UPPCS Mains Exam 2010 General Studies II Question Paper

The previous year question papers are very important from the exam point of view and UPPCS Exam is no exception to it.  UPPSC conduct the prestigious UPPCS Exam each year and it is the dream of various aspirants. The Previous Year Question Papers can guide the overall civil services preparation and can also help in predicting the UPPCS General Studies questions

The previous year question papers are very important from the exam point of view and UPPCS Exam is no exception to it.  UPPSC conduct the prestigious UPPCS Exam each year and it is the dream of various aspirants. The Previous Year Question Papers can guide the overall civil services preparation and can also help in predicting the UPPCS General Studies questions

For the convenience of UPPCS aspirants, here we are providing the Previous Year Question Paper of General Studies II of UPPCS Mains Examinations 2010.  

                              U.P.P.C.S. (Main) Examination - 2010

                    GENERAL STUDIES (SECOND PAPER)

[Time 2 hours]                                                                                   [M.M. 150]


1.Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria ?

(a) Athlete's toot                      (b) Tuberculosis

(c) Ringworm                           (d) Thrush

2. Angora wool is obtained from a breed of

(a) Sheep                                 (b) Fox

(c) Rabbit or Goat                     (d) Tibetan Deer

3. One out of every 200 babies born in India, dies of diarrhoea caused by :

(a) Bacteria                              (b) Rotavirus

(c) Amoeba                              (d) Fungus

4. Which one of the following varieties of dogs is unable to bark ?

(a) Dingo                                  (b) Alsatian

(c) Dalmatian                            (d) Labrador

5. The pulse in the human wrist beats

(a) faster than the heart

(b) slower than the heart

(c) at the same rate as the heart

(d) independently of the heart

6. Which of the following human organs is responsible for detoxication of alcohol?

(a) Liver                                     (b) Lung

(c) Heart                                    (d) Kidney

7. A geostationary satellite has a period of

(a) 6 hours                                 (b) 12 hours

(c) 18 hours                               (d) 24 hours

8. The concept of expanding universe is based on

(a) Doppler effect                        (b) Stark effect

(c) Zeeman effect                       (d) Raman effect

9. Which one of the following coolants is used in the fast breeder reactor at Kalpakkam ?

(a) Carbon dioxide                      (b) Heavy water

(c) Sea water                             (d) Liquid sodium

10. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Knot                -      Measure of speed of ship

(b) Nautical mile    -      Unit of distance used in navigation

(c) Angstrom        -      Unit of wavelength of light

(d) Light year        -      Unit of measuring time

11. INS- Shakti is India's first indigenously built

(a) Warship                                   (b) Submarine

(c) Destroyer                               (d) Rocket launcher

12. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a)    Cobalt-60             -    Treatment of cancer deep inside the body

(b)    Iodine-131            -    Treatment of Thyroid Cancer

(c)    Phosphorous-32    -    Treatment of Leukaemia

(d)    Gold-198              -    Treatment of retinal defects

13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles ?

(a) Plain                                     (b) Convex

(c) Concave                               (d) Cylindrical

14. Which one of the following statement is not correct?

(a) Mirage is an optical illusion arising due to total internal reflection of light

(b) Concave mirrors are used in search of lights

(c) In summer white or light coloured clothes are preferred to dark coloured clothes generally.

(d) Convex mirror with a small aperture is used by doctors to examine ear, nose or throat of a patient.

15. In the year 2009-10, which of the following countries accounted for largest share in exports from ?

(a) U.A.E.                                     (b) China

(c) U.S.A.                                    (d) Saudi Arabia

16. In the last one year i.e., June 2010 to June 2011, the difference between repo rate and reverse repo - rate is of the order of

(a) 0.25 percent                          (b) 0.50 percent

(c) 0.75 percent                          (d) 1.00 percent

17. "Skill Development Initiative" has been operationalised in

(a) February 2005                      (b) February 2005

(c) May 2007                             (d) April 2010

18. What is true for 'Kurukshetra' among the following ?

(a) It is a theatre company.

(b) It is a lead magazine for rural development.

(c) It is a cultural report of the Central Government

(d) It is a strategy for urbanising rural areas.

