

    58. Which one of the following States does NOT have the Headquarters of any Railway Zone?

    (a) Jharkhand

    (b) Chhattisgarh

    (c) Odisha

    (d) Bihar

    Ans. (a) Jharkhand

    59. Suppose a rod is given a negative charge by rubbing it with wool. Which one of the following statements is correct in this case?

    (a) The positive charges are transferred from rod to wool

    (b) The positive charges are transferred from wool to rod

    (c) The negative charges are transferred from rod to wool

    (d) The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod

    Ans. (d) The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod

    60. Which one of the following is the correct relation between frequency f and angular frequency ω?

    (a) f = πω

    (b) ω = 2πf

    (c) f = 2ω/π

    (d) f = 2πω

    Ans. (b) ω = 2πf

    61. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer both give the same reading for a certain sample. What would be the corresponding reading in a Celsius thermometer?

    (a) 574

    (b) 301

    (c) 273

    (d) 232

    Ans. (b) 301

    62. If the potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is doubled while keeping the separation between the filament and the target as same, what will happen to the cutoff wavelength?

    (a) Will remain same

    (b) Will be doubled

    (c) Will be halved

    (d) Will be four times of the original wavelength

    Ans. ()

    NDA Exam 2017

    (All symbols have their usual meanings)

    (a) The quantity G depends on the local value of g, acceleration due to gravity

    (b) The quantity G is greatest at the surface of the Earth

    (c) The quantity G is used only when earth is one of the two masses

    (d) The quantity G is a universal constant

    Ans. ()

    64. Why is it difficult to measure the coefficient of expansion of a liquid than solid?

    (a) Liquids tend to evaporate at all temperatures

    (b) Liquids conduct more heat

    (c) Liquids expand too much when heated

    (d) Their containers also expand when heated

    Ans. ()

    65. Radon is

    (a) an inert gas

    (b) an artificial fibre

    (c) an explosive

    (d) a metal

    Ans. (a) an inert gas

    66. The chemical name of baking soda is

    (a) Na2CO3

    (b) NaHCO3

    (c) CaCO3

    (d) NaOH

    Ans. (b) NaHCO3

    67. Which one of the following elements is used in pencil-lead?

    (a) Zinc

    (b) Lead

    (c) Carbon (Graphite)

    (d) Tin

    Ans. (c) Carbon (Graphite)

    68. Who among the following is one of the authors of the book “Philosophy of the Bomb?”

    (a) Bhagat Singh

    (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

    (c) Surya Sen

    (d) Yashpal

    Ans. (a) Bhagat Singh

    69. Which of the following statements about the Chittagong group is NOT correct?

    (a) Its membership included a large number of youth including Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Baul and Anant Singh

    (b) Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before joining the group

    (c) Surya Sen and his group were closely associated with Congress work in Chittagong

    (d) This group had prepared an action plan to occupy the armouries in Chittagong

    Ans. (b) Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before joining the group

    70. Which one of was the significant feature of the quit India Movement?

    (a) Women did not play an important role in the movement

    (b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement

    (c) It was marked by anti-zamindar violence

    (d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India

    Ans. (d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India

    71. Which one of the following devices changes low voltage alternating current to high voltage alternating current and vice versa?

    (a) Generator

    (b) Motor

    (c) Transformer

    (d) Vibrator

    Ans. (c) Transformer

    72. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summers is based on the principle of

    (a) Reflection

    (b) Interference

    (c) Dispersion

    (d) Total internal reflection

    Ans. (d) Total internal reflection

    73. At which place Earth’s magnetic field becomes horizontal?

    (a) Magnetic meridian

    (b) Magnetic equator

    (c) Geographical pole

    (d) Tropic of Cancer

    Ans. (b) Magnetic equator

    74. The speed of a car travelling on a straight road is listed below at successive intervals of 1 s:

    Time (s)         0    1    2    3    4

    Speed (m/s)   0    2    4    6    8

    Which of the following is/are correct ?

    The car travels

    1. with a uniform acceleration of 2 m/s2.

    2. 16 m in 4 s.

