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UPPSC UPPCS Mains Exam 2006 General Studies II Question Paper

Sep 9, 2016 09:10 IST

    Previous Year Question Paper of UPPCS Mains Exam is very important to study before gearing up for the preparation of UPPCS Mains Exam 2016. Previous Year Question Paper of UPPCS Mains Exam guides UPPCS aspirants what to study and what to ignore. It gives a complete analysis of the pattern of questions to be asked in UPPCS mains Exam. Here, we are providing the Previous Year Question Paper of General Studies II of UPPCS Mains Examinations 2006.

    UPPCS, the Combined Upper Subordinate Exam of UPPSC is one of the coveted Exams of the state Uttar Pradesh. To know the importance of Previous Year Question Papers of UPPCS Mains Exam is a necessary thing for the UPPCS aspirants because the Previous Year Question Paper gives an insight of the Pattern of asking questions. Likewise we use to provide Previous Year Question Papers of UPSC IAS and other State PCS Exams.

    If the aspirants have concrete idea of the pattern of asking Questions then they can prepare the respective papers according to that pattern and hence they have greater chance of getting maximum marks. For the convenience of UPPCS aspirants, here we are providing the Previous Year Question Paper of General Studies II of UPPCS Mains Examinations 2006.


    [Time 2 hours, M.M. 150]

    2. India’s largest ship breaking yard is located in Gujarat at:

    (a) Alang

    (b) Kandla

    (c) Porbander

    (d) Okha

    UPPCS Mains Exam 2007 General Studies II Question Paper

    3. Recently developed technique for monitoring foetal growth is:

    (a) Microwave technique

    (b) Ultrasonics

    (c) Ultra-violet rays

    (d) X-rays

    4. Which one of the following pairs is not matched?

    (a) Y2K - Computer

    (b) Arthritis - Uric acid

    (c) Noise pollution - Decibel

    (d) PARAM 10.000  - Land to land missile

    5. Purity of gold in 22 Carat is:

    (a) 100%

    (b) –99%

    (c) –92%

    (d) –75%

    6. I.C. Chips for computers are usually made of:

    (a) leaf

    (b) chromium

    (c) silicon

    (d) gold

    7. First Indian Station set up for Antarctic research is called:

    (a) Dakshin Gangotri

    (b) Dakshin Yamunotri

    (c) Antarctica

    (d) Godavari

    8. The memory of the computer is measured by:

    (a) Bits

    (b) Ohms

    (c) Amperes

    (d) Volts

    9. The ICBM developed by India, with a strike range of more than 2000 km, is given the name:

    (a) Prithvi

    (b) Trishul

    (c) Akash

    (d) Agni-II

    10. The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the Sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called:

    (a) Meteors

    (b) Comets

    (c) Meteorites

    (d) Asteroids

    11. On adding common salt to water, the boiling point and freezing point of water will:

    (a) increase

    (b) decrease

    (c) decrease and increase respectively

    (d) increase and decrease respectively

    12. Neelgai belongs to the following family:

    (a) Cow

    (b) Goat

    (c) Sheep

    (d) Deer

    13. Scientists of which country have developed an artificial blood that is a kind of plastic blood which could be given to any patient regardless of his blood group?

    (a) U.S.A.

    (b) Britain

    (c) China

    (d) Norway

    14. The mulberry fruit is:

    (a) Sorosis

    (b) Syconus

    (c) Samara

    (d) Nut

    15. Proteins are assembled from this acid:

    (a) Iodic acid

    (b) Formic acid

    (c) Amino acid

    (d) Nitrous acid

    16. The type of crop which is able to fix nitrogen from air is:

    (a) Wheat

    (b) Legumes

    (c) Coffee

    (d) Rubber

    17. The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:

    (a) Copper

    (b) Lead

    (c) Cadmium

    (d) Mercury

    18. Which one of the following energy sources is most environment friendly?

    (a) Petroleum Products

    (b) Forest products

    (c) Nuclear fission

    (d) Solar cells

    19. Which among the following is the main reason for the depletion of ozone layer?

    (a) Ultraviolet rays

    (b) Chlorofluorocarbons

    (c) Carbon dioxide

    (d) None of the above

    20. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of:

