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UPSC NDA & NA (I) 2016: GAT Question Paper & Answer Key

May 9, 2017 19:05 IST

    UPSC NDA & NA (I) 2016 General Ability Test: Series A is as given below.

    The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the National Defence Academy & Naval Academy (NDA & NA) (I) Exam on 17 April 2017. The exam consisted of two papers – General Ability Test (GAT) and Mathematics.

    For the benefit of NDA aspirants, Jagran Josh is providing the General Ability Test (Series A) and the official Answer Key as provided by the UPSC, which is as given below.


    UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper & Answer Key

                                                                             Selecting Words
    Directions: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    1. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was _________.

    (a) inevitable
    (b) undeniable
    (c) fatal
    (d) miserable

    Ans. (a) inevitable

    2. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect _________ a simple plan on the blackboard.

    (a) built
    (b) finalised
    (c) sketched
    (d) arranged

    Ans. (c) sketched

    3. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was _________ by the Japanese.

    (a) cultivated
    (b) finished
    (c) perfected
    (d) enlarged.

    Ans. (c) perfected

    4. He is greatly admired for his __________ behaviour.

    (a) decrepit
    (b) decadent
    (c) decorative
    (d) decorous

    Ans. (d) decorous

    5. Would you mind _________ to the Principal how the trouble started?

    (a) remarking
    (b) saying
    (c) explaining
    (d) talking

    Ans. (c) explaining

    6. Vaccination will make people immune __________ certain diseases for a given period.

    (a) against
    (b) to
    (c) with
    (d) for

    Ans. (b) to

    7. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to __________ between them.

    (a) discriminate
    (b) discern
    (c) distinguish
    (d) identify

    Ans. (c) distinguish

    8. The campers __________ their tents at the base of the mountain.

    (a) installed
    (b) dug
    (c) pitched
    (d) established

    Ans. (c) pitched

    9. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to __________ the state secrets.

    (a) divulge
    (b) divert
    (c) indulge
    (d) invert

    Ans. (a) divulge
                                                                               Antonyms
    Directions:
    Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

    10. He handled the machine with deft fingers.

    (a) delicate
    (b) sturdy
    (c) quick
    (d) clumsy

    Ans. (d) clumsy

    11. I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.

    (a) rural
    (b) rude
    (c) irrational
    (d) indifferent

    Ans. (b) rude

    12. His timidity proved costly.

    (a) arrogance
    (b) boldness
    (c) skilfulness
    (d) cunning

    Ans. (b) boldness

    13. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.

    (a) significant
    (b) small
    (c) unruly
    (d) noisy

    Ans. (b) small

    14. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.

    (a) occupied
    (b) inattentive
    (c) engaged
    (d) absent

    Ans. (b) inattentive

    15. These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.

    (a) following
    (b) previous
    (c) first
    (d) last

    Ans. (a) following

    16. He made a shrewd guess.

    (a) clever
    (b) wild
    (c) incorrect
    (d) discriminating

    Ans. (b) wild

    17. He is suffering from a severe cough.

    (a) violent
    (b) mild
    (c) bad
    (d) continuous

    Ans. (b) mild

    For the Previous Year NDA Question Papers (2005-17) & Answer Keys, click here

    18. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.

    (a) Individually
    (b) Obviously
    (c) Clearly
    (d) Collectively

    Ans. (a) Individually

    19. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.

    (a) charming
    (b) ugly
    (c) small
    (d) unnoticeable

    Ans. (d) unnoticeable

    20. He hates these continual arguments with his friend.

    (a) repeated
    (b) irrational
    (c) occasional
    (d) regular

    Ans. (c) occasional

                                                                                            Spotting Errors

    Directions: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

    21. She said that she was understanding his point of view very well. No error.
                                               (a)                              (b)                 (c)           (d)     
    Ans.
    (a) she was understanding

    22. All the houses having been washed away by the flood, the villagers sought shelter in the
                                                    (a)                            (b)                             (c)
    panchayat office. No error.
                                    (d)
    Ans.
    (d) No error

    23. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to the ways of the people
                                                        (a)                            (b)
    among whom we live. No error.
                   (c)                     (d)

    Ans. (a) to familiarize with

    24. The mother asked the child why did she cry out in her sleep. No error.
                               (a)                                  (b)                     (c)              (d)

    Ans. (b) why did she cry out

    25. I asked him that why he was angry but he did not answer. No error.
                     (a)                        (b)                            (c)                     (d)
    Ans
    . (a) I asked him that

    26. Had I not taken ill; I would have sent you my research paper much earlier. No error.
                     (a)                                       (b)                                               (c)              (d)

    Ans. (a) Had I not taken ill

    27. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could, if left unchecked do a lot of
                                                                     (a)                                                  (b)
    damage to the crops No error.
                  (c)                  (d)

    Ans. (d) No error

    28. He had gone home three weeks ago and was expected back yesterday, but he
                     (a)                                                           (b)              
    has not come yet. No error.
               (c)                 (d)

    Ans. (a) had gone

    29. We must sympathize for others in their troubles. No error.
                            (a)                   (b)               (c)                 (d)
    Ans.
    (b) for others

    30. The scientists in America are trying for long to discover the genes responsible for ageing.
                            (a)                                 (b)                                            (c)
    No error.
        (d)

    Ans. (b) are trying for long

                                                                                    Sentence Improvement
    Directions:
    In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).

    31. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.

    (a) carried aloft
    (b) carried down
    (c) carried away
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) carried away

    32. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.