    3. with an average speed of 4 m/s.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1 only

    Ans. ()

    75. The speed of a body that has Mach number more than 1 is

    (a) supersonic

    (b) subsonic

    (c) 300 m/s

    (d) about 10 m/s

    Ans. (a) supersonic

    76. Molecules of which of the following has cage like structure?

    1. Diamond

    2. Graphite

    3. Fullerenes

    Select the correct answer from the options given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 3 only

    Ans. (a) 1,2 and 3

    77. Temporary hardness in water is due to which one of the following of Calcium and Magnesium?

    (a) Hydrogencarbonates

    (b) Carbonates

    (c) Chlorides

    (d) Sulphates

    Ans. (a) Hydrogencarbonates

    78. Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning pain. This is due to the injection of

    (a) Acetic acid

    (b) Methanoic acid

    (c) Sulphuric acid

    (d) Hydrochloric acid

    Ans.

    79. Which one of the following elements is least reactive with water?

    (a) Lithium

    (b) Sodium

    (c) Potassium

    (d) Cesium

    Ans. (a) Lithium

    80. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

    (a) Electron

    (b) Proton

    (c) Nucleus

    (d) Helium

    Ans. (c) Nucleus

    81. Glass is a

    (a) liquid

    (b) colloid

    (c) non-crystalline amorphous solid

    (d) crystalline solid

    Ans. (c) non-crystalline amorphous solid

    82. Cell wall of any fungus is different from plants in having

    (a) cellulose

    (b) chitin

    (c) cholesterol

    (d) glycogen

    Ans. (a) cellulose

    83. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease of humans and other animals. It is caused by

    (a) Histomonas

    (b) Trypanosoma

    (c) Angomonae

    (d) Naegleria

    Ans. (b) Trypanosoma

    84. Which one of the following agencies enforces the laws on food security in India?

    (a) FDA

    (b) WHO

    (c) FSSAI

    (d) FAO

    Ans. (c) FSSAI

    85. Dengue virus attacks these blood cells.

    (a) Monocytes

    (b) Platelets

    (c) Eosinophils

    (d) Neutrophils

    Ans. (a) Monocytes

    86. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    (a) All proteins are enzymes

    (b) Mostly enzymes are proteins

    (c) All fats are energy rich compounds

    (d) Glucose is a common carbohydrate

    Ans. (b) Mostly enzymes are proteins

    87. Sugarcane is one of the important cash crops in India. It is grown to obtain

    (a) Starch

    (b) Glucose

    (c) Fructose

    (d) Sucrose

    Ans. (d) Sucrose

    88. The colourful part of the Sunflower or Marigold plant is

    (a) Flower

    (b) Inflorescence

    (c) Fruit

    (d) Seed

    Ans. (b) Inflorescence

    89. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Mineral)          List II (Leading State)

    A. Manganese             1. Uttarakhand

    B. Gypsum                   2. Karnataka

    C. Limestone               3. Rajasthan

    D. Magnesite               4. Odisha

    Code:

          A     B     C    D

    (a) 1     3     2      4

     

    (b) 1     2     3      4

    (c) 4     2      3     1

    (d) 4     3      2     1

    Ans. (d) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

    90. Which one among the following is the correct order of tiger reserves situated from North to South in India?

    (a) Corbett – Simlipal – Sariska – Periyar

    (b) Periyar – Sariska – Simlipal – Corbett

    (c) Corbett – Sariska – Simlipal – Periyar

    (d) Periyar – Simlipal – Sariska – Corbett

    Ans. (c) Corbett – Sariska – Simlipal – Periyar

    91. Which of the following are correct with regard to Indian Monsoonal Rainfall?

    1. Largely governed by the topographical features

    2. Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of rainfall

    3. Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff

    4. Beginning and end of rain is regular and on time

    Select the correct answer from the options given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 3

    (c) 3 and 4 only

    (d) 2, 3 and 4

    Ans. (b) 1, 2 and 3

    92. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Type of climate)                                                List II (State)

    A. Monsoon with Short Dry Season (Amw)           1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

    B. Cold Humid Winter with Short Summer (Dfc)   2. Tamil Nadu Coast

    C. Monsoon with Dry Winter (Cwg)                         3. Arunachal Pradesh

    D. Monsoon with Dry Summer (As)                         4. Kerala and Karnataka Coast

    Code:

          A     B     C     D

    (a) 4      3     1     2

    (b) 4      1     3     2

    (c) 2      1     3    4

    (d) 2     3    1     4

    Ans. (a) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

    93. Which one of the following Himalayan rivers does NOT originate from across the Himalayas?

    (a) Indus

    (b) Satluj

    (c) Ganga

    (d) Brahmaputra

    Ans. (d) Brahmaputra

    94. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is Located at

    (a) Bhubaneswar

    (b) Kolkata

    (c) Hajipur

    (d) Guwahati

    Ans. (b) Kolkata

    95. Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in external trade for the year 2015-2016?

    (a) United States of America

    (b) United Kingdom

    (c) United Arab Emirates

    (d) China

    Ans. (a) United States of America

    96. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 20 cm. The refractive index of the glass is 1.5. What is the power of this lens (in units of dioptre)?

    (a) +7.5 D

    (b) ─7.5 D

    (c) +2.5 D

    (d) +5.0 D

    Ans. ()

    97. If the temperature of the room in which a simple pendulum is placed increases by 30°C, what will be the effect on the time period of the pendulum?

    (a) T will increase slightly

    (b) T will remain the same

    (c) T will decrease slightly

    (d) T will become more than 2 times

    Ans. ()

    98. Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure?

    (a) Angular momentum

    (b) Stress

    (c) Strain

    (d) Work

    Ans. (b) Stress

    99. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the material of electrical insulators?

    (a) They contain no electrons

    (b) Electrons do not flow easily through them

    (c) They are crystals

    (d) They have more number of electrons than the protons on their surface

    Ans. (b) Electrons do not flow easily through them

    100. Which one of the following physical quantities does NOT affect the resistance of a cylindrical resistor?

    (a) The current through it

    (b) Its length

    (c) The resistivity of the material used in the resistor

    (d) The area of cross-section of the cylinder

    Ans. (a) The current through it

    101. Kidney secretes an enzyme, which changes plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin. The enzyme is

    (a) Renin

    (b) Nitrogenase

    (c) Hydrolase

    (d) Mono-oxygenase

    Ans. (a) Renin

    102. Red blood cells (RBCs) have

    (a) no nucleus, no mitochondria and no endoplasmic reticulum

    (b) nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

    (c) nucleus, mitochondria but no endoplasmic reticulum

    (d) no mitochondria but endoplasmic reticulum is present

    Ans.

    103. According to the Census 2011, the density of population in which one among the following States is the lowest?

    (a) Sikkim

    (b) Nagaland

    (c) Manipur

    (d) Mizoram

    Ans. (d) Mizoram

    104. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in

    (a) Washington

    (b) Geneva

    (c) Moscow

    (d) London

    Ans. (b) Geneva

    105. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Industry)               List II (Place)

    A. Petrochemical            1. Coimbatore

    B. Aircraft                         2. Pinjore

    C. Machine tools             3. Bengaluru

    D. Cotton textiles            4. Bongaigaon

    Code:

          A    B    C     D

    (a) 4    3     2     1

    (b) 4    2     3     1

    (c) 1    2     3     4

    (d) 1    3     2     4

    Ans. (a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

    106. Consider the following statements pertaining to Coffee plantation in India:

    1. Need warm and moist climate with a spell of dry weather during the ripening period

    2. Rolling fields having good drainage

    3. Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding temperature 35°C

    4. Karnataka is the leading producer in India

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) 1 and 4 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 3

    (c) 3 and 4

    (d) 1, 2 and 4

    Ans.

    107. Dr. Urjit Patel, who has been appointed recently as Governor of Reserve Bank of India, was holding which position immediately prior to this appointment?