    (a) Vitamin B1 

    (b) Vitamin C

    (c) Vitamin A

    (d) Vitamin E

    21. An air-conditioner installed in a room controls its:

    (a) temperature only

    (b) humidity and temperature

    (c) pressure and temperature

    (d) humidity, pressure and temperature

    22. Light from the Sun reaches Earth in about:

    (a) 2 minutes

    (b) 4 minutes

    (c) 8 minutes

    (d) 16 minutes

    23. Sound travels fastest in:

    (a) Vacuum

    (b) Liquid

    (c) Air

    (d) Metal

    25. A candidate in an election gets 71 % votes and wins the election by 756 votes. If there are only two candidates then the total number of votes is:

    (a) 1890

    (b) 1800

    (c) 1860

    (d) 1850

    26. The smallest number which when increased by 10, is completely divisible by 12, 15, 18, 20 and 24, is:

    (a) 230

    (b) 250

    (c) 290

    (d) 350

    27. In the following series which one of the alternatives will replace question mark (?)?

                          FRP, HPQ, JNS, LLV.?

    (a) PKZ

    (b) NJZ

    (c) OJZ

    (d) MKZ

    28. A and B are two stations 10 km apart. A man P, starts from A and travels towards B at the rate 3 km/hr, whereas another man Q, starts from B and travels towards A at the rate 2 km/hr. When and where they meet?

    (a) After 2 hours, 6 km from A

    (b) After 3 hours, 9 km from A

    (c) After 2½ hours, 7.5 km from A

    (d) After 2 hours, 4 km from A

    29. How many 4’s are there in the following number series which are preceded and followed by only an even number?

                             6 4 3 2 4 8 3 1 5 4 2 3 2 4 6 4 8 1 3 2 4 2 6 4 5

    (a) Four

    (b) Three

    (c) Two

    (d) One

    30. A, B and C enter into partnership. A contributes one-third of the capital while B contributes as much as A and C together contribute. If the profit at the end of the year amounts Rs.900, what would C receive?

    (a) Rs. 100 

    (b) Rs. 150

    (c) Rs. 200

    (d) Rs. 300

    31. Find the missing term in the given series out of the given alternatives

                        2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13


    (a) 27 U 24

    (b) 47 U 14

    (c) 45 U 15

    (d) 47 U 15

    32. Three years ago, Rani was 8 years younger than Rajat. What is the difference between their ages today?

    (a) 8 years

    (b) 6 years

    (c) 4 years

    (d) 3 years

    33. Which one of the following pairs is not matching?

    (a) Air and Oxygen

    (b) Teacher and Student

    (c) Mathematics and Geography

    (d) Physics and Science

    37. The price of the share of a company becomes 16 times in 4 years. The average annual rate of increase is:

    (a) 100%

    (b) 200%

    (c) 400%

    (d) None of these

    38. A couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is four times that of the son and the age of the daughter is one-third of her mother. The wife is six years younger to her husband and the sister in three years older than her brother. The age of the mother is:

    (a) 42 years

    (b) 48 years

    (c) 54 years

    (d) 63 years

    39. A train increases its normal speed by 12.5% and reaches its destination 20 minutes earlier. What is the actual time taken by the train in the journey?

    (a) 220 minutes

    (b) 180 minutes

    (c) 145 minutes

    (d) 160 minutes

    42. Three plots having areas 110, 130 and 190 square meters are to be subdivided into equal size of flower beds. If the breadth of a bed is 2 meter, the maximum length that of a bed can be:

    (a) 5 meters

    (b) 11 meters

    (c) 13 meters

    (d) 19 meters

    43. Balram is younger than Tapan and Rahim. Jogendra is younger than Tapan but older than Rahim. Which one of the following statements is definitely true?