    (a) rose another two feet
    (b) arisen another two feet
    (c) would raise another two feet
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (a) rose another two feet

    UPSC NDA & NA (I) 2017 Questions Paper Analysis: Current Affairs Questions, Answers & Explanation

    33. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.

    (a) seldom
    (b) hardly
    (c) ever
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) ever

    34. Application of those who are graduates will be considered.

    (a) whom are graduates
    (b) whose are graduates
    (c) whom are only graduates
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (d) No improvement

    35. It is raining heavily all through this week.

    (a) has rained
    (b) rains
    (c) rained
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (a) has rained

    36. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.

    (a) notice of
    (b) notice from
    (c) notice to
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (a) notice of

    37. As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.

    (a) big
    (b) tall
    (c) long
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (b) tall

    38. We ought to stand for what is right.

    (a) stand at
    (b) stand on
    (c) stand up
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (c) stand up

    39. He enjoys to tell stories to children.

    (a) how to tell stories
    (b) telling stories
    (c) to narrate stories
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (b) telling stories

    40. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.

    (a) shall be waiting on
    (b) shall have been waiting
    (c) shall wait
    (d) No improvement

    Ans. (b) shall have been waiting
                                                                                              Synonyms
    Directions:
    Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    41. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.

    (a) dangerous
    (b) terrifying
    (c) mild
    (d) very loud

    Ans. (d) very loud

    42. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.

    (a) usual
    (b) durable
    (c) commendable
    (d) some

    Ans. (c) commendable

    43. When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.

    (a) at rest
    (b) idle
    (c) quiet
    (d) impatient

    Ans. (d) impatient

    44. There is no dearth of talent in this country.

    (a) scarcity
    (b) availability
    (c) plenty
    (d) absence

    Ans. (a) scarcity

    45. The servants retired to their quarters.

    (a) entered
    (b) went away
    (c) ran away
    (d) mobilised

    Ans. (b) went away

    46. The navy gave tactical support to the marines.

    (a) sensitive
    (b) strategic
    (c) immediate
    (d) expert

    Ans. (b) strategic

    47. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.

    (a) dispute
    (b) disagree
    (c) distinguish
    (d) differ

    Ans. (d) differ

    48. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.

    (a) depressed
    (b) weakened
    (c) worried
    (d) defeated

    Ans. (b) weakened

    49. His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.

    (a) welcome
    (b) sincere
    (c) good
    (d) praiseworthy

    Ans. (d) praiseworthy

    50. His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.

    (a) rebuke
    (b) sympathy
    (c) indifference
    (d) remorse

    Ans. (a) rebuke
                                                                                                                      

    UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper & Official Answer Key

                                                                                                 PART – B
    Directions:
    The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
    Code:
    (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
    (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
    (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
    (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

    51. Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
    Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.

    Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

    52. Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
    Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.

    Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

    53. Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
    Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

    Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

    54. Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.
    Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.

    Ans. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

    55. Statement I: India has wide variation in population density.
    Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.

    Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

    56. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 ×103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then

    (a) X = Y
    (b) X = 13.6 Y
    (c) Y = 13.6 X
    (d) None of the above

    Ans. (c) Y = 13.6 X

    57. Density of water is

    (a) maximum at 0°C
    (b) minimum at 0°C
    (c) maximum at 4°C
    (d) minimum at - 4°C

    Ans. (c) maximum at 4°C

    58. The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is

    (a) Red phosphorus
    (b) Black phosphorus
    (c) White phosphorus
    (d) Scarlet phosphorus

    Ans. (a) Red phosphorus

    59. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?

    (a) Ripening of fruits
    (b) Curdling of milk
    (c) Freezing of water
    (d) Digestion of food

    Ans. (c) Freezing of water

    60. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
    1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
    2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
    3. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
    4. Benzene

    Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?

    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Indian Military Academy Stars: Know Interesting Facts About Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw and General Ved Prakash Malik

    61. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:
    1. Rishikesh
    2. New Delhi
    3. Patna
    4. Bhubaneswar
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 4-3-1-2
    (b) 4-1-3-2
    (c) 3-4-2-1
    (d) 3-2-1-4

    Ans. (a) 4-3-1-2

    62. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become

    (a) F
    (b) 2 F
    (c) 4 F
    (d) 1/4 F

    Ans. (c) 4 F

    63. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would

    (a) lose one-fourth of its total energy
    (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
    (c) gain one-fourth of its potential energy
    (d) gain three-fourth of its total energy

    Ans. (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy

    64. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of

    (a) Stearic acid
    (b) Oleic acid
    (c) Palmitic acid
    (d) All of the above

    Ans. (d) All of the above

    65. Mass of a particular amount of substance
    1. is the amount of matter present in it.
    2. does not vary from place to place.
    3. changes with change in gravitational force.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only

    Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only

    66. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
    1. Pesticide residues
    2. Lead
    3. Metanil yellow
    4. Mercury
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    67. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in

    (a) Sapt Kosi Valley
    (b) Jhelum Valley
    (c) Alakananda Valley
    (d) Teesta Valley

    Ans. (b) Jhelum Valley

    68. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of

    (a) Shiwalik Range
    (b) Deccan Plateau
    (c) Greater Himalaya
    (d) Aravalli Range

    Ans. (b) Deccan Plateau

    69. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
    (b) Momentum of A will be double that of B.
    (c) Momentum of B will be four times that of A.
    (d) Momentum of both A and B will be equal.

    Ans. (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.

    70. During solar eclipse

    (a) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon.
    (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
    (c) the moon comes exactly halfway between the earth and the sun.
    (d) the sun comes in between the earth and the moon.

    Ans. (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.