19. "Red Ribbon Express" is a visual and moving medium for

(a) awareness about AIDS

(b) awareness about Pulse Polio

(c) Programme for protecting girl child

(d) Programme for protecting all the children from malnutrition

20. India receives largest inflow of foreign capital in equity investment from

(a) U.S.A.                                   (b) Singapore

(c) Switzerland                           (d) Mauritius

21. Which of the following countries is not a member of Asian Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA) ?

(a) Lao PDR                               (b) China

(c) Myanmar                              (d) India

22. Which of the following crops is not covered under the National Food Security Mission ?

(a) Pulses                                   (b) Rice

(c) Wheat                                  (d) Coarse Cereals

23. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation and publication of "Economic Survey”?

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Ministry of Planning and Programme Imple¬mentation

(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Reserve Bank of India

24. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

         State                        Child sex ratio (2011)

(a) Uttar Pradesh        -            890

(b) Madhya Pradesh    -            912

(c)  ajasthan               -            880

(d) Bihar                     -            946

25. Which of the following States has lowest population density in 2011?

(a) Rajasthan                              (b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Gujarat                                  (d) Karnataka

26. Which of the following States of India has lowest literacy rate, as per provisional figures of census 2011?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh                  (b) Bihar

(c) Rajasthan                              (d) Jharkhand

27. According to the Index of Government Economic Power (IGEP), India's rank in 2009 was

(a) Second                                  (b) Tenth

(c) Fifth                                       (d) Sixth

28. Recently, a scheme named "Swabhimaan" was launched. It's main aim is

(a) to take banks to the doorsteps of the rural poor.

(b) to provide skill to rural artisans.

(c) to empower rural women.

(d) to provide houses to BPL families.

29. Which one of the following towns of Uttar Pradesh has been included under the scheme of "Town of Excellence " ?

(a) Kanpur                                    (b) Moradabad

(c) Aligarh                                     (d) Agra

30. In the Central Government budget 2011-12, a new category of "Very Senior Citizens" has been created for the purpose of Income Tax. This category covers the persons of age

(a) 70 years and above                 (b) 75 years and above

(c) 80 years and above                 (d) 85 years and above

31. Which of the following 'BRICS' nations has highest per capita income ?

(a) China                                       (b) India

(c) South Africa                             (d) Russian Federation

32. At the end of 2010, India's external debt had cross the mark of

(a) US $ 100 Billion                        (b) US $ 300 Billion

(c) US $ 500 Billion                        (d) US $ 1000 Billion

33. In the financial year 2010-11, the Government of India announced a "Maharatna" scheme for giving more autonomy and power to expand to some of its "Navratnas". Which among the following was not given Maharatna status ?

(a) Oil India                                 (b) NTPC

(c) SAIL                                      (d) Indian Oil Corporation

34. During 2006-2010, which of the following service sectors registered fastest growth in India ?

(a) Banking and Insurance

(b) Construction

(c) Transporation

(d) Communication

35. The multidimensional poverty index of UNDP includes

(a) 8 indicators                              (b) 10 indicators

(c) 12 indicators                            (d) 14 indicators

36. Which one of the following is not an objective of JNNURM ?

(a) Urban Electrification

(b) Urban Transport

(c) Development of Heritage area

(d) Sanitation and Sewage

37. Which among the following is providing least institutional credit to agriculture and allied activities in recent years ?

(a) Commercial Banks

(b) Foreign Private Banks

(c) Cooperative Banks

(d) Regional Rural Banks

38. RBI had set up a committee to study and give suggestions on the microfinace sector. It's Chairman was

(a) Y.H. Malegam                                   (b) Abid Hussain

(c) Bimal Jalan                                       (d) Rakesh Mohan

39. The Visa-on-Arrival Scheme (VoA) was started in the country in January 2010 on pilot basis. Which of the following countries, was not in this list in this year ?

(a) Japan                                               (b) Philippines

(c) Finland                                              (d) Singapore

40. In which of the following years, Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) had registered decline over the previous year in the country ?

(a) 2006-07                                           (b) 2007-08

(c) 2008-09                                           (d) 2009-10

41. Most recently, FDI has now been opened in which of the following sectors in India ?

(a) Gambling and beeting                        (b) Lottery business

(c) Chit fund and Nidhi                             (d) Retail trade

42. Which among the following are true for Central Sales Tax ?

(i) It is levied on interstate trade.

