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UPSC NDA & NA (I) 2016: GAT Question Paper & Answer Key

For the benefit of NDA aspirants, the Jagran Josh is providing the key of NDA & NA (I) 2016 General Ability Test (GAT) Question Paper and the official Answer Key as given by the UPSC.

May 9, 2017 19:05 IST
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UPSC NDA & NA (I) 2016 General Ability Test: Series A is as given below.

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the National Defence Academy & Naval Academy (NDA & NA) (I) Exam on 17 April 2017. The exam consisted of two papers – General Ability Test (GAT) and Mathematics.

For the benefit of NDA aspirants, Jagran Josh is providing the General Ability Test (Series A) and the official Answer Key as provided by the UPSC, which is as given below.


UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper & Answer Key

                                                                         Selecting Words
Directions: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was _________.

(a) inevitable
(b) undeniable
(c) fatal
(d) miserable

Ans. (a) inevitable

2. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect _________ a simple plan on the blackboard.

(a) built
(b) finalised
(c) sketched
(d) arranged

Ans. (c) sketched

3. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was _________ by the Japanese.

(a) cultivated
(b) finished
(c) perfected
(d) enlarged.

Ans. (c) perfected

4. He is greatly admired for his __________ behaviour.

(a) decrepit
(b) decadent
(c) decorative
(d) decorous

Ans. (d) decorous

5. Would you mind _________ to the Principal how the trouble started?

(a) remarking
(b) saying
(c) explaining
(d) talking

Ans. (c) explaining

6. Vaccination will make people immune __________ certain diseases for a given period.

(a) against
(b) to
(c) with
(d) for

Ans. (b) to

7. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to __________ between them.

(a) discriminate
(b) discern
(c) distinguish
(d) identify

Ans. (c) distinguish

8. The campers __________ their tents at the base of the mountain.

(a) installed
(b) dug
(c) pitched
(d) established

Ans. (c) pitched

9. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to __________ the state secrets.

(a) divulge
(b) divert
(c) indulge
(d) invert

Ans. (a) divulge
                                                                           Antonyms
Directions:
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

10. He handled the machine with deft fingers.

(a) delicate
(b) sturdy
(c) quick
(d) clumsy

Ans. (d) clumsy

11. I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.

(a) rural
(b) rude
(c) irrational
(d) indifferent

Ans. (b) rude

12. His timidity proved costly.

(a) arrogance
(b) boldness
(c) skilfulness
(d) cunning

Ans. (b) boldness

13. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.

(a) significant
(b) small
(c) unruly
(d) noisy

Ans. (b) small

14. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.

(a) occupied
(b) inattentive
(c) engaged
(d) absent

Ans. (b) inattentive

15. These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.

(a) following
(b) previous
(c) first
(d) last

Ans. (a) following

16. He made a shrewd guess.

(a) clever
(b) wild
(c) incorrect
(d) discriminating

Ans. (b) wild

17. He is suffering from a severe cough.

(a) violent
(b) mild
(c) bad
(d) continuous

Ans. (b) mild

For the Previous Year NDA Question Papers (2005-17) & Answer Keys, click here

18. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.

(a) Individually
(b) Obviously
(c) Clearly
(d) Collectively

Ans. (a) Individually

19. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.

(a) charming
(b) ugly
(c) small
(d) unnoticeable

Ans. (d) unnoticeable

20. He hates these continual arguments with his friend.

(a) repeated
(b) irrational
(c) occasional
(d) regular

Ans. (c) occasional

                                                                                        Spotting Errors

Directions: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

21. She said that she was understanding his point of view very well. No error.
                                           (a)                              (b)                 (c)           (d)     
Ans.
(a) she was understanding

22. All the houses having been washed away by the flood, the villagers sought shelter in the
                                                (a)                            (b)                             (c)
panchayat office. No error.
                                (d)
Ans.
(d) No error

23. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to the ways of the people
                                                    (a)                            (b)
among whom we live. No error.
               (c)                     (d)

Ans. (a) to familiarize with

24. The mother asked the child why did she cry out in her sleep. No error.
                           (a)                                  (b)                     (c)              (d)

Ans. (b) why did she cry out

25. I asked him that why he was angry but he did not answer. No error.
                 (a)                        (b)                            (c)                     (d)
Ans
. (a) I asked him that

26. Had I not taken ill; I would have sent you my research paper much earlier. No error.
                 (a)                                       (b)                                               (c)              (d)

Ans. (a) Had I not taken ill

27. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could, if left unchecked do a lot of
                                                                 (a)                                                  (b)
damage to the crops No error.
              (c)                  (d)

Ans. (d) No error

28. He had gone home three weeks ago and was expected back yesterday, but he
                 (a)                                                           (b)              
has not come yet. No error.
           (c)                 (d)

Ans. (a) had gone

29. We must sympathize for others in their troubles. No error.
                        (a)                   (b)               (c)                 (d)
Ans.
(b) for others

30. The scientists in America are trying for long to discover the genes responsible for ageing.
                        (a)                                 (b)                                            (c)
No error.
    (d)

Ans. (b) are trying for long

                                                                                Sentence Improvement
Directions:
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).

31. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.

(a) carried aloft
(b) carried down
(c) carried away
(d) No improvement

Ans. (c) carried away

32. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.

(a) rose another two feet
(b) arisen another two feet
(c) would raise another two feet
(d) No improvement

Ans. (a) rose another two feet

UPSC NDA & NA (I) 2017 Questions Paper Analysis: Current Affairs Questions, Answers & Explanation

33. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.

(a) seldom
(b) hardly
(c) ever
(d) No improvement

Ans. (c) ever

34. Application of those who are graduates will be considered.

(a) whom are graduates
(b) whose are graduates
(c) whom are only graduates
(d) No improvement

Ans. (d) No improvement

35. It is raining heavily all through this week.

(a) has rained
(b) rains
(c) rained
(d) No improvement

Ans. (a) has rained

36. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.

(a) notice of
(b) notice from
(c) notice to
(d) No improvement

Ans. (a) notice of

37. As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.

(a) big
(b) tall
(c) long
(d) No improvement

Ans. (b) tall

38. We ought to stand for what is right.

(a) stand at
(b) stand on
(c) stand up
(d) No improvement

Ans. (c) stand up

39. He enjoys to tell stories to children.

(a) how to tell stories
(b) telling stories
(c) to narrate stories
(d) No improvement

Ans. (b) telling stories

40. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.

(a) shall be waiting on
(b) shall have been waiting
(c) shall wait
(d) No improvement

Ans. (b) shall have been waiting
                                                                                          Synonyms
Directions:
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

41. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.

(a) dangerous
(b) terrifying
(c) mild
(d) very loud

Ans. (d) very loud

42. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.

(a) usual
(b) durable
(c) commendable
(d) some

Ans. (c) commendable

43. When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.

(a) at rest
(b) idle
(c) quiet
(d) impatient

Ans. (d) impatient

44. There is no dearth of talent in this country.

(a) scarcity
(b) availability
(c) plenty
(d) absence

Ans. (a) scarcity

45. The servants retired to their quarters.

(a) entered
(b) went away
(c) ran away
(d) mobilised

Ans. (b) went away

46. The navy gave tactical support to the marines.

(a) sensitive
(b) strategic
(c) immediate
(d) expert

Ans. (b) strategic

47. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.

(a) dispute
(b) disagree
(c) distinguish
(d) differ

Ans. (d) differ

48. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.

(a) depressed
(b) weakened
(c) worried
(d) defeated

Ans. (b) weakened

49. His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.

(a) welcome
(b) sincere
(c) good
(d) praiseworthy

Ans. (d) praiseworthy

50. His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.

(a) rebuke
(b) sympathy
(c) indifference
(d) remorse

Ans. (a) rebuke
                                                                                                                  

UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper & Official Answer Key

                                                                                             PART – B
Directions:
The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

51. Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.

Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

52. Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.

Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

53. Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

54. Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.
Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.

Ans. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

55. Statement I: India has wide variation in population density.
Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.

Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

56. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 ×103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then

(a) X = Y
(b) X = 13.6 Y
(c) Y = 13.6 X
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c) Y = 13.6 X

57. Density of water is

(a) maximum at 0°C
(b) minimum at 0°C
(c) maximum at 4°C
(d) minimum at - 4°C

Ans. (c) maximum at 4°C

58. The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is

(a) Red phosphorus
(b) Black phosphorus
(c) White phosphorus
(d) Scarlet phosphorus

Ans. (a) Red phosphorus

59. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?

(a) Ripening of fruits
(b) Curdling of milk
(c) Freezing of water
(d) Digestion of food

Ans. (c) Freezing of water

60. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
3. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
4. Benzene

Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Indian Military Academy Stars: Know Interesting Facts About Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw and General Ved Prakash Malik

61. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:
1. Rishikesh
2. New Delhi
3. Patna
4. Bhubaneswar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 4-1-3-2
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-2-1-4

Ans. (a) 4-3-1-2

62. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become

(a) F
(b) 2 F
(c) 4 F
(d) 1/4 F

Ans. (c) 4 F

63. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would

(a) lose one-fourth of its total energy
(b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
(c) gain one-fourth of its potential energy
(d) gain three-fourth of its total energy

Ans. (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy

64. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of

(a) Stearic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Palmitic acid
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d) All of the above

65. Mass of a particular amount of substance
1. is the amount of matter present in it.
2. does not vary from place to place.
3. changes with change in gravitational force.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only

66. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
1. Pesticide residues
2. Lead
3. Metanil yellow
4. Mercury
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

67. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in

(a) Sapt Kosi Valley
(b) Jhelum Valley
(c) Alakananda Valley
(d) Teesta Valley

Ans. (b) Jhelum Valley

68. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of

(a) Shiwalik Range
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Greater Himalaya
(d) Aravalli Range

Ans. (b) Deccan Plateau

69. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
(b) Momentum of A will be double that of B.
(c) Momentum of B will be four times that of A.
(d) Momentum of both A and B will be equal.

Ans. (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.

70. During solar eclipse

(a) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon.
(b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
(c) the moon comes exactly halfway between the earth and the sun.
(d) the sun comes in between the earth and the moon.

Ans. (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.

71. The S.I. unit of acceleration is

(a) ms─1
(b) ms─2
(c) cms─2
(d) kms─2

Ans. (b) ms─2

72. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?

(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 14

Ans. (b) 6

73. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?

(a) 2 Mg (s) + O2 (g) → 2 MgO (s)
(b) S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)

UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper Analysis   

(d) Mg (s) + S (s) → MgS (s)

Ans. 
UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper Analysis

 

74. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
1. Steel utensils
2. Plastic coffee mugs
3. Aluminium utensils
4. Plastic water storage bottles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c) 2 and 4 only

75. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?

(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kavery
(d) Mahanadi

Ans. (b) Krishna

76. Consider the following statements:
1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
2. Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

77. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be

(a) real and magnified
(b) virtual and magnified
(c) real and reduced
(d) virtual and reduced

Ans. (a) real and magnified

78. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be

(a) real, inverted and magnified
(b) real, erect and magnified
(c) virtual, erect and reduced
(d) virtual, erect and magnified

Ans. (d) virtual, erect and magnified

79. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?

(a) Tidal energy
(b) Geothermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Biomass energy

Ans. (d) Biomass energy

80. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?

(a) N2O
(b) N2O3
(c) NO2
(d) N2O5

Ans. (d) N2O5

81. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda ?

(a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)
(d) Potassium carbonate

Ans. (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)

82. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?