    71. The S.I. unit of acceleration is

    (a) ms─1
    (b) ms─2
    (c) cms─2
    (d) kms─2

    Ans. (b) ms─2

    72. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?

    (a) 12
    (b) 6
    (c) 10
    (d) 14

    Ans. (b) 6

    73. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?

    (a) 2 Mg (s) + O2 (g) → 2 MgO (s)
    (b) S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)

    UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper Analysis   

    (d) Mg (s) + S (s) → MgS (s)

    Ans. 
    UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper Analysis

     

    74. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
    1. Steel utensils
    2. Plastic coffee mugs
    3. Aluminium utensils
    4. Plastic water storage bottles
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

    Ans. (c) 2 and 4 only

    75. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?

    (a) Godavari
    (b) Krishna
    (c) Kavery
    (d) Mahanadi

    Ans. (b) Krishna

    76. Consider the following statements:
    1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
    2. Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

    77. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be

    (a) real and magnified
    (b) virtual and magnified
    (c) real and reduced
    (d) virtual and reduced

    Ans. (a) real and magnified

    78. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be

    (a) real, inverted and magnified
    (b) real, erect and magnified
    (c) virtual, erect and reduced
    (d) virtual, erect and magnified

    Ans. (d) virtual, erect and magnified

    79. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?

    (a) Tidal energy
    (b) Geothermal energy
    (c) Solar energy
    (d) Biomass energy

    Ans. (d) Biomass energy

    80. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?

    (a) N2O
    (b) N2O3
    (c) NO2
    (d) N2O5

    Ans. (d) N2O5

    81. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda ?

    (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
    (b) Sodium carbonate
    (c) Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)
    (d) Potassium carbonate

    Ans. (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)

    82. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?

    1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
    2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
    3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.
    4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 4 only

    Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only

    83. Which organization prepares the topographical maps of India?

    (a) Geological Survey of India
    (b) Archaeological Survey of India
    (c) Survey of India
    (d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation

    Ans. (c) Survey of India

    84. Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?

    (a) Dresden Line
    (b) Durand Line
    (c) Maginot Line
    (d) 38th Parallel

    Ans. (a) Dresden Line

    85. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is

    (a) 40 cm
    (b) 60 cm
    (c) 80 cm
    (d) 120 cm

    Ans. (c) 80 cm

    86. The brightness of a star depends on its

    (a) size and temperature only
    (b) size and distance from the earth
    (c) size, temperature and mass
    (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth

    Ans. (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth

    87. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called

    (a) Condensation
    (b) Evaporation
    (c) Sublimation
    (d) Diffusion

    Ans. (c) Sublimation

    88. Which one of the following is water gas?

    (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
    (b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
    (c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
    (d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour

    Ans. (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen

    89. Which of the following statements are correct?
    In  honey bees
    1. Males are haploid.
    2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
    3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
    4. Honey is collected/made by males.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 and 4 only

    Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

    90. The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?
    1. Narmada
    2. Mahanadi
    3. Tapti
    4. Son
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

    91. Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
    1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
    2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
    3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
    4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

    Ans. (b) 1 and 3 only

    92. A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Them it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?

    (a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
    (b) The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
    (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
    (d) The water does not freeze at all

    Ans. (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice

    93. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read

    (a) 0.5 A
    (b) 2 A
    (c) 4 A
    (d) 5 A

    Ans. (a) 0.5 A

    94. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be

    (a) less than 2 ohm
    (b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
    (c) 4 ohm
    (d) 14 ohm

    Ans. (a) less than 2 ohm

    95. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?

    (a) Solution ‘A’
    (b) Solution ‘B’
    (c) Solution ‘C’
    (d) Solution ‘D’

    Ans. (b) Solution ‘B’

    96. Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?

    (a) CuO
    (b) Al2O3
    (c) Fe2O3
    (d) Na2O

    Ans. (d) Na2O

    97. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have
    1. low cholesterol level.
    2. high HDL level.
    3. high VLDL level.
    4. high LDL level.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

    Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only

    98. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of

    (a) Equatorial forest
    (b) Temperate coniferous forest
    (c) Monsoon forest
    (d) Temperate deciduous forest

    Ans. (b) Temperate coniferous forest

    99. ‘Sal’ tree is a

    (a) Tropical evergreen tree
    (b) Tropical semi-evergreen tree
    (c) Dry deciduous tree
    (d) Moist deciduous tree

    Ans. (d) Moist deciduous tree

    UPSC NDA & NA (I) Exam 2017: GAT Question Paper & Answer Key

    100. Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is

    (a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
    (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
    (c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
    (d) Solid < Gas < Liquid

    Ans. (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas

    101. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of

    (a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
    (b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
    (c) molecular mass
    (d) molecular size

    Ans. (a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction

    102. Consider the following circuit:
     

    UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper Analysis

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    103.  Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H2?

    (a) Hg
    (b) Al
    (c) Mg
    (d) Fe

    Ans. (a) Hg

    104. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?
           Vector                 Disease
    1. Anopheles         :    Malaria
    2. Aedes oegypti   :    Chikungunya
    3. Tsetse fly          :     Filariasis
    4. Bed bugs           :     Sleeping sickness
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 2 only

    Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only

    105. Consider the following statements:

    1. All Echinoderms are not marine.
    2. Sponges are exclusively marine.
    3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
    4. Many primates are arboreal.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 3 only

    Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only

    106. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as

    (a) Export Processing Zones
    (b) Duty Free Tariff Zones
    (c) Special Economic Zones
    (d) Technology Parks

    Ans. (c) Special Economic Zones

    107. Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?