    (a) Chief Economist, IMF

    (b) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

    (c) Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India

    (d) Professor of Economics at Harvard University

    Ans. (b) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

    108. Who among the following personalities is NOT a governor of any Indian State?

    (a) Najma Heptulla

    (b) Ram Nath Kovind

    (c) Acharya Dev Vrat

    (d) Arvind Subramaniam

    Ans. (d) Arvind Subramaniam

    109. Which of the following cricket teams was defeated by India to lift the Women’s Twenty 20 Asia Cup 2016?

    (a) Bangladesh

    (b) Sri Lanka

    (c) Pakistan

    (d) Afghanistan

    Ans. (c) Pakistan

    110. Which one of the following was the venue of 2nd BRICS Youth Summit of the Ministers, Officials and Youth Delegations?

    (a) New Delhi

    (b) Mumbai

    (c) Shillong

    (d) Guwahati

    Ans. (d) Guwahati

    111. Which one among the following States of India has recently proposed to frame the first Internal Security Act to deal with the challenges of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and caste violence?

    (a) Maharashtra

    (b) Gujarat

    (c) Uttar Pradesh

    (d) Chhattisgarh

    Ans. (a) Maharashtra

    112. The World Humanitarian Day is being observed every year on which date?

    (a) 24 October

    (b) 19 August

    (c) 10 December

    (d) 8 March

    Ans. (b) 19 August

    113. Surge pricing takes place when a service provider

    (a) raises the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply

    (b) follows preset prices immune to demand and supply dynamics

    (c) fixes a minimum price for its services

    (d) fixes an average price on the basis of transactions carried over a day

    Ans. (a) raises the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply

    114. By fulfilling which of the following conditions can a political party claim the status of a national party?

    1. It secures at least six per cent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly

    2. It wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States or wins at least two per cent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States

    3. The party in question has got recognition as a state party in at least two states

    4. It must have its headquarters in New Delhi

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 2 and 4

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 3 and 4

    Ans. (c) 1 and 2 only

    115. In its emphasis on enhancing human capabilities, which one among the following does NOT figure in the Twelfth Five-Year Plan?

    (a) Life and longevity

    (b) Education

    (c) Delivery of Public Service

    (d) Skill development

    Ans.

    116. Which one of the following is NOT a target of the 12th Five-Year Plan?

    (a) Real GDP Growth Rate of 8 per cent

    (b) Agriculture Growth Rate of 5 per cent

    (c) Manufacturing Growth Rate of 10 per cent

    (d) Increase in green cover by 1 million hectare every year during the Plan period

    Ans.

    117. Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement?

    (a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement

    (b) It was not supported by the Congress

    (c) It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must retain control over Muslim sacred spaces in the erstwhile Ottoman empire

    (d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

    Ans. (b) It was not supported by the Congress

    118. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways in colonial India?

    (a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire

    (b) British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues

    (c) The construction work disturbed ecology

    (d) The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities

    Ans. (c) The construction work disturbed ecology

    119. Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904? “Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme”

    (a) Lord Curzon

    (b) H. H. Risley

    (c) Lord Minto

    (d) Sir Lancelot Hare

    Ans. (a) Lord Curzon

    120. Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February, 1928?

    (a) Mahatma Gandhi

    (b) Vallabhbhai Patel

    (c) Rajendra Prasad

    (d) Kalyanji Mehta

    Ans. (b) Vallabhbhai Patel

    121. Which one of the following Princely States did NOT support the Congress during the course of the Civil Disobedience Movement?

    (a) Bhavnagar

    (b) Mysore

    (c) Junagadh

    (d) Kathiawar

    Ans.

    122. Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam?

    (a) He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth

    (b) He believed in universal education

    (c) He believed that language had no role in inculcating morality in students

    (d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base

    Ans. (b) He believed  in universal education

    123. Name the calligrapher in Akbar’s court who was honoured with the title “Zarrin Kalam” or Golden Pen

    (a) Abul Fazl

    (b) Tansen

    (c) Muhammad Husayn

    (d) Muhammad Kasim

    Ans. (c) Muhammad Husayn

    124. Which one of the following sections of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is the longest in terms of route distance?

