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UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Model Test Paper 3

Jun 29, 2015 17:34 IST

    1. Consider the following statements:

     1. Budget proposes to create a Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Bank.
     2. It will have a corpus of 20,000 crore, and credit guarantee corpus of 3,000 crore.  
     3. MUDRA Bank will refinance Micro-Finance Institutions through a Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    2. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana,Consider the following statements:

             1.  It covers both natural and accidental death risk of 2 lakhs
             2. The premium will be Rs 330 per year
             3. Person in the age group of 18-60 years can apply for this scheme

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    3. Consider the following statements:

           1. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna covers accidental death risk of 2 lakh for a premium of just 12 per year.
           2. With respect to Atal Pension Yojana, the Government will contribute 50% of the beneficiaries’ premium limited to 1,000 each year, for five years in the new accounts opened before 31st December, 2015.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    4. With respect to Senior Citizen which of the following statement is wrong:

    1.    The population of senior citizens is approximately 10.5 crore in India.
    2.    Over one crore are above the age of 80 years.  
    3.    A new scheme for providing Physical Aids and Assisted Living Devices for senior citizens, living below the poverty line has been proposed.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    5. An integrated education and livelihood scheme called _______ will be launched this year to enable Minority Youth who do not have a formal school-leaving certificate to obtain one and find better employment.

    (a) Nai Manzil
    (b) Nai Duniya
    (c) Nai Umeed
    (d) Nai Varosa

    6. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) Government will support an exhibition named ‘The Everlasting Flame’ in 2015-16 to show-case civilization and culture of the Parsis.
    (b)NBFC having asset of 100 crore and above will be considered as ‘Financial Institution’ in terms of SARFAESI Act, 2002.
    (c)Budget proposes to establish an electronic Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) financing of trade receivables of MSMEs due to long receivables realization cycles.
    (d) Investment in infrastructure will go up by 70,000 crore in the year 2015-16, over the year 2014-15.

    7.  With reference to Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), consider the following statements:

    1.    It is intended to establish AIM in DRDO
    2.    AIM will be an Innovation Promotion Platform involving academics, entrepreneurs, and researchers. The platform will also promote a network of world-class innovation hubs and Grand Challenges for India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    8. Consider the following statements:

          1. e-Biz Portal has been launched which integrates regulatory permissions at one source.
          2. Government is establishing SETU (Self-Employment and Talent Utilisation) to support all aspects of start-up businesses and other self employment activities.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    9. How many new Ultra Mega Power Projects of 4000 MW has been proposed in the Budget 2015-16?

    (a) 5
    (b) 10
    (c) 15
    (d) 100

    10. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) India is one of the largest consumers of gold in the world and imports as much as 800-1000 tonnes of gold each year.
    (b) Stocks of Gold in India are estimated to be over 20,000 tonnes.
    (c) Gold Monetisation Scheme will allow the depositors of gold to earn interest in their metal accounts and the jewellers to obtain loans in their metal account.   
    (d) Work would commence on developing Indian Gold Coin having Ashok Chakra on its face to show-case Ashoka’s legacy as a king outside India.
                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   
    11. With respect to New Renewable Energy, consider the following statements:

         1. The Ministry of New Renewable Energy has revised its target of renewable energy capacity to 1, 75,000 MW till 2022.
         2. The respective target of solar and wind Energy is 1, 00,000 MW and 60,000 MW respectively till 2022.
         3. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission target was 20,000 MW of grid connected solar power by 2022.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    12. The deposit scheme named Sukanya Samridhi Yojana for girl child under which programme has been created?

    (a) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
    (b) Laadli scheme
    (c) janani suraksha karyakram
    (d) Beti mahotya yojna

    13. With respect to FAME, consider the following statements:

         1. The Scheme was launched by Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
         2. The Scheme is Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    14. Consider the following statements:

       1. Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gramin Kaushal Yojana will be launched for enhancing the employability of rural youth.
       2. Disbursement will be through a digital voucher directly into qualified student’s bank account.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    15. With respect to Pradhan Mantri Vidya Lakshmi Karyakram, consider the following statements:

       1. Through this scheme Scholarship and educational loan would be given.
       2. It will enable all poor and middle class students to pursue higher education of their choice without any constraint of funds.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    16. Consider the following statements:

       1. The Clean Energy Cess has been increased from Rs100 to Rs200 per metric tonne of coal to finance clean environment initiatives.
       2. Excise duty on sacks and bags of polymers of ethylene other than for industrial use is being decreased from 15% to 12%.  
       3. In Direct tax 100 percent deduction for contributions made to Swachh Bharat Kosh has been proposed.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    17. Consider the following statements:

    1. Deduction in respect of health insurance premium has been increased from Rs15, 000 to Rs25, 000.
    2. The limit on deduction on account of contribution to a Pension Fund and the New Pension Scheme is proposed to be increased from Rs1 lakh to Rs1.5 lakh.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    18. With respect to National optical Fibre Network programme (NOFNP), consider the following statements:

        1. It aims to connect all Gram Panchayats in the country through optical fibre cable (OFC) and thereby bridging the connectivity gap between Gram Panchayats and Blocks.
       2. NOFNP will cover 7.5 lakh kilometres connecting 5.5 lakh villages.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    19. With reference to GIFT consider the following statements:

        1. It is proposed to be developed in Kachchh District of Gujarat.
        2. Gujarat International Finance Tec-City is being developed as a hub for the global finance services industry in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    20. Government in the Budget 2015-16 has proposed to reduce the corporate tax from 30% to _______ over next four years.

    (a)28
    (b)27
    (c)26
    (d)25

    21. With reference to Philae Comet Lander, consider the following statements:

      1. It is robotic Lander of European Space Agency (ESA).
      2. It separated from its mother Spacecraft Rosetta in 2014 to land on the Comet 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko
      3. Rosetta was launched in 2004 from Kourou, French Guiana.

    Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    22. Which State has introduced Right to Clearance?

    (a) Telangana
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Gujarat
    (d) Andhra Pradesh

    23. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

     (a) Central Government has launched 1500 crore Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool (INIP) in a bid to offset financial burden of foreign nuclear suppliers.
     (b) The pool is set up by General Insurance Corporation (GIC) of India and 15 other non-life insurers.
     (c)  Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act  which gives the operator the Right to Recourse and allow it to sue the suppliers in case of any accident were seen as being a major hindrance to the growth of the nuclear industry .
     (d) Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool (INIP) became 27th nuclear insurance pool in the world managing nuclear liabilities.

    24. With reference to Bharatiya Mahila Bank (BMB), consider the following statements:

      1. Bharatiya Mahila Bank (BMB) has won The Asian Banker Achievement Award 2015 for Technology Implementation in the category of Best Outsourcing Project (New Bank).
      2.  Mrs. Usha Ananthasubramanian is the Chairman and Managing Director of the Bank.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) None of these

    25. Which of the following are recommendations of Bibek Debroy Committee on restructuring of Indian Railways?

        1. Set up a Railway Regulatory Authority of India (RRAI) statutorily, with an
    independent budget.
        2. Railway Budget should be phased out with gross budgetary support to Indian Railways.
        3. Private entry into running both freight and passenger trains in competition with IR
    should be allowed.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    26. Consider the following statements:

       1. The Sangeet Natak Akademi - India's national academy for music, dance and drama - is the first National Academy of the arts set-up by the Republic of India in 1952.
      2. The Sangeet Natak Akademi is presently an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India.
      3. Film-maker M.S. Sathyu has been conferred Sangeet Natak Akademi fellowships for the year 2014.

     Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    27. With reference to Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS), consider the following statements:

        1. MERS is caused by a corona virus, a type of virus which includes the common cold and SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome).
        2. First cases emerged in the Middle East in 2012, and the first death in Saudi Arabia in June that year.
        3. Most people infected with MERS-CoV developed severe acute respiratory illness, including fever, cough, and shortness of breath.
        4. Since May 2015, the Republic of Korea has been investigating an outbreak of MERS.

     Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1, 2and 3 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    28. Which among these is the India’s first indigenously-built largest aircraft carrier?

      (a)INS Vikrant
      (b) INS Vikramaditya
      (c)INS Khukri
      (d)INS Kolkata

    29. With reference to Land Boundary Agreement (LBA), consider the following statements:

       1. Bangladesh and India will implement the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) of 1974 and Protocol of 2011, in a phased manner between July 31, 2015 and June 30, 2016.
      2. on July 31, 2015 -the “Appointed Day.” The enclaves on both sides of the border “shall stand transferred to the other” by the midnight of the day.
      3. In the exchange of enclaves, India will transfer 111 enclaves with a total area of 17,160.63 acres to Bangladesh, while Bangladesh would transfer 51 enclaves with an area of 7,110.02 acres to India.
      4. The Protocol (referred to as the 2011 Protocol) to the 1974 LBA, signed on 6th September 2011 during the visit of the Prime Minister to Bangladesh.

    Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1, 2and 3 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    30. The Motor Vehicles Agreement (MVA) in SAARC has been signed by

     (a) BBIN
     (b)BBAF
    (c)BCIM
    (d)RIC

    31. With reference to food chain, consider the following statements:

    1. Only 10 per cent of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic level.
    2.  The flow energy takes place in both directions in food chain.
    3.  The natural interconnection of food chains makes it a food web.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1, 2 and 3
      (d) 1 and 3 only

    32. The base of Ecological pyramid represents the ______ or the first trophic level while the apex represents______ or top level consumer.

     (a )producers, tertiary
     (b) tertiary, producers
     (c) herbivore, carnivore
     (d) carnivore, herbivore

    33. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) The pyramid of biomass in sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.
    (b) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is inverted.
    (c) Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted.
    (d) Ecological pyramid does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. It assumes a simple food chain, it does not   accommodate a food web.

    34. The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called as _______

    (a) Ecological succession
    (b) Ecological balance
    (c) Ecological stabilization
    (d) Stabilization of the species

    35. Consider the following statements:

    1.    With respect of succession of plants; Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and xerarch succession takes place in dry areas.
    2.    The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species.
    3.    All communities composition and structure constantly change in response to the changing environmental conditions. These changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and that is called a climax community

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1, 2 and 3
      (d) 1 and 3 only

    36. With reference to Nutrient Cycling, consider the following statements:

    1.    The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any given time, is referred to as the standing state.
    2.     Another name of nutrient cycling is biogeochemical cycles.
    3.    Nutrient cycles are of two types: gaseous and sedimentary.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3

    37. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) Of the total quantity of global carbon, 71 percent is dissolved in Oceans.
    (b) Atmosphere contains about 10 per cent of total global carbon.
    (c) A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere as CO2 through respiratory activities of the producers and consumers.
    (d) Rapid deforestation and massive burning of fossil fuel for energy and transport have significantly increased the rate of release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

    38. The products of ecosystem processes are named as ecosystem services. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services the soil formation accounts for about 50 per cent, and climate regulation and habitat for wildlife are about_______  per cent each.

    (a) 6
    (b) 10
    (c) 24
    (d) 30

    39. With reference to phosphorus cycling, consider the following statements:

        1. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is atmosphere, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates.
        2. Herbivores and other animals obtain phosphorus from plants.
        3. Unlike carbon cycle, there is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3

    40. The pyramid of biomass in sea is also generally_______ because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.

    (a) Inverted
    (b) Upright
    (c) Straight
    (d) Horizontal

    41. which one of the following is correct descending order (% composition) of permanent gases of Atmosphere?

    a) Argon > Carbon dioxide > Neon > Helium
    b) Carbon dioxide > Argon > Neon > Helium
    c) Carbon dioxide > Argon > Helium > Neon
    d) Argon > Carbon dioxide > Helium > Neon

    42. Which one of the following is correct about Water Vapour?

    1.  Water vapour in atmosphere increases with altitude.
    2.  Water vapour decreases from the equator towards the pole.

    Select the correct options

    a)  1 only                    b) 2 only
    c)   Both                    d) None of the above

    43. Which one of the following is correct order of layers in atmosphere?

    a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
    b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
    c) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere, Thermosphere
    d) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere, Thermosphere
     
    44. Which one of the following is true about stratosphere?

    1. Ozone layer is found in stratosphere.
    2. Aeroplanes fly in stratosphere.

    Select the correct options

    a)  1 only                  b) 2 only
    c)   Both                    d) None

    45. Earth is nearest to the sun on

    a) 4th July                    b) 23rd Sep
    c) 21st June                    d) 3rd January

    46. Which of the following factors is not associated with Insolation at the Surface of Earth?

    a) Rotation of earth on its axis
    b) Angle of inclination of the sun’s rays
    c) Transparency of the atmosphere
    d) None of the above
    47. Which one of the following ocean current is found in southern hemisphere?

    a) Oyashio Current
    b) West wind drift
    c) Gulf Stream
    d) Canaries Current

    48. Which of the following is incorrect about tides?

    a) Neap tide has maximum range of tide.
    b) Spring tide occurs when sun, moon and earth are in a straight line.
    c) Neap tide occurs when moon and sun are perpendicular to each other.
    d) Time between the high tide and low tide, when the water level is falling, is called ebb.