    (a) South-Western border along Arabian Sea
    (b) Coromandel Coast
    (c) North-Eastern Frontier
    (d) North-Western India

    Ans. (d) North-Western India

    108. A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be

    (a) 625 m
    (b) 1250 m
    (c) 2500 m
    (d) 50 m

    Ans. (a) 625 m

    109. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become

    (a) 70 kg
    (b) 35 kg
    (c) 140 kg
    (d) Zero

    Ans. (d) Zero

    110. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be

    (a) 2000 J
    (b) 4000 J
    (c) 8000 J
    (d) 1000 J

    Ans. (c) 8000 J

    111. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?

    (a) Benzene
    (b) Hexane
    (c) Naphthalene
    (d) Anthracene

    Ans. (b) Hexane

    112. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
    List I (Molecule)                              List II (Product of digestion)
    A. Proteins                                      1. Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
    B. Carbohydrates                          2. Fatty acids and glycerol
    C. Nucleic acids                              3. Monosaccharides
    D. Lipids                                           4. Amino acids
    Code:
         A    B    C    D
    (a) 2     3     1    4
    (b) 2     1     3    4
    (c) 4     1     3    2
    (d) 4    3    1     2

    Ans. (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

    113. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as

    (a) Dhrian
    (b) Daurs
    (c) Dhoros
    (d) Dhaya

    Ans. (a) Dhrian

    114. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its

    (a) force
    (b) momentum
    (c) work done
    (d) energy

    Ans. (b) momentum

    115. Which one of the following statements with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?

    (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
    (b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.
    (c) Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating.
    (d) The length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased.

    Ans. (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.

    116. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
    (National Park)              (Famous for)
    1. Ranthambhore           : Tiger
    2. Periyar                         : Elephant
    3. Manas                           : Lion
    4. Gir                                  : Rhinoceros
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 2 only

    Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only

    117. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?

    (a) Nuclear energy
    (b) Potential energy
    (c) Electrical energy
    (d) Chemical energy

    Ans. (c) Electrical energy

    118. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:
     
    The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively

    (a) 25 km and 60 km
    (b) 95 km and 35 km
    (c) 60 km and 25 km
    (d) 85 km and 35 km

    Ans. (d) 85 km and 35 km

    119. Jelep La pass is located in

    (a) Punjab Himalaya
    (b) Sikkim Himalaya
    (c) Kumaon Himalaya
    (d) Kashmir Himalaya

    Ans. (b) Sikkim Himalaya

    120. What is the number of mole(s) of H2 (g) required to saturate one mole benzene?

    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 3
    (d) 4

    Ans. (c) 3

    121. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly matched?
         Schedule                  Content
    (a) Eighth Schedule   : Languages
    (b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations
    (c) Fourth Schedule    : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
    (d) Tenth Schedule     : Provision as to disqualification on the ground of defection

    Ans. (b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations

    122. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
    2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

    123. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

    (a) President of India
    (b) Prime Minister of India
    (c) Vice President of India
    (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    Ans. (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    124. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?

    (a) Shantha Sinha
    (b) Kailash Satyarthi
    (c) Aruna Roy
    (d) Anil Agarwal

    Ans. (b) Kailash Satyarthi

    125. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
    1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
    2. Enhancing financial literacy
    3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
    4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    126. The Election Commission recognizes political party as a national party if
    1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
    2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

    127. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?

    (a) Development of capital goods industries
    (b) Major involvement of the State in the economy
    (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
    (d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector

    Ans. (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector

    128. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 2017)?

    (a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
    (b) Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure
    (c) Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes
    (d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning

    Ans. (a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth

    129. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of

    (a) Central Industrial Security Force
    (b) Indian Air Force
    (c) ISRO
    (d) Indian Navy

    Ans. (b) Indian Air Force

    130. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
    2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (a) 1 only

    131. Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
    1. The CAG can attend the sitting of the Committee on Public Accounts.
    2. The CAG can attend the sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
    3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans. (a) 1 only

    132. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
    1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
    2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
    3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds and office of profit.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 3 only

    Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3

    133. Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?

    (a) Bhutan
    (b) Myanmar
    (c) Nepal
    (d) Singapore

    Ans. (c) Nepal

    134. Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?

    (a) Tommy Robredo
    (b) Fabio Fognini
    (c) Roger Federer
    (d) Pablo Cuevas

    Ans. (c) Roger Federer

    135. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?

    (a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
    (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
    (c) Right to practice any profession
    (d) Right to form co-operative societies

    Ans. (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

    136. Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

    (a) Charter Act, 1813
    (b) Charter Act, 1833
    (c) Charles Wood’s Education Despatch, 1854
    (d) Indian Councils Act, 1861

    Ans. (b) Charter Act, 1833

    137. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:
    1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
    2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    138. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is

    (a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
    (b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh
    (c) Angul, Odisha
    (d) Bardhaman, West Bengal

    Ans. (a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya

    139. Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?
    1. It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
    2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
    3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
    4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 4 only
    (d) 1 and 4 only

    Ans. (c) 4 only

    140. Which of the following statements about Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?
    1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
    2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
    3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only

    Ans. (c) 1 and 3 only

    141. Division of labour often involves
    1. specialized economic activity.
    2. highly distinct productive roles.
    3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
    4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various need.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 and 4 only

    Ans. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    142. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?