(ii) It is levied in the Union Territories.

(iii) It is levied in the SEZ.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below :


(a) only (i) and (ii)                           (b) only (i)

(c) only (ii) and (iii)                         (d) all the above

43. "Hariyali" is the programme associated with

(a) protection of rural environment

(b) provision of green fodder for animals

(c) a programme of support for watershed management

(d) a private initiation to create rural supply chain

44. The period of recommendations made by Thirteenth Finance Commission is

(a) 2009-14                                 (b) 2010-15

(c) 2007-12                                 (d) 2006-11

45. In which of the following years the subsidy as percent of GDP was the highest ?

(a) 2010-11                                  (b) 2009-10

(c) 2008-09                                  (d) 2007-08

46. Which among the following is the largest item of current revenue expenditure of Central Government in the year 2008-10?

(a) Grants to States and Union Territories

(b) Interest Payment

(c) Defence Expenditure

(d) Major Subsidies

47. Which among the following institutions regulates the external commercial borrowings ?

(a) SEBI

(b) Ministry of Finance

(c) Ministry of Commerce

(d) Reserve Bank of India

48. For which of the following States the share of services sector in State GDP has been largest in 2008- 09?

(a) Delhi                                    (b) Maharashtra

(c) Kerala                                  (d) Tamil Nadu

49. Which of the following States is covered under the National Horticulture Mission (NHM) ?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir              (b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Uttar Pradesh                        (d) Himachal Pradesh

50. By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years ?

(a) Sixty third Amendment

(b) Sixty second Amendment

(c) Sixty first Amendment

(d) Sixtieth Amendment

51.Who presides over the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament ?

(a) Speaker                                (b) Vice President

(c) President                              (d) Prime Minister

52. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, President's rule was imposed for the first time in

(a) Uttar Pradesh                      (b) Travancore-Cochin

(c) PEPSU                                 (d) Bihar

53. Which of the following words have been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment ?

I. Socialist                                  II. Gram Swarajya

III. Secular                                 IV. Sovereign

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:


(a) I, II, III                                  (b) I, III, IV

(c) I, II, IV                                 (d) II, III, IV

54. The political parties got the constitutional recognition for the first time in the year

(a) 1975                                  (b) 1977

(c) 1985                                  (d) 1995

55. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) Prohibition of Liquor

(b) Right to Work

(c) Equal pay for equal work

(d) Right to Information

56. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

(a) Union Public Service Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) Planning Commission

(d) Election Commission

57. Which one of the following statements about the President of India is not correct ?

(a) He is a constituent part of Parliament.

(b) He participates in the discussions in the two Houses.

(c) He addresses the two Houses at a joint meeting every year

(d) He can promulgate ordinances in certain situations.

58. Given below are two statements :

Assertion (A) : The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President.

Reason (R)    : The President's powers as Commander-in-Chief are independent of legislative Control.

In the context of the above, select the correct answer using the codes given below :


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

59. Which one of the following motions, the Council of Ministers in India can move ?

(a) No Confidence Motion

(b) Censure Motion

(c) Adjournment Motion

(d) Confidence Motion

60. Which one of the following conceptions is true about the Revolt of 1857?

(a) Indian historians have described ii as an Indian mutiny.

(b) British historians have described it as a war of independence.

(c) It gave a death blow to the system of East India Company's rule in India.

(d) It was for the improvement of the administrative machinery in India ?

61. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes special provision for which of the following State(s) ?

(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat

(b) Assam

(c) Nagaland

(d) Manipur

62. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the President ?

(a) Article 51                             (b) Article 52

(c) Article 53                              (d) Article 54

63. A Federal polity involves

1. Relations between Union & States.

2. Relations among States

3. Mechanism for resolving disputes.

Select your correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4                         (b) only 1, 2 and 3

(c) only 1, 2 and 4                      (d) only 2, 3 and 4

64. The Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission under Article

(a) 321                                      (b) 322

(c) 323                                      (d) 324

65. Consider the following statements and state which one of them is correct ?

(a) Supreme Court of India has only original jurisdiction.