    (a) Delhi – Kolkata

    (b) Kolkata – Chennai

    (c) Chennai – Mumbai

    (d) Mumbai – Delhi

    Ans. (b) Kolkata-Chennai

    125. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Classification of resources)                               List II (Example)

    A. Basic inexhaustible resource                                 1. Hydel power

    B. Conventional non-renewable resource               2. Coal

    C. Non-conventional renewable resource               3. Solar energy

    D. Non-conventional non-renewable resource      4. Natural gas

    Code:

          A     B     C    D

    (a) 3     2     1     4

    (b) 3     1     2     4

    (c) 4     1     2     3

    (d) 4    2      1     3

    Ans. (a) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4

    126. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Mineral deposit)               List II (State)

    A. Gypsum                                 1. Odisha

    B. Graphite                                2. Gujarat

    C. Fluorspar                               3. Arunachal Pradesh

    D. Nickel                                     4. Rajasthan

    Code:

          A   B    C    D

    (a) 1    3    2    4

    (b) 1    2    3    4

    (c) 4    3    2     1

    (d) 4    2    3     1

    Ans. (c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

    127. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is NOT correctly matched?

    (a) Tharu        :  Madhya Pradesh

    (b) Adi            :  Arunachal Pradesh

    (c) Irula          :  Kerala

    (d) Shaharia  :   Rajasthan

    Ans. (a) Tharu : Madhya Pradesh

    128. If the absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively, what will be the ratio of velocity of light in glass and water?

    (a) 3 : 4

    (b) 4 : 3

    (c) 8 : 7

    (d) 8 : 9

    Ans.

    129. A positive charge ……… centre of a hollow ………. Radius a and outer radius b. The electric field at a distance r from the centre is denoted by E. In this regard, which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) E = 0 for a < r < b

    (b) E = 0 for r < a

    (c) E = q/4πε0r     for a < r < b

    (d) E = q/4 πε0a   for r < a

    Ans.

    130. Consider the following Indian States:

    1. Bihar

    2. Rajasthan

    3. Jammu and Kashmir

    4. Haryana

    Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above States on the basis of percentage of State’s population to total population of India (based on census 2011)?

    (a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

    (b) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

    (c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1

    (d) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1

    Ans. (c) 3-4-2-1

    131. Who among the following was the author of the Badshah Nama?

    (a) Abdul Hamid Lahori

    (b) Abul Fazl

    (c) Shah Jahan

    (d) Sadullah Khan

    Ans. (a) Abdul Hamid Lahori

    132. Which one of the following statements about Fatehpur Sikri is NOT correct?

    (a) It was located on the direct road to Ajmer

    (b) Akbar commissioned the building of a marble tomb for Sheikh Salim Chisti next to the Friday mosque at Fatehpur Sikri

    (c) The arched gateway or Bulund Darwaza was meant to remind visitors of the Mughal victory in Gujarat

    (d) In 1585, the capital of the Mughal emperor shifted from Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi

    Ans. (a) It was located on the direct road to Ajmer

    133. Which one of the following cities hosted the 3rd World Trauma Congress recently?

    (a) New Delhi

    (b) Dacca

    (c) Singapore

    (d) Bangkok

    Ans. (a) New Delhi

    134. Which one of the following is NOT one of the objectives of Act East Policy?

    (a) To promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region

    (b) To promote peace and amity with the neighbouring countries of Asia

    (c) To place emphasis on India- ASEAN cooperation in India’s domestic agenda

    (d) To provide enhanced connectivity to the North East of India

    Ans.

    135. Arrange the following countries in the ascending order on the basis of the total medals earned by them in Rio Olympic 2016.

    1. United States

    2. China

    3. Great Britain

    4. Russia

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2, 3, 4

    (b) 1, 3, 2, 4

    (c) 4, 3, 2, 1

    (d) 4, 3, 1, 2

    Ans. (c ) 4,3,2,1

    136. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016?

    (a) Establish an integrated eco-system which will lead to significant growth of civil aviation sector

    (b) To promote tourism, increase employment and lead to a balanced regional growth

    (c) Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors through the use of technology

    (d) Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure development

    Ans. (c) Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors through the use of technology

    137. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    (a) In the conduction mode of transference of heat, the molecules of solid pass heat from one molecule to another without moving from their positions

    (b) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance is called its specific heat capacity

    (c) The process of heat transfer in liquids and gases is through convection mode

    (d) The process of heat transfer from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature without heating the space between them is known as radiation

    Ans.