    (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
    (b) Narendra Dabholkar
    (c) G.D. Agrawal
    (d) Kailash Satyarthi

    Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar

    143. Consider the following statements:
    1. Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
    2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

    144. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India.
    1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
    2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

    145. Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s political ideas?
    1. Henry David Thoreau
    2. John Ruskin
    3. John Milton
    4. Jainism
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 2 and 4 only

    Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

    146. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
    2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (a) 1 only

    147. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?
    1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector
    2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
    3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
    4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 4 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

    Ans. (a) 1 only

    148. Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?
    1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
    2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans. (a) 1 only

    149. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
    1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
    2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
    3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
    4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans. (a) 1 only

    150. Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?
    1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each others’ culture and literature among nations
    2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
    3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
    4. To organize international conferences
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

    Ans. (c) 2 only

    Selecting Words

    Directions: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    1. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was _________.
    (a) inevitable
    (b) undeniable
    (c) fatal
    (d) miserable
    Ans. (a) inevitable
    2. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect _________ a simple plan on the blackboard.
    (a) built
    (b) finalised
    (c) sketched
    (d) arranged
    Ans. (c) sketched
    3. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was _________ by the Japanese.
    (a) cultivated
    (b) finished
    (c) perfected
    (d) enlarged.
    Ans. (c) perfected

    4. He is greatly admired for his __________ behaviour.
    (a) decrepit
    (b) decadent
    (c) decorative
    (d) decorous
    Ans. (d) decorous
    5. Would you mind _________ to the Principal how the trouble started?
    (a) remarking
    (b) saying
    (c) explaining
    (d) talking
    Ans. (c) explaining
    6. Vaccination will make people immune __________ certain diseases for a given period.
    (a) against
    (b) to
    (c) with
    (d) for
    Ans. (b) to
    7. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to __________ between them.
    (a) discriminate
    (b) discern
    (c) distinguish
    (d) identify
    Ans. (c) distinguish
    8. The campers __________ their tents at the base of the mountain.
    (a) installed
    (b) dug
    (c) pitched
    (d) established
    Ans. (c) pitched
    9. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to __________ the state secrets.
    (a) divulge
    (b) divert
    (c) indulge
    (d) invert
    Ans. (a) divulge

    Antonyms
    Directions: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
    10. He handled the machine with deft fingers.
    (a) delicate
    (b) sturdy
    (c) quick
    (d) clumsy
    Ans. (d) clumsy
    11. I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.
    (a) rural
    (b) rude
    (c) irrational
    (d) indifferent
    Ans. (b) rude
    12. His timidity proved costly.
    (a) arrogance
    (b) boldness
    (c) skilfulness
    (d) cunning
    Ans. (b) boldness
    13. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.
    (a) significant
    (b) small
    (c) unruly
    (d) noisy
    Ans. (b) small
    14. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.
    (a) occupied
    (b) inattentive
    (c) engaged
    (d) absent
    Ans. (b) inattentive
    15. These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.
    (a) following
    (b) previous
    (c) first
    (d) last
    Ans. (a) following
    16. He made a shrewd guess.
    (a) clever
    (b) wild
    (c) incorrect
    (d) discriminating
    Ans. (b) wild
    17. He is suffering from a severe cough.
    (a) violent
    (b) mild
    (c) bad
    (d) continuous
    Ans. (b) mild
    18. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.
    (a) Individually
    (b) Obviously
    (c) Clearly
    (d) Collectively
    Ans. (a) Individually
    19. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.
    (a) charming
    (b) ugly
    (c) small
    (d) unnoticeable
    Ans. (d) unnoticeable
    20. He hates these continual arguments with his friend.
    (a) repeated
    (b) irrational
    (c) occasional
    (d) regular
    Ans. (c) occasional