(b) It has only original and appellate jurisdiction

(c) It has only advisory and appellate jurisdiction

(d) It has original, appellate as well as advisory jurisdiction

66. The framing of the Constitution of India was completed by

(a) January 26, 1950                     (b) November 26, 1949

(c) February 11, 1948                   (d) None of the above

67. Civil Society's representatives in the panel for drafting the Lok pal Bill include:

1. Anna Hazare                               2. Prashant Joshi

3. Santosh Hegde                           4. Kiran Bedi

5. Shanti Bhushan

Select your correct answser from the codes given below:

(a) only 1, 3, 4 and 5                          (b) only 2, 3 and 4

(c) only 1, 2 and 3                              (d) only 1, 3 and 5

68. Which of the following statements about the framing of the Indian Constitutions is correct?

1.Pt. Nehru's objective resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly had a bearing on the framing of the Constitution

2.The Preamble serves very important purposes.

3.The Constitution has been ordained by the people of India.

4.The Head of the State is elected directly by the people.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3                               (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4                               (d) All the four

69. Establishment of the Panchayati Raj system was recommended by

(a) The Government of India Act 1935

(b) The Cripps Mission of 1942.

(c) The Indian Independence Act 1947

(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report 1957.

70. The Guardian of Fundamental Rights is

(a) Judiciary                                            (b) Executive

(c) Parliament                                         (d) None of the above

71. In 2003, OBC status of Gurkhas was given in

(a) U.P.                                                   (b) Andhara Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra                                      (d) Uttarakhand

72. The Joint Parliamentary Committee Set up for probing the 2G spectrum issue, consists of

(a) 15 members from each of the two Houses.

(b) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(c) 18 members from Lok Sabha and 12 members from Rajya Sabha

(d) 16 members from Lok Sabha and 14 members from Rajya Sabha

73. The Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the 2G Scam is headed by

(a) Murali Manohar Joshi                           (b) P. Moily

(c) P. C. Chacko                                       (d) Sushma Swaraj

74. Which one of the following is not a correct situation of the status of a Central Council of Ministers at the time of their resignation ?

(a) President's rule will be imposed.

(b) The president will ask to continue till alternative arrangement.

(c) Alternative arrangement means earliest possible general election to be held to form a new Government.

(d) Outgoing Council of Ministers may have to hold charge till the formation of new Government.

75. Which one of the following is not an important and permanent constituent in the Constitutional History of India as adopted in the Government of India Act, 1935?

(a) A written Constitution for the country

(b) Elected representatives responsible to the Legislature

(c) Envisaging a scheme of Federation

(d) Nomination of official Members to the Legislature

76. Which one of the following is not covered by the Anti Defection Law ?

(a) En-bloc defections in a Party.

(b) Larger defection in a Party in various spell.

(c) Smaller defection in a single spell.

(d) Party members in Parliament casting vote either to topple or support a Government.

77. Which one of the following is not concerned with the Panchayats ?

(a) The State Election Commission will conduct Panchayat elections

(b) The Constitution (74lhAmendment) Act

(c) There shall be a fixed five year term for all the Panchayats.

(d) Fresh elections would have to be held within six months of the dissolution of a Panchayat.

78. The National Development Council (N.D.C.)

1. discusses the progress of the National plan.

2. suggests the ways to achieve goals of the National plane

3. gives guidelines to formulate the National plan.

4. suggests plane allocations

Select the correct answer from the codes give below :

Codes :

(a) 1, 2 and 3                          (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4                          (d) All the above

79. The President of India may declare the National Emergency if there is threat of:

1. External aggression                2. Internal disturbances

3. Armed rebellion                     4. Communal clashes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(a) 1 and 2 only                         (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only                         (d) 1 and 3 only

80. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason,.

Assertion (A)    : "Planning Commission has been defined as the economic cabinet" not merely for the Union but for the States also.

Reason (R) : It formulates the five year plans for the balanced utilization of natural resources.

In the context the above statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

81. Adhyaksh of a Zila Panchayat in U.P. is elected:

(a) directly by persons whose names appear in electoral rolls of the Kshetra Panchayats.

(b) by the members-of Zila Panchayat from among themselves.