    (a) Jogendra is the oldest among them

    (b) Rahim is second youngest among them

    (c) Balram is older than Jogendra

    (d) Rahim is second oldest among them

    44. What should come next in the following letters sequence?

                A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E

    (a) F

    (b) A

    (c) B

    (d) G

    45. A person purchased 10 dozen pens at the rate of Rs. 4 per dozen. On checking, he found that 20 pens were not working. In order to earn 25% profit, he should sell the remaining pens each at:

    (a) 40 paise

    (b) 44 paise

    (c) 50 paise

    (d) 55 paise

    46. Every person shakes hand with each other in a party and the total number of handshakes is 66. The number of persons in he party is:

    (a) II

    (b) 12

    (c) 22

    (d) None of these

    47. When 24 is added to 40% of a number, the result is the number itself. The number is:

    (a) 16

    (b) 24

    (c) 40

    (d) 64

    48. The highest common factor of 0 and 6 is:

    (a) 0

    (b) 6

    (c) 3

    (d) Undefined

    50. Consider the sequence 5, 10, 15, 25, 40, .... then the next number will be:

    (a) 65

    (b) 57

    (c) 48

    (d) 45

    51. Rajesh goes 20 km towards South. After this he goes 10 km after turning to his left. In the end after turning to his left he goes 20 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?

    (a) 15 km. East

    (b) 10 km. East

    (c) 20 km. East

    (d) 15 km. West

    53. If Body’s first birthday fell in January 1989 on one of the Tuesdays, the day on which he was born is:

    (a) Sunday

    (b) Monday

    (c) Tuesday

    (d) Wednesday

    54. The mean of 5 observations is 60, mean of 10 observations is 30, and mean of 15 observations is 20; then mean of all the 30 observations is:

    (a) 40

    (b) 30

    (c) 25

    (d) 20

    58. The average age of a class was 15 years. When 5 boys whose average age was 12 years and 6 months were admitted in the class, the average was reduced to 6 months. How many students were there in the class originally?

    (a) 20

    (b) 24

    (c) 25

    (d) 30

    59. The price of sugar per kg increased from Rs. 16 to Rs. 20. The percentage reduction in the use of sugar so that the expenditure does not increase, should be:

    (a) 40%

    (b) 25%

    (c) 20%

    (d) 15%

    60. The average of five numbers is 10. The number which should be included to make the average 12 is:

    (a) 12

    (b) 18

    (c) 22

    (d) 24

    61. A person wishes to reach his destination 90 km away in three hours but for the first half of the journey his speed was 20 kr/hr. His average speed for the rest of the journey should be:

    (a) 40 km/hour

    (b) 0.75 km/minute

    (c) I km/minute

    (d) None of these

    62. Histogram is useful to graphically find the value of:

    (a) Mean

    (b) Median

    (c) Mode

    (d) All the above

    63. If the Mode of a moderately skewed frequency distribution is 16 and the mean is 16, then its Median is:

    (a) Zero

    (b) 16

    (c) 8

    (d) 32

    64. Second and third central moments of a distribution are equal. The nature of the distribution is:

    (a) symmetric

    (b) asymmetric

    (c) positively skewed

    (d) negatively skewed

    68. The range and quartile deviation of the following observations: 29, 20, 30, 25, 39, 35, 48, 41, 60, 51, 70 are:

    (a) 50, 11

    (b) 41, 22

    (c) 50, 22

    (d) 41, 11

    69. The average marks of eleven students is 31.0 and that of the first six students is 31.5, while that of the last six students is 30.5. Then the marks of the sixth student are:

    (a) 31.0

    (b) 31.5

    (c) 30.5

    (d) 30.0

    70. The difference of Median and Mode of the following data 25, 33, 72, 65, 29, 60, 30, 54, 32, 53, 42, 52, 42, 51, 42, 48, 45, 47, 46, 33 is:

    (a) 4

    (b) 3

    (c) 3.5

    (d) 2.5

    72. If each value of a set is divided by 5, its coefficient of variation is reduced by:

    (a) 5%

    (b) 10%

    (c) 20%

    (d) nothing

    73. Frequency density of a class is the ratio of:

    (a) the class frequency to the total frequency

    (b) the class frequency to the class interval

    (c) the class interval to the class frequency

    (d) none of these

    74. Out of 1000 students, 658 failed in the aggregate, 166 in the aggregate & Group-I, 434 in the aggregate & Group-Il. 372 students failed in Group-I, 590 in Group-II and 126 in both the groups. The number of students who failed in the aggregate but not in Group-II is:

    (a) 206

    (b) 2:4

    (c) 464

    (d) None of these

    75. Ogives, for more than and less than types, intersect at:

    (a) Mean

    (b) Median

    (c) Mode

    (d) Origin

    76. Given an ogive (less than type); which of the following one measure cannot be obtained from it?

    (a) Mean (b) Median (c) Quartiles (d) Deciles

    77. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers will be:

    (a) 36

    (b) 32

    (c) 30

    (d) 28

    83. Out of 1000 persons 25 % were industrial workers and the rest were agricultural workers. 300 persons enjoyed World Cup matches on television. 30% of the people who had not enjoyed World Cup matches on television were industrial workers. The number of agricultural workers who had enjoyed World Cup matches on TV is:

    (a) 210’

    (b) 240

    (c) 250

    (d) 260

    84. Which one of the following words was not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1975?

    (a) Fraternity

    (b) Sovereign

    (e) Equality

    (d) Integrity

    85. Which one of the following subjects comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court?

    (a) Mutual disputes among States

    (b) Dispute between Centre and State

    (c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights

    (d) Protection from the violation of the Constitution

    86. Who of the following presides over the Joint Session of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in India?

    (a) President of India

    (b) Vice President of India

    (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    (d) Prime Minister

    87. Which one of the following States has the lowest number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha?

    (a) Jharkhand

    (b) Chhattisgarh

    (c) Jammu & Kashmir

    (d) Himachal Pradesh

    88. The Federal System of India was inspired by the Constitution of the following:

    (a) Canada

    (b) United Kingdom

    (c) U.S.A.

    (d) Ireland

    89. Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

    (a) Rigid Constitution

    (b) Single Executive

    (c) Supremacy of the Legislature

    (d) Residual Powers of the States

    90. Which of the following types of authorities are attributed to the President of India?

    1. Real and Popular 2. Titular and Dejure

    3. Political and Nominal 4. Constitutional and Nominal

    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

    (a) 1 and 3

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 4

    (d) 2 and 4

    91. At which of the following stages general discussion on a Bill takes place in the Lok Sabha?

    (a) During introduction of the Bill

    (b) During second reading

    (c) During report stage

    (d) During third reading

    92. The Election Commission was converted Into ‘Three Members Commission’ in the following year:

    (a) 1987

    (b) 1988

    (c) 1989

    (d) 1990

    96. The Sarkaria Commission made recommendations regarding the following:

    (a) Administrative reforms

    (b) Union-State relations

    (c) Panchayats

    (d) Urban Governance

    97. Which one of the pairs given below is not correctly matched?

    (a) Equality before Law : Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizen

    (b) Altering the name of a State : Power of a State legislature

    (c) Creating a new State : Power of Parliament

    (d) Equality of opportunity in public employment : Guaranteed only to Indian citizen

    98. Which one of the following is not included in the State-list in the Constitution of India?

    (a) Criminal Procedure Code

    (b) Police

    (c) Law and Order

    (d) Prison

    99. The authority to specify as to which castes shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes rests with the following:

    (a) Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes

    (b) Prime Minister

    (c) Governor of the State

    (d) President

    100. Which one of the following Prime Ministers never faced the Parliament during his tenure?

    (a) Chandra Sekhar

    (b) V.P. Singh

    (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh,

    (d) Atal Behari Vajpayee

    101. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) Money Bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha.

    (b) Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha.

    (c) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of the Parliament.

    (d) It cannot be introduced in Lok Sabha.

    102. The system of Judicial Review exists in:

    (a) India only

    (b) U.K. only

    (c) U.S.A. only

    (d) India and U.S.A.