    Spotting Errors
    Directions: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
    21. She said that she was understanding his point of view very well. No error.
                                               (a)                              (b)                 (c)           (d)     
    Ans. (a) she was understanding
    22. All the houses having been washed away by the flood, the villagers sought shelter in the
                                                    (a)                            (b)                             (c)
    panchayat office. No error.
                                    (d)
    Ans. (d) No error
    23. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to the ways of the people
                                                        (a)                            (b)
    among whom we live. No error.
                   (c)                     (d)
    Ans. (a) to familiarize with
    24. The mother asked the child why did she cry out in her sleep. No error.
                               (a)                                  (b)                     (c)              (d)
    Ans. (b) why did she cry out
    25. I asked him that why he was angry but he did not answer. No error.
                     (a)                        (b)                            (c)                     (d)
    Ans. (a) I asked him that
    26. Had I not taken ill; I would have sent you my research paper much earlier. No error.
                     (a)                                       (b)                                               (c)              (d)
    Ans. (a) Had I not taken ill
    27. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could, if left unchecked do a lot of
                                                                     (a)                                                  (b)
    damage to the crops No error.
                  (c)                  (d)
    Ans. (d) No error
    28. He had gone home three weeks ago and was expected back yesterday, but he
                     (a)                                                           (b)              
    has not come yet. No error.
               (c)                 (d)
    Ans. (a) had gone
    29. We must sympathize for others in their troubles. No error.
                            (a)                   (b)               (c)                 (d)
    Ans. (b) for others
    30. The scientists in America are trying for long to discover the genes responsible for ageing.
                            (a)                                 (b)                                            (c)
    No error.
        (d)
    Ans. (b) are trying for long
    Sentence Improvement
    Directions: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).
    31. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.
    (a) carried aloft
    (b) carried down
    (c) carried away
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (c) carried away
    32. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.
    (a) rose another two feet
    (b) arisen another two feet
    (c) would raise another two feet
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (a) rose another two feet
    33. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.
    (a) seldom
    (b) hardly
    (c) ever
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (c) ever
    34. Application of those who are graduates will be considered.
    (a) whom are graduates
    (b) whose are graduates
    (c) whom are only graduates
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (d) No improvement
    35. It is raining heavily all through this week.
    (a) has rained
    (b) rains
    (c) rained
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (a) has rained
    36. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.
    (a) notice of
    (b) notice from
    (c) notice to
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (a) notice of
    37. As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.
    (a) big
    (b) tall
    (c) long
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (b) tall
    38. We ought to stand for what is right.
    (a) stand at
    (b) stand on
    (c) stand up
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (c) stand up
    39. He enjoys to tell stories to children.
    (a) how to tell stories
    (b) telling stories
    (c) to narrate stories
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (b) telling stories
    40. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.
    (a) shall be waiting on
    (b) shall have been waiting
    (c) shall wait
    (d) No improvement
    Ans. (b) shall have been waiting
    Synonyms
    Directions: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    41. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.
    (a) dangerous
    (b) terrifying
    (c) mild
    (d) very loud
    Ans. (d) very loud
    42. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.
    (a) usual
    (b) durable
    (c) commendable
    (d) some
    Ans. (c) commendable
    43. When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.
    (a) at rest
    (b) idle
    (c) quiet
    (d) impatient
    Ans. (d) impatient
    44. There is no dearth of talent in this country.
    (a) scarcity
    (b) availability
    (c) plenty
    (d) absence
    Ans. (a) scarcity
    45. The servants retired to their quarters.
    (a) entered
    (b) went away
    (c) ran away
    (d) mobilised
    Ans. (b) went away
    46. The navy gave tactical support to the marines.
    (a) sensitive
    (b) strategic
    (c) immediate
    (d) expert
    Ans. (b) strategic
    47. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.
    (a) dispute
    (b) disagree
    (c) distinguish
    (d) differ
    Ans. (d) differ
    48. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.
    (a) depressed
    (b) weakened
    (c) worried
    (d) defeated
    Ans. (b) weakened
    49. His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.
    (a) welcome
    (b) sincere
    (c) good
    (d) praiseworthy
    Ans. (d) praiseworthy
    50. His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.
    (a) rebuke
    (b) sympathy
    (c) indifference
    (d) remorse
    Ans. (a) rebuke