1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.
4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only

Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only

83. Which organization prepares the topographical maps of India?

(a) Geological Survey of India
(b) Archaeological Survey of India
(c) Survey of India
(d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation

Ans. (c) Survey of India

84. Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?

(a) Dresden Line
(b) Durand Line
(c) Maginot Line
(d) 38th Parallel

Ans. (a) Dresden Line

85. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is

(a) 40 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 120 cm

Ans. (c) 80 cm

86. The brightness of a star depends on its

(a) size and temperature only
(b) size and distance from the earth
(c) size, temperature and mass
(d) size, temperature and distance from the earth

Ans. (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth

87. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called

(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Diffusion

Ans. (c) Sublimation

88. Which one of the following is water gas?

(a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
(d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour

Ans. (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen

89. Which of the following statements are correct?
In  honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
4. Honey is collected/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

90. The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?
1. Narmada
2. Mahanadi
3. Tapti
4. Son
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

91. Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b) 1 and 3 only

92. A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Them it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?

(a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
(b) The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
(c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
(d) The water does not freeze at all

Ans. (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice

93. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read

(a) 0.5 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A

Ans. (a) 0.5 A

94. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be

(a) less than 2 ohm
(b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
(c) 4 ohm
(d) 14 ohm

Ans. (a) less than 2 ohm

95. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?

(a) Solution ‘A’
(b) Solution ‘B’
(c) Solution ‘C’
(d) Solution ‘D’

Ans. (b) Solution ‘B’

96. Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?

(a) CuO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) Na2O

Ans. (d) Na2O

97. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have
1. low cholesterol level.
2. high HDL level.
3. high VLDL level.
4. high LDL level.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only

98. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of

(a) Equatorial forest
(b) Temperate coniferous forest
(c) Monsoon forest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest

Ans. (b) Temperate coniferous forest

99. ‘Sal’ tree is a

(a) Tropical evergreen tree
(b) Tropical semi-evergreen tree
(c) Dry deciduous tree
(d) Moist deciduous tree

Ans. (d) Moist deciduous tree

UPSC NDA & NA (I) Exam 2017: GAT Question Paper & Answer Key

100. Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is

(a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
(b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
(c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
(d) Solid < Gas < Liquid

Ans. (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas

101. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of

(a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
(b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
(c) molecular mass
(d) molecular size

Ans. (a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction

102. Consider the following circuit:
 

UPSC NDA (I) 2016 GAT Question Paper Analysis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

103.  Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H2?

(a) Hg
(b) Al
(c) Mg
(d) Fe

Ans. (a) Hg

104. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?
       Vector                 Disease
1. Anopheles         :    Malaria
2. Aedes oegypti   :    Chikungunya
3. Tsetse fly          :     Filariasis
4. Bed bugs           :     Sleeping sickness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 only

Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only

105. Consider the following statements:

1. All Echinoderms are not marine.
2. Sponges are exclusively marine.
3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
4. Many primates are arboreal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only

106. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as

(a) Export Processing Zones
(b) Duty Free Tariff Zones
(c) Special Economic Zones
(d) Technology Parks

Ans. (c) Special Economic Zones

107. Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?

(a) South-Western border along Arabian Sea
(b) Coromandel Coast
(c) North-Eastern Frontier
(d) North-Western India

Ans. (d) North-Western India

108. A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be

(a) 625 m
(b) 1250 m
(c) 2500 m
(d) 50 m

Ans. (a) 625 m

109. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become

(a) 70 kg
(b) 35 kg
(c) 140 kg
(d) Zero

Ans. (d) Zero

110. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be

(a) 2000 J
(b) 4000 J
(c) 8000 J
(d) 1000 J

Ans. (c) 8000 J

111. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?

(a) Benzene
(b) Hexane
(c) Naphthalene
(d) Anthracene

Ans. (b) Hexane

112. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Molecule)                              List II (Product of digestion)
A