    49. Which one of the following statement is correct?

    a) West coasts of the continents in tropical and sub-tropical latitudes (Except close to equator) are bordered by warm waters.
    b) The mixing of warm and cold current results in best fishing grounds of world.

    Select the correct options

    a)  1 only                   b) 2 only
    c)   Both                    d) None

    50. Which of the following is not a relief features of ocean floor?

    1. Seamount
    2. Guyots
    3. Atoll

    Select the correct options

    a)    1 only                    b) 2 only
    c)     3 only                    d) None

    51. Consider the following statements:

    1. The period of the monsoon decreases from Kerala to Gangetic Plains.
    2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India increases from east to west.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a)  1 only                           b) 2 only
    c)   Both 1 and 2                d) Neither 1 nor 2

    52. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

    1. They are generally black in colour.
    2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
    3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
    4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    a)    1, 2 and 3                b) 2, 3 and 4
    c)    4 only                        d) 2 and 3 only

    53. Which state of India has following characteristics?

    1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
    2. Its central part produces cotton.
    3. Cash crops are more cultivated in state compared to food crops.

    Which of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

    a)   Andhra Pradesh      b) Gujrat
    c)   Karnataka                d) Tamil Nadu

    54. What is the main reason of red colour in the red soil?

    a) Abundance of silica
    b) Accumulated humus
    c) Presence of ferric oxides
    d) Abundance of Phosphates

    55. The lower part of Ganga Plain has characteristics of humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which pair of crops is most suitable for this region?

    a) Paddy and Jute
    b) Wheat and Jute
    c)  Paddy and cotton
    d) Wheat and Cotton

    56. The latitudes of Sikkim is similar to:

    a) Rajasthan                    
    b) Uttrakhand
    c) Himachal Pradesh
    d) Jammu & Kashmir

    57. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

    a) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
    b) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
    c) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
    d) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest

    58. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

             Dam/Lake                       River
    a)    Loktak Lake            :            Manipur
    b)    Sambhar Lake         :           Rajasthan
    c)    Ukai Reservoir         :            Krishna
    d)    Wular Lake             :            Jhelum

    59. When you Travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

    1. Deep gorges
    2. U-turn river courses
    3. Parallel mountain ranges
    4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

    Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold Mountains?

    a)    1 and 2 only                b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    c)    3 and 4 only                d) All of the above

    60. Why Gondwana Rocks are most important Rock System of India?

    a) More than 90% of coal reserves of India are found in them
    b) More than 90% of India’s limestone reserves are found in them
    c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
    d) None of the above

    61. With reference to the Rig-Veda, consider the following statements:

       1. Rigveda is the oldest Veda composed about 3500 years ago.
       2. Rigveda has more than a thousand hymns, called Sukta.
       3. Hymns were in praise of various god and goddesses.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3

    62. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a)The Rig-Veda was composed several centuries ago but printed less than 200 years ago.
    (b)The three important gods of rigveda were: Agni, Indra and Surya
    (c) Hymns were composed by sages (rishis), Priests taught students to recite and memorise.
    (d) Rig-Veda was written down several centuries after it was first composed, and printed less than 200 years ago.

    63. Consider the following statements:

       1 In Rig-vedic times horses were yoked to chariots that were used in battles.
      2. In Rig-Veda age battles were fought for land, water and to capture people.
      3 In yajnas offerings were made into the fire which was meant for gods and goddesses.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1, 2 and 3
      (d) 3 only

    64.  In Rig-Veda age two words were used to describe the people or the community as a whole. They are

     (a) Jana & Vish
    (b) Raja & Jana
    (c)Priest & Raja
    (d) Sangh & Jana

    65. people who composed the hymns described themselves as _____ and called their opponents _______.