    138. The amount of heat required to change a liquid to gaseous state without any change in temperature is known as

    (a) specific heat capacity

    (b) mechanical equivalent of heat

    (c) latent head of vaporization

    (d) quenching

    Ans. (c) latent head of vaporization

    139. The following figure shows displacement versus time curve for a particle executing simple harmonic motion:

    UPSC NDA & NA (I) Question Paper Solved

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 1 s and t = 3 s

    (b) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 2 s and t = 8 s

    (c) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 3 s and t = 7 s

    (d) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 4 s and t = 10 s

    Ans.

    140. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Disease)               List II (Remedy)

    A. Hypermetropia         1. Concave lens

    B. Presbyopia                 2. Bifocal lens

    C. Myopia                       3. Surgery

    D. Cataract                     4. Convex lens

    Code:

          A    B    C    D

    (a) 4    2     1    3

    (b) 4    1     2    3

    (c) 3    1     2     4

    (d) 3    2     1    4

    Ans.

    141. A circular coil of single turn has a resistance of 20 Ω. Which one of the following is the correct value for the resistance between the ends of any diameter of the coil?

    (a) 5 Ω

    (b) 10 Ω

    (c) 20 Ω

    (d) 40 Ω

    Ans.

    142. In a solenoid, the current flowing through the wire is I and number of turns per unit length is n. This gives a magnetic field B inside the solenoid. If number of turn per unit length is increased to 2n, what will be the value of magnetic field in the solenoid?

    (a) B

    (b) 2B

    (c) B/2

    (d) B/4

    Ans.

    143. Which one of the following statements is correct about the magnification of an optical microscope?

    (a) Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

    (b) Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of objective

    (c) Magnification does not depend upon the focal length of eyepiece

    (d) Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

    Ans. (d) Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

    144. A homogeneous mixture contains two liquids. How are they separated?

    (a) By filtration

    (b) By evaporation

    (c) By distillation

    (d) By condensation

    Ans.

    145. Which one of the following elements forms highest number of compounds?

    (a) Oxygen

    (b) Hydrogen

    (c) Chlorine

    (d) Carbon

    Ans.

    146. Which one of the following elements corrodes rapidly?

    (a) Aluminium

    (b) Iron

    (c) Zinc

    (d) Silver

    Ans. (a) Aluminium

    147. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of water. What is the mass percentage of the salt in the solution?

    (a) 5%

    (b) 9%

    (c) 10%

    (d) 15%

    Ans. (c) 10%

    148. The valency of an element depends upon the

    (a) total number of protons in an atom

    (b) mass number of an atom

    (c) total number of neutrons in an atom

    (d) total number of electrons in the outer most shell of an atom

    Ans.

    149. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Noble gas)             List II (Use)

    A. Argon                            1. In lights for advertising display

    B. Neon                              2. Airport landing lights and in light houses

    C. Krypton                          3. Light in photographer’s flash gun

    D. Xenon                             4. In tungsten filament to last longer

    Code:
          A     B    C    D
    (a) 3     1     2    4
    (b) 3     2     1    4
    (c) 4     2     1     3
    (d) 4     1     2    3

    Ans. (d) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

    150. Colour vision in human eyes is the function of photoreceptor cells named

    (a) Rods

    (b) Cones

    (c) Blind spot

    (d) Fovea

    Ans. (a) Rods


    DISCLAIMER: JPL and its affiliates shall have no liability for any views, thoughts and comments expressed on this article.

    Latest Videos

    Register to get FREE updates

      All Fields Mandatory
    • (Ex:9123456789)
    • Please Select Your Interest
    • Please specify

    • ajax-loader
    • A verifcation code has been sent to
      your mobile number

      Please enter the verification code below

    Newsletter Signup
    Follow us on
    This website uses cookie or similar technologies, to enhance your browsing experience and provide personalised recommendations. By continuing to use our website, you agree to our Privacy Policy and Cookie Policy. OK
    X

    Register to view Complete PDF