(c) by the SC/ST members of the Zila Panchayat from among themselves (if reserved from them)

(d) by the members of Zila Panchayat belonging to Backward classes from among themselves (if reserved for them)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Code :

(a) 1 only                                    (b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4                             (d) 2, 3 and 4

82. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of the State Policy ?

(a) Uniform Civil Code

(b) Freedom of the Press

(c) Freedom of the Religion

(d) Equality before Law

83. In a Parliamentary system of the Government

(a) Judiciary controls Executive

(b) Executive controls Judiciary

(c) Executive controls Legislature

(d) Legislature controls Executive

84. Estimates Committee is constituted from the members of

(a) Both the Houses                     (b) The Rajya Sabha

(c) The Lok Sabha                        (d) None of these

85. Which one of the following points differentiate the Indian Parliamentary system from the British Parliamentary system ?

(a) Collective Responsibility

(b) Judicial Review

(c) Bicameral Legislature

(d) Real and nominal Executive

86. Power of the President to grant pardons etc. is a

(a) Legislative Power                     (b) Judicial Power

(c) Executive Power                      (d) None of the above

87. The stages in the normal financial legislation include:

1. Presentation of the Budget

2. Discussion on the Budget

3. Passing of Appropriation Bill

4. Vote on Account

5. Passing of the Finance Bill

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :


(a) 1, 2 and 3                            (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4                         (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

88. Right to vote and Right to be elected in India is a

(a) Constitutional Right ,

(b) Fundamental Right

(c) Legal Right under an Act

(d) None of the above

89. Which among the following States has the lowest number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha ?

(a) Chhattisgarh                         (b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Jharkhand                             (d) Jammu-Kashmir

90. Which one of the following was a leap year ?

(a) 1300                                     (b) 1100

(c) 1900                                      (d) 2000

91. If 450 students take an admission test for joining a Navodaya Vidyalaya of which 10% get average and 20% fail to get through . How many of examinees would get admitted to the school ?

(a) 310                                      (b) 315

(c) 300                                      (d) 410

92. What number will occur at the end of the following series ?


(a) 69                                        (b) 70

(c) 72                                        (d) 73

93. An individual is cycling at a speed of 25 km per hour. He catches his predecessor who had started earlier in two hours. What is the speed of his predecessor who had started 3 hours earlier ?

(a) 15 km per hour                  (b) 12 km per hour

(c) 10 km per hour                  (d) 8 km per hour

94. If a 36 inches long strip of cloth shrinks to 33 inches after being washed, how many inches long will the same strip remain remain after washing if it were 48 inches long ?

(a) 47 inches                     (b) 44 inches

(c) 45 inches                     (d) 46 inches

95. For natural numbers, the statement (a + b) + c = a + (b + c) is known as

(a) closure law                    (b) commutative law

(c) distributive law               (d) Associative law

96. Which of the following numbers is such that if divided by 13, yieras a remainder of 4 and when divided by 17, it leaves a remainder 11 ?

(a) 654                                 (b) 589

(c) 576                                 (d) 760

97. If the following words are arranged in proper sequence in terms of growth, with what letter will the middle word start ? Old age, infancy, youth, adolescence, childhood

(a) y                                     (b) c

(c) o                                     (d) a

98. If a, b, c are integers, then distributive law for multiplication over addition is

(a) a x (b + c) = (a x b) + c

(b) a + (b x c) = (a + b) x (a + c)

(c) a x (b + c) = (a x b) + (a x c) /

(d) a + (b x c) = (a + b) x c

99. Find out that number from the following whose square and square root are both even numbers and the square does not exceed three digits ?

(a) 8                              (b) 16

(c) 36                           (d) 64

100.What will be at the place of question mark in the following diagram ?

(a) 53                            (b) 60

(c) 44                            (d) 55

101. If the code of ABSENT is ZYHVMG, then the code of PRESENT will be

(a) KIHVHGM                  (b) KIVHVMG

(c) KITMHMG                 (d) GKITYTL

102. The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 24 cms and 10 cms. The perimeter of the rhomus is

(a) 72 cms                     (b) 68 cms

(c) 56 cms                     (d) 52 cms

106. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, then area of the circle will increase by

(a) 50%                         (b) 75%

(c) 100%                       (d) 125%

107. A sells his goods 10% cheaper than B and 10% dearer than C. A consumer of B saves by taking Rs. 180 wort of goods from C.