    (a) Dasas,Aryas
    (b) Aryas,Dasas
    (c)Dasyus,Aryas
    (d)Dasas,Dasyus

    66. Consider the following statements with respect to megaliths:

    1. The practice of erecting megaliths began about 3000 years ago, and was prevalent throughout the Deccan, south India, in the north-east and Kashmir.
    2. Megaliths were carefully arranged by people, and were used to mark burial sites.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    67. With reference to Charaka, consider the following statements:

    1.    He was a famous physician 2000 years ago, wrote a book on medicine known as the Charaka Samhita.
    2.    He stated that human body has 200 bones same as recognised by modern anatomy.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    68. Which of the following stands valid with respect to Inamgaon:

    1. It was occupied between 3600 and 2700 years ago. Here, adults were generally buried in the ground, laid out straight, with the head towards the north.
    2. Sometimes burials were within the houses. Vessels that probably contained food and water were placed with the dead.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2
    (c) 2 only
    (d)None

    69. Which of the following statements is related to Ashvamedha ritual?

        1. A horse was let loose to wander freely and it was guarded by the raja’s men.
        2. If the horse wandered into the kingdoms of other rajas and they stopped it, he had to fight battle.
        3. If they allowed the horse to pass, it meant that they accepted that the raja who wanted to perform the sacrifice was stronger than them.
        4. shudras were excluded from this ritual.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
      (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    70. Consider the following statements:

       1. About 2500 years ago, some janapadas became more important than others, and were known as mahajanapadas.
       2.The rulers of the mahajanapadas were  building huge forts maintaining big armies for which they started collecting regular taxes
       3. Hastinapur and Atranjikhera janapadas are in the present state of Madhya Pradesh.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) 1, 2 and 3
      (d) 2 and 3 only

    71. Which of the following statements is true with respect to 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

            1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
            2. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by this Amendment
            3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

    72. Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of which committee?

      (a) Swaran Singh Committee
      (b) Sarkaria Committee
      (c) Urjit Patel Committee
      (d) Nayar Committee

    73. Consider the following statements:

       1. The duties enumerated in Art. 51-A are non-statutory duties and are not enforceable by law.
       2. Violation of the Fundamental Duties can be met with Punishment but constitution doesn’t mention any penalty for its violation.
       3. Parliament can prescribe penalty for the violation of Specific Duties

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

    74. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

     1. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
     2. To exercise our Universal Adult Franchise at the time of general elections
     3.  To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

    75. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 puts duty on parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his Child or Ward in the age of

     (a) 6 to 14
    (b) 6 to 10
    (c) 5 to 15
    (d) 6 to 16

    76. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

    (a) Fundamental duties- Part IV-A
    (b) Directive principles of State policy- Part IV
    (c)Fundamental rights- Part III
    (d) none of these

    77. Consider the following statements:

      1. The fundamental Rights and Directive Principles together have been described as the ‘conscience of the Constitution’ by Granville Austin
      2. DPSP are in the nature of directives to all governments of the country, Central, State as well as local.
      3. Supreme Court has held that Fundamental Rights and DPSP are distinct scheme and DPSP can override Fundamental Duties.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

    78. With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements:

        1. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) has been taken from the constitution of Ireland
        2. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 has included Art. 43-B, the state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of Co-operative societies

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) None of these

    79. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a)The 25th Constitutional Act came to be challenged before the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharti case (1973)
    (b) Art. 31-c was introduced by the 25th Constitutional Act which gave Art. 39(b) and 39(c) precedence over fundamental Rights
    (c)Art. 40, to organize village Panchayats as units of self government
    (d)Art. 44, to protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance

    80. Which article under DPSP proposes for the separation of the Judiciary from executive ?

    (a) Art. 51
    (b) Art. 50
    (c) Art. 49
    (d) Art. 48

    81. Which of the following can be one of the reasons of Anaemia?

         1. less iron intake
         2. deficiency of folic acid
         3. deficiency of B12

      Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    82. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

     (a) Erythrocytes -RBC
    (b) Leukocytes- WBC
    (c) Thrombocytes-Platelets
    (d)None of these

    83. Consider the following statements:

      1. Normal blood volume in adult is 5 to 6 litre, it accounts for 7-8% body weight
      2. Human blood is slightly alkaline in nature
      3. Blood transports nutrients, hormones and nitrogenous waste

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    84.  With reference to the composition of the blood, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    (a)Blood cell together constitute 45 percent of the total blood volume called as packed cell volume or Haematocrit
    (b)Blood plasma accounts for about 55 percent of the total blood volume
    (c)Albumin is important for retaining water component in blood
    (d) Fibrinogen is the natural anticoagulant in the blood

    85. A Haemophilic man (lacking factor VIII) and a normal woman marries. What is the percentage of children who are Haemophilic?