    103. The Constitution of India was completed on:

    (a) January 26, 1950

    (b) November 26, 1949

    (c) February 11, 1948

    (d) None of the above is correct

    104. Sikkim became a new State by the following:

    (a) 30th Amendment of the Constitution

    (b) 34th Amendment of the Constitution

    (c) 35th Amendment of the Constitution

    (d) 36th Amendment the Constitution

    105. The vacancy of the Office of the President must be filled up within the following period:

    (a) 90 days

    (b) 6 months

    (c) One year

    (d) As determined by the Parliament

    106. The number of members included in the Constitution Drafting Committee was r

    (a) Seven

    (b) Nine

    (c) Eleven

    (d) Thirteen

    107. The first Session of the Indian National Congress was held in:

    (a) Bombay

    (b) Madras

    (c) Calcutta

    (d) Lucknow

    108. If a Member of Parliament becomes disqualified for membership, the decision of his removal is taken by:

    (a) Chief Election Commissioner

    (b) President of India on the advice of Council of Ministers

    (c) President of India on enquiry by a Supreme Court Judge

    (d) President in accordance .with the opinion of the Election Contusion

    UPPCS Mains Exam 2008 General Studies II Question Paper

    109. ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and ‘Adoption’ are an entry in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution under the following:

    (a) List 1 - Union List

    (b) List II - State List

    (c) List III - Concurrent List

    (d) None of the three Lists

    110. When was the Interim Government formed under the leadership of Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru?

    (a) In July, 1946

    (b) In August, 1946

    (c) In September, 1946

    (d) In October, 1946

    111. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a friend and guide of:

    (a) Select Committee

    (b) Estimates Committee

    (c) Prime Minister

    (d) Public Accounts Committee

    112. Which one of the following States does not have a bicameral legislature?

    (a) U.P.

    (b) M.P.

    (c) Bihar

    (d) Karnataka

    113. Functions to be assigned to Panchayats by 73rd Amendment of the Constitution are mentioned in:

    (a) Eleventh Schedule

    (b) Tenth Schedule

    (c) Thirteenth Schedule

    (d) Twelfth Schedule

    114. In which year, Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was first enacted?

    (a) 1951

    (b) 1954

    (c) 1964

    (d) 1986

    115. Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana was started in the year:

    (a) 1999

    (b) 2000

    (c) 2001

    (d) 2004

    116. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme was launched initially in:

    (a) 100 Districts

    (b) 200 Districts

    (c) 330 Districts

    (d) All the Districts

    117. Which of the following States is the largest producer of groundnut in India?

    (a) Tamil Nadu

    (b) Madhya Pradesh

    (c) Rajasthan

    (d) Gujarat

    118. Steel Authority of India was established in the year:

    (a) 1965

    (b) 1971

    (c) 1974

    (d) 1956

    119. The share of Industry in GDP of India in 2006-07 was:

    (a) less than 20 percent

    (b) between 20-25 percent

    (c) between 25-30 percent

    (d) between 35-40 percent

    120. Abld Hussain Committee was related to:

    (a) Export promotion

    (b) Small and medium industries

    (c) Agricultural development

    (d) Energy sector reforms

    121. In the last one decade, which one among the folio wing sectors, has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?

    (a) Chemicals other than fertilizers

    (b) Services sector

    (c) Food processing

    (d) Telecommunication

    122. Target for annual growth rate of Gross Domestic Product during the Eleventh Five Year Plan Is:

    (a) 8.0 percent

    (b) 8, 5 percent

    (c) 9.0 percent

    (d) 9.5 percent

    123. National Income in India is regularly estimated by:

    (a) Planning Commission

    (b) Central Statistical Organisation

    (c) Ministry of Finance

    (d) National Sample Survey Organisation

    124. The largest item of public expenditure in the Union budgets in recent years is:

    (a) Defence expenditure

    (b) Interest payments

    (c) Major subsidies

    (d) Capital expenditure

    125. Which one of the following is the largest source of agricultural credit in India in recent years?

    (a) Commercial Banks

    (b) Corporate Banks

    (c) Regional Rural Banks

    (d) Land Development Banks

    126. Which of the following is not a measure of reducing inequalities?

    (a) Minimum-Needs Programme

    (b) Liberalisation of economy

    (c) Taxation

    (d) Land reforms

    127. “Mid-day Meal” scheme was started in the year:

    (a) 1995

    (b) 1996

    (c) 1997

    (d) 1998

    128. The highest share in power generation in India is of:

    (a) Atomic power

    (b) Hydro power

    (c) Thermal power

    (d) All above have equal shares

    129. The duration of the New Foreign Trade Policy of the Government of India is:

    (a) 2004-2011

    (b) 2004-2008

    (c) 2004-2009

    (d) 2004-2010

    130. As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary sector In the GDP:

    (a) decreases

    (b) decreases then increases

    (c) increases

    (d) remains constant

    131. Which country among the following has the highest share In cumulative FDI inflows into India?

    (a) Mauritius

    (b) U.S.A.

    (c) Japan

    (d) U.K.

    132. National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in the year:

    (a) 2003

    (b) 2004

    (c) 2005

    (d) 2006

    133. Public sector savings after being negative from 1998-99 turned positive from the year:

    (a) 2002-03

    (b) 2003-04

    (c) 2004-05

    (d) 2005-06

    134. Which of the following taxes yielded maximum revenue to the centre during 2007-08?

    (a) Corporation Tax

    (b) Income Tax

    (c) Customs Duty

    (d) Union Excise Duty

    135. During the inter Census period 1991-2001, which of the following States of India registered the lowest growth of population?

    (a) Himachal Pradesh

    (b) Orissa

    (c) Andhra Pradesh

    (d) Kerala

    136. NACO is an organisation dealing with:

    (a) Cancer

    (b) Child Healthcare

    (c) AIDS

    (d) None of the above

    137. While calculating HDI, the maximum value and minimum value for Life Expectancy at birth (Years) are taken as:

    (a) 100 and 25

    (b) 90 and 30

    (c) 85 and 25

    (d) 80 and 20

    138. Which among the following States is the largest producer of rice in India?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh

    (b) Uttar Pradesh

    (c) West Bengal

    (d) Punjab

    139. Which of the following dimensions is exclusively considered in HPI-2 (Human Poverty Index-2)?

    (a) Social Exclusion

    (b) Knowledge Exclusion

    (c) Economic Exclusion

    (d) Gender Inequalities

    140. Under the National Literacy Mission, threshold literacy rate of 75 percent was fixed. The traget year for this was

    (a) 2007

    (b) 2011

    (c) 2015

    (d) 2020

    141. CAPART is an autonomous orgainsation under:

    (a) Ministry of Agriculture

    (b) Ministry of Rural Development

    (c) Ministry of Industry

    (d) Planning Commission

    142. Which of the following is not covered under “Bharat Nirman”?

    (a) Rural Housing

    (b) Rural Hospitals

    (c) Rural Water Supply

    (d) Rural Electrification

    143. Bhilai Steel Plant is the collaborative project of Indian Government and:

    (a) Russia

    (b) Britain

    (c) Germany

    (d) Poland

    144. Which of the following is high milk yielding variety of cow?

    (a) Dorset

    (b) Holstein

    (c) Sahiwal

    (d) Red Sindhi

    145. Jaya, Padma and Krishna are improved varieties of which of the following cereals?

    (a) Rice

    (b) Wheat

    (c) Barley

    (d) Maize

    146. India’s largest petrochemical factory is situated in the State of:

    (a) Gujarat

    (b) West Bengal

    (c) Assam

    (d) Tamil Nadu

    147. Who is not a Nobel Prize winner among the following scientists?

    (a) Har Govind Khurana

    (b) C.V. Raman

    (c) S. Chandrasekhar

    (d) Jagdish Chandra Bose

    148. The First Satellite of India sent to space, was

    (a) Bhaskar

    (b) Rohini

    (c) Aryabhatta

    (d) Apple

    149. The first crime ever solved using the DNA finger printing technique was in England in the year

    (a) 1963

    (b) 1973

    (c) 1983

    (d) 1993

    150. Lead pencil contains

    (a) Lead

    (b) Lead oxide

    (c) Graphite

    (d) Lead sulphide

    UPPSC UPPCS Mains Exam Previous Year Question Papers



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