(a) Rs. 10                      (b) Rs. 20

(c) Rs. 40                      (d) Rs. 60

108. Which one of the following is different from the rest as a class ?

(a) Guitar                       (b) Flute

(c) Sarod                       (d) Veena

109 .A sum of Rs. 2,000 was lent partly at 6% and partly at 7%. The total simple interest received after 4 years was 532.The sum lent at 6% was

(a) Rs. 1.000                   (b) Rs. 900

(c) Rs. 800                       (d) Rs. 700

111. If the Mean and Median for a moderately asymmeric distribution are 15.6 and 15.73 respectively, then its Mode is

(a) 15.69                             (b) 15.80

(c) 15.99                             (d) 15.89

112. State which of the following variables are discrete variables :

Select your correct answer from the given code :

1. Marks scored (to the nearest unit) out of 50 in a test.

2. Daily temperature of your city

3. Sizes of Shoes.

4. Distance travelled by a man.


(a) only land 3                          (b) only 1 and 2

(c) only 2 and 3                        (d) only 3 and 4


114. Frequency polygon can be superimposed on a histogram by joining

(a) mid points of the upper side

(b) left end points of the upper side

(c) right end point of the upper side

(d) neither of these

115. The cut point of 'less than' and 'more than' cumulative frequency curves corresponds to the

(a) Mean                                (b) Median

(c) Mode                                (d)

116. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn, The number of ways that these are one King and one Queen, are

(a) 16                                    (b) 12

(c) 8                                      (d) 4

117. Find out arithmetic mean from the given table.

Class Interval













(a) 26.5                               (b) 26.0

(c) 25.5                               (d) 25.0

118. The average weight of 4 boys is 60 kg, the first weighs one fourth of the sum of the last three. The weight of the first boy in kg is :

(a) 15                                  (b) 45

(c) 48                                 (d) 51

119. The average score for boys and girls in Hindi are 63 and 67 respectively. The combined average is 64.S. The ratio of the number of girls (n,) and number of the boys (n2); i.e. (n,/n:) is

(a)       (b)

(c)      (d)

120. Find the value of x when the Mean of the following distribution is 31.87.
















(a) 41                                    (b) 42

(c) 43                                   (d) 45

121. A batsman in his 17th inning makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his average by 3. His average after 17th inning is  

(a) 37                                    (b) 35

(c) 33                                    (d) 31

122. Following number have been written in ascending order. Their Median is 190. Find the value f x.

                     20, 35, 50, 80, 100 + x, 200 + x, 340, 520, 800 and 1205

(a) 45                                     (b) 40

(c) 36                                      (d) None of these

123. State if the following statements are true or false. Find your correct answer from the given code :

(1) Standard deviation can never be negative.

(2) The sum of squared deviations measured from mean is least.

Codes :

(a) Both (1) and (2) are true.

(b) Both (1) and (2) are false.

(c) ( 1 ) is true, but (2) is false

(d) (1) is false, but (2) is true

124. A bag contains 20 tickets marked with numbers 1 to 20. One ticket is drawn at random. Find the probability that is will be multiple of 2 or 5.

(a) 0.7                               (b) 0.6

(c) 0.5                               (d) 0.4

125. There are 154 beads in a rosary and all are coloured, either 'red' or 'blue' or 'green'. The number of blue ones is three less than red and Five more than green ones. The number of red beads is

(a) 55                                 (b) 52

(c) 47                                 (d) 45

126. For the Mean (A). Median (M) and Mode (Mo), the correct relation is

(a) Mo = 3M-A                    (b) A-Mo = 3(A-M)

(c) M = 3Mo-2A                  (d) A = 3M - 2Mo

128. Two samples A and B have same standard deviations, but the Mean of A is greater then Mean of B. Then, the coefficient of variation of A is