    PART – B
    Directions: The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
    Code:
    (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
    (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
    (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
    (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
    51. Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
    Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.
    Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
    52. Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
    Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.
    Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
    53. Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
    Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.
    Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
    54. Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.
    Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.
    Ans. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
    55. Statement I: India has wide variation in population density.
    Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.
    Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
    56. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 ×103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then
    (a) X = Y
    (b) X = 13.6 Y
    (c) Y = 13.6 X
    (d) None of the above
    Ans. (c) Y = 13.6 X
    57. Density of water is
    (a) maximum at 0°C
    (b) minimum at 0°C
    (c) maximum at 4°C
    (d) minimum at - 4°C
    Ans. (c) maximum at 4°C
    58. The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is
    (a) Red phosphorus
    (b) Black phosphorus
    (c) White phosphorus
    (d) Scarlet phosphorus
    Ans. (a) Red phosphorus
    59. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
    (a) Ripening of fruits
    (b) Curdling of milk
    (c) Freezing of water
    (d) Digestion of food
    Ans. (c) Freezing of water
    60. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
    1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
    2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
    3. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
    4. Benzene
    Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?
    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
    Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
    61. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:
    1. Rishikesh
    2. New Delhi
    3. Patna
    4. Bhubaneswar
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 4-3-1-2
    (b) 4-1-3-2
    (c) 3-4-2-1
    (d) 3-2-1-4
    Ans. (a) 4-3-1-2
    62. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become
    (a) F
    (b) 2 F
    (c) 4 F
    (d)  
    Ans. (c) 4 F
    63. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would
    (a) lose one-fourth of its total energy
    (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
    (c) gain one-fourth of its potential energy
    (d) gain three-fourth of its total energy
    Ans. (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
    64. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of
    (a) Stearic acid
    (b) Oleic acid
    (c) Palmitic acid
    (d) All of the above
    Ans. (d) All of the above
    65. Mass of a particular amount of substance
    1. is the amount of matter present in it.
    2. does not vary from place to place.
    3. changes with change in gravitational force.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only
    Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only
    66. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
    1. Pesticide residues
    2. Lead
    3. Metanil yellow
    4. Mercury
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    67. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in
    (a) Sapt Kosi Valley
    (b) Jhelum Valley
    (c) Alakananda Valley
    (d) Teesta Valley
    Ans. (b) Jhelum Valley
    68. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of
    (a) Shiwalik Range
    (b) Deccan Plateau
    (c) Greater Himalaya
    (d) Aravalli Range
    Ans. (b) Deccan Plateau
    69. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
    (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
    (b) Momentum of A will be double that of B.
    (c) Momentum of B will be four times that of A.
    (d) Momentum of both A and B will be equal.
    Ans. (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
    70. During solar eclipse
    (a) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon.
    (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
    (c) the moon comes exactly halfway between the earth and the sun.
    (d) the sun comes in between the earth and the moon.
    Ans. (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
    71. The S.I. unit of acceleration is
    (a) ms─1
    (b) ms─2
    (c) cms─2
    (d) kms─2
    Ans. (b) ms─2
    72. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
    (a) 12
    (b) 6
    (c) 10
    (d) 14
    Ans. (b) 6
    73. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?
    (a) 2 Mg (s) + O2 (g) → 2 MgO (s)
    (b) S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)
    (c)  
    (d) Mg (s) + S (s) → MgS (s)
    Ans. (c)  
    74. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
    1. Steel utensils
    2. Plastic coffee mugs
    3. Aluminium utensils
    4. Plastic water storage bottles
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Ans. (c) 2 and 4 only
    75. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?
    (a) Godavari
    (b) Krishna
    (c) Kavery
    (d) Mahanadi
    Ans. (b) Krishna
    76. Consider the following statements:
    1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
    2. Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
    77. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be
    (a) real and magnified
    (b) virtual and magnified
    (c) real and reduced
    (d) virtual and reduced
    Ans. (a) real and magnified
    78. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be
    (a) real, inverted and magnified
    (b) real, erect and magnified
    (c) virtual, erect and reduced
    (d) virtual, erect and magnified
    Ans. (d) virtual, erect and magnified
    79. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?
    (a) Tidal energy
    (b) Geothermal energy
    (c) Solar energy
    (d) Biomass energy
    Ans. (d) Biomass energy
    80. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?
    (a) N2O
    (b) N2O3
    (c) NO2
    (d) N2O5
    Ans. (d) N2O5
    81. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda ?
    (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
    (b) Sodium carbonate
    (c) Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)
    (d) Potassium carbonate
    Ans. (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
    82. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
    1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
    2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
    3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.
    4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 4 only
    Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only
    83. Which organization prepares the topographical maps of India?
    (a) Geological Survey of India
    (b) Archaeological Survey of India
    (c) Survey of India
    (d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
    Ans. (c) Survey of India
    84. Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?
    (a) Dresden Line
    (b) Durand Line
    (c) Maginot Line
    (d) 38th Parallel
    Ans. (a) Dresden Line
    85. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is
    (a) 40 cm
    (b) 60 cm
    (c) 80 cm
    (d) 120 cm
    Ans. (c) 80 cm
    86. The brightness of a star depends on its
    (a) size and temperature only
    (b) size and distance from the earth
    (c) size, temperature and mass
    (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth
    Ans. (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth
    87. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called
    (a) Condensation
    (b) Evaporation
    (c) Sublimation
    (d) Diffusion
    Ans. (c) Sublimation
    88. Which one of the following is water gas?
    (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
    (b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
    (c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
    (d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour
    Ans. (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
    89. Which of the following statements are correct?
    In  honey bees
    1. Males are haploid.
    2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
    3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
    4. Honey is collected/made by males.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 and 4 only
    Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    90. The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?
    1. Narmada
    2. Mahanadi
    3. Tapti
    4. Son
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
    Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
    91. Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
    1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
    2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
    3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
    4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Ans. (b) 1 and 3 only
    92. A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Them it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?
    (a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
    (b) The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
    (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
    (d) The water does not freeze at all
    Ans. (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
    93. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read
    (a) 0.5 A
    (b) 2 A
    (c) 4 A
    (d) 5 A
    Ans. (a) 0.5 A
    94. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be
    (a) less than 2 ohm
    (b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
    (c) 4 ohm
    (d) 14 ohm
    Ans. (a) less than 2 ohm
    95. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?
    (a) Solution ‘A’
    (b) Solution ‘B’
    (c) Solution ‘C’
    (d) Solution ‘D’
    Ans. (b) Solution ‘B’
    96. Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?
    (a) CuO
    (b) Al2O3
    (c) Fe2O3
    (d) Na2O
    Ans. (d) Na2O
    97. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have
    1. low cholesterol level.
    2. high HDL level.
    3. high VLDL level.
    4. high LDL level.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only
    98. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of
    (a) Equatorial forest
    (b) Temperate coniferous forest
    (c) Monsoon forest
    (d) Temperate deciduous forest
    Ans. (b) Temperate coniferous forest
    99. ‘Sal’ tree is a
    (a) Tropical evergreen tree
    (b) Tropical semi-evergreen tree
    (c) Dry deciduous tree
    (d) Moist deciduous tree
    Ans. (d) Moist deciduous tree
    100. Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is
    (a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
    (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
    (c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
    (d) Solid < Gas < Liquid
    Ans. (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
    101. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of
    (a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
    (b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
    (c) molecular mass
    (d) molecular size
    Ans. (a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
    102. Consider the following circuit:
     