    (a)0
    (b)25
    (c)50
    (d)100

    86. With reference to the RBC, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    (a)Before birth RBC are formed in liver and spleen
    (b)After birth RBC are formed in bone marrow
    (c)RBC has a lifetime of about 365 days
    (d) Persons who live at high altitudes has more number of RBC then at plain

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 and 2only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    87. Arrange the RBC, WBC and platelets in increasing order per microlitre of circulating blood

    (a) Erythrocytes> Thrombocytes >Leukocytes
    (b) Erythrocytes< Thrombocytes <Leukocytes
    (c) Thrombocytes >Leukocytes >Erythrocytes
    (d) Leukocytes >Erythrocytes> Thrombocytes

    88. The normal number of platelets in the blood is _______ platelets per microlitre

    (a)>5, 00,000
    (b) 150,000 - 400,000
    (c) 50,000-1, 00,000
    (d) 3, 00,000-8, 00,000

    89. With reference to WBC, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. In leukaemia abnormal increase in WBC count
      2. During parasitic infection WBC count increases in the range of 20,000-30,000

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1, 2 and 3
      (d) 3 only

    90. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

    (a)AB –universal recipient
    (b)O-universal donor
    (c)O+ -most common blood group
    (d)A+ -least common blood group

    91. Which of the following is NOT among the India’s earlier Satellites?

    1. Aryabhatta
    2. Bhaskara
    3. APPLE
    4. Rohini

    Select the correct option/options given below:

    a)  2 only                    b) 3 only
    c)  4 only                     d) None of the above

    92. Which of the following is/are application of Remote Sensing?

    1. Potential Fishery Zone (PFZ) Forecasting
    2. Groundwater Prospects Mapping
    3. Biodiversity Characterization
    4. National Geographic Information System

    Select the correct option/options given below:

    a) Only (1), (2), (3)                b) Only (1), (3) and (4)
    c) Only (1), (2) and (4)                d) All of the above.

    93. Which of the following is correct about Global Positioning System?

    1. It is a position indicating satellite system of Russia.
    2. It has total 24 satellites revolving in 6 orbits.
    3. Précised system of GPS is known as DGPS.

    Select the correct option/options given below:

    a)  2 only                           b) 3 only
    c)   2 and 3 only                d)  1 and 3 only
    Answer: (c)

    94. Which of the following is correct about Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)?

    1. IRNSS system consists of 7 satellites.
    2. Its coverage area is extended upto 1000 km from India.
    3. Its position accuracies would be 10 mtrs above India.

    Select the correct option/options given below:

    a)    1 and 2 only                 b) 1 and 3 only
    c)     2 and 3 only                d) All of the above

    95. Which of the following is correct about International Space Station?

    1. ISS is a synthesis of several space station projects that includes the American Freedom, Russian Mir-2, European Columbus and Japanese Kibo.
    2. Station in maintained at an orbit between 278km and 460km.
    3. ISS serves as a research laboratory with microgravity environment.

    Select the correct option/options given below:

    a)  1 and 2 only                 b) 1 and 3 only
    c)   2 and 3 only                d) All of the above

    96. Which of the following can influence the temperature of a place?

       1. latitude of the place
       2. altitude of the place
       3. distance from the sea
       4. air-mass circulation

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (d)  1, 2 , 3 and 4

    97. Consider the following statements:

      1. Normally temperature decreases with increase in elevation, called as normal Lapse rate
      2. A long winter night with clear skies and still air can have Inversion of temperature i.e. temperature increases with increase in the height
      3. Over polar areas temperature inversion is normal throughout the year

      Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  1 and 3 only

    98. With respect to isotherm, consider the following statements:

      1. The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature.
      2. In January the isotherms deviate to the south over the Ocean and to the north over the continent in the northern hemisphere.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) 1 and 2  
      (d) None of these

    99. With respect to Fogs which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. Due to inversion of temperature in lower layers of atmosphere smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of atmosphere.
      2. Due to occurrence of Inversion in the morning of summer season, dense Fogs are a common phenomenon
      3. The inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and begins to warm the earth.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  1 and 3 only

    100. Consider the following statements:

        1. Cold air at the hills and mountains at night flows under the influence of gravity. They move down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage
       2. The Inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) 1 and 2  
      (d) None of these

     

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