(a) greater than that of B                      (b) less than that of B

(c) equal to that of B                            (d) none of these

129. The growth of non-aligned member countries for a certain period is an given below :

(Year)    : Y1 Y2 Y3 Y4 Y5 Y6 Y7

(Member)    : 25 47 54 75 86 94 99

The percentage increase in the members in Y7 compared to Y6 is

(a) 5.41                           (b) 5.32

(c) 5.11                           (d) 4.97

130. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

       List-I                            List-II

A. Alfred Nobel               1. Theory of Evolution

B. Alexander Fleming      2. Dynamite

C. Charles Darwin          3. Penicillin

D. Madame Curie           4. Isolation of radium


         A     B    C     D

(a)     1     2    3     4

(b)     2     3    1     4

(c)     3     2    1     4

(d)     1     4    3     2

132. Which one of the following sets makes the terminals of the ordinary torch cell ?

(a) Zinc        -   Carbon

(b) Copper   -    Zinc

(c) Zinc        -    Cadmium

(d) Carbon    -   Copper

133. Which one of the following explosives does not contain nitroglycerine as an essential constituent?

(a) Cordite                                         (b) Blasting Gelatine

(c) Dynamite                                      (d) Amatol

134. Which one of the following substances is used in photography and also as an antichlor ?

(a) Chrome red                                   (b) Sodium thiosulphate

(c) Hydrogen peroxide                         (d) Calomel

135. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Antipyretic               -    Paracetamol

(b) Antifoaming agent    -    Polyamides, silicones

(c) Antiseptic                 -    Aspirin

(d) Antirachitic               -    Calciferol (Vitamin D)

136. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Bordeaux mixture is a mixture of copper (II) sulphate and calcium hydroxide in water and is used as fungicide.

(b) Boric acid is used in pharmaceutical industry and also as food preservative

(c) Dry Ice is solid carbon dioxide.

(d) Laughing gas is Nitric oxide

137. Auxanometer is used to measure the rate of

(a) Photosynthesis                      (b) Growth

(c) Osmosis                                (d) Loss of Energy

138. Which one of the following is the longest flower in the world ?

(a) Lotus                                     (b) Sunflower

(c) Rafflesia                                 (d) Glory Lily

139. Buckminster Fullerene is

(a) a form of carbon compound of clusters of 60 carbon atoms bonded together in poly- hedral structure composed of pentagons or hexagons

(b) A polymer of fluorine

(c) an isotope of carbon heavier than C14

(d) none of these

140. Censor mechanism of dispersal of seeds is found in :

(a) Pea                           (b) Poppy

(c) Cotton                      (d) Maize

141.An organism involved in the fermentation of toddy is:

(a) Lactobacillus                 (b) Acetobacter

(c) Saccharomyces            (d) Penicillium

142. Litmus - the acid base indicator is obtained from

(a) bacterium                       (b) lichen

(c) Virus                               (d) none of the above

143. Which one of the following plant fibres is obtained from stem ?

(a) Cotton                             (b) Coir

(c) Sun hemp                        (d) Kapak

144. The type of fruit in which litchi can be placed in

(a) drupe                                (b) hesperidium

(c) nut                                    (d) one seeded berry

145. "Kuttu" flour is obtained from

(a) Tapioca                            (b) Fagopyrum

(c) Plantago                           (d) Eleusine

146. Which one of the following is the correct form of www ?

(a) Window World Wide

(b) Web Working Window

(c) World Working Web

(d) World Wide Web

147. Which one of the following catalysts is used for hydrogenation of vegetable oils ?

(a) Zinc dust                              (b) Nickel

(c) Platinum                               (d) Copper

148.Phenol is used in the manufacture of which one of the following ?

(a) P.V.C.                                   (b) Nylon

(c) Polystyrene                           (d) Bakelite

149.Consider the following

Assertion (A) : Alum is applied to stop bleeding from cuts.

Reason (R) : Blood is colloidal system containing negatively charged colloidal particles. The Aluminum ions of Alum have high coagulating power so that the blood gets coagulated

Select the correct answer using from the code given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

150. After reaching the female genital tract, human sperms retain their fertilizing capacity for

(a) two minutes                                 (b) twenty minutes

(c) ninety minutes                              (d) one to two days


UPPCS Main Examination, UPPCS Mains Question Paper, Previous year papers of UPPCS, UPPCS GS Mains Paper

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