    The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be
    (a) 12 Ω
    (b)  
    (c)  
    (d)  
    Ans. (c)  
    103.  Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H2?
    (a) Hg
    (b) Al
    (c) Mg
    (d) Fe
    Ans. (a) Hg
    104. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?
           Vector                 Disease
    1. Anopheles         :    Malaria
    2. Aedes oegypti   :    Chikungunya
    3. Tsetse fly          :     Filariasis
    4. Bed bugs           :     Sleeping sickness
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 2 only
    Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only
    105. Consider the following statements:
    1. All Echinoderms are not marine.
    2. Sponges are exclusively marine.
    3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
    4. Many primates are arboreal.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 3 only
    Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only
    106. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as
    (a) Export Processing Zones
    (b) Duty Free Tariff Zones
    (c) Special Economic Zones
    (d) Technology Parks
    Ans. (c) Special Economic Zones
    107. Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?
    (a) South-Western border along Arabian Sea
    (b) Coromandel Coast
    (c) North-Eastern Frontier
    (d) North-Western India
    Ans. (d) North-Western India
    108. A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be
    (a) 625 m
    (b) 1250 m
    (c) 2500 m
    (d) 50 m
    Ans. (a) 625 m
    109. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become
    (a) 70 kg
    (b) 35 kg
    (c) 140 kg
    (d) Zero
    Ans. (d) Zero
    110. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be
    (a) 2000 J
    (b) 4000 J
    (c) 8000 J
    (d) 1000 J
    Ans. (c) 8000 J
    111. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?
    (a) Benzene
    (b) Hexane
    (c) Naphthalene
    (d) Anthracene
    Ans. (b) Hexane
    112. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
    List I (Molecule)                              List II (Product of digestion)
    A. Proteins                                    1. Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
    B. Carbohydrates                          2. Fatty acids and glycerol
    C. Nucleic acids                            3. Monosaccharides
    D. Lipids                                       4. Amino acids
    Code:
         A    B    C    D
    (a) 2     3     1    4
    (b) 2     1     3    4
    (c) 4     1     3    2
    (d) 4    3    1     2
    Ans. (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    113. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as
    (a) Dhrian
    (b) Daurs
    (c) Dhoros
    (d) Dhaya
    Ans. (a) Dhrian
    114. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its
    (a) force
    (b) momentum
    (c) work done
    (d) energy
    Ans. (b) momentum
    115. Which one of the following statements with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?
    (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
    (b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.
    (c) Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating.
    (d) The length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased.
    Ans. (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
    116. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
    (National Park)              (Famous for)
    1. Ranthambhore           : Tiger
    2. Periyar                       : Elephant
    3. Manas                        : Lion
    4. Gir                              : Rhinoceros
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 2 only
    Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only
    117. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?
    (a) Nuclear energy
    (b) Potential energy
    (c) Electrical energy
    (d) Chemical energy
    Ans. (c) Electrical energy
    118. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:
     
    The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively
    (a) 25 km and 60 km
    (b) 95 km and 35 km
    (c) 60 km and 25 km
    (d) 85 km and 35 km
    Ans. (d) 85 km and 35 km
    119. Jelep La pass is located in
    (a) Punjab Himalaya
    (b) Sikkim Himalaya
    (c) Kumaon Himalaya
    (d) Kashmir Himalaya
    Ans. (b) Sikkim Himalaya

    120. What is the number of mole(s) of H2 (g) required to saturate one mole benzene?
    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 3
    (d) 4
    Ans. (c) 3
    121. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly matched?
         Schedule                  Content
    (a) Eighth Schedule   : Languages
    (b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations
    (c) Fourth Schedule    : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
    (d) Tenth Schedule     : Provision as to disqualification on the ground of defection
    Ans. (b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations
    122. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
    2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
    123. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the
    (a) President of India
    (b) Prime Minister of India
    (c) Vice President of India
    (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    Ans. (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    124. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?
    (a) Shantha Sinha
    (b) Kailash Satyarthi
    (c) Aruna Roy
    (d) Anil Agarwal
    Ans. (b) Kailash Satyarthi
    125. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
    1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
    2. Enhancing financial literacy
    3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
    4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    126. The Election Commission recognizes political party as a national party if
    1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
    2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
    127. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?
    (a) Development of capital goods industries
    (b) Major involvement of the State in the economy
    (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
    (d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector
    Ans. (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
    128. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 2017)?
    (a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
    (b) Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure
    (c) Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes
    (d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning
    Ans. (a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
    129. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of
    (a) Central Industrial Security Force
    (b) Indian Air Force
    (c) ISRO
    (d) Indian Navy
    Ans. (b) Indian Air Force
    130. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
    2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (a) 1 only
    131. Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
    1. The CAG can attend the sitting of the Committee on Public Accounts.
    2. The CAG can attend the sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
    3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Ans. (a) 1 only
    132. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
    1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
    2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
    3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds and office of profit.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 3 only
    Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    133. Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?
    (a) Bhutan
    (b) Myanmar
    (c) Nepal
    (d) Singapore
    Ans. (c) Nepal
    134. Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?
    (a) Tommy Robredo
    (b) Fabio Fognini
    (c) Roger Federer
    (d) Pablo Cuevas
    Ans. (c) Roger Federer
    135. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?
    (a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
    (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
    (c) Right to practice any profession
    (d) Right to form co-operative societies
    Ans. (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
    136. Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?
    (a) Charter Act, 1813
    (b) Charter Act, 1833
    (c) Charles Wood’s Education Despatch, 1854
    (d) Indian Councils Act, 1861
    Ans. (b) Charter Act, 1833
    137. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:
    1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
    2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    138. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is
    (a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
    (b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh
    (c) Angul, Odisha
    (d) Bardhaman, West Bengal
    Ans. (a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
    139. Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?
    1. It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
    2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
    3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
    4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 4 only
    (d) 1 and 4 only
    Ans. (c) 4 only
    140. Which of the following statements about Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?
    1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
    2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
    3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only
    Ans. (c) 1 and 3 only
    141. Division of labour often involves
    1. specialized economic activity.
    2. highly distinct productive roles.
    3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
    4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various need.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 and 4 only
    Ans. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    142. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?
    (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
    (b) Narendra Dabholkar
    (c) G.D. Agrawal
    (d) Kailash Satyarthi
    Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar
    143. Consider the following statements:
    1. Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
    2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
    144. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India.
    1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
    2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
    145. Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s political ideas?
    1. Henry David Thoreau
    2. John Ruskin
    3. John Milton
    4. Jainism
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 2 and 4 only
    Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    146. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
    2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (a) 1 only
    147. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?
    1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector
    2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
    3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
    4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 4 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Ans. (a) 1 only
    148. Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?
    1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
    2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Ans. (a) 1 only
    149. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
    1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
    2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
    3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
    4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Ans. (a) 1 only
    150. Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?
    1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each others’ culture and literature among nations
    2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
    3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
    4. To organize international conferences
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Ans. (c) 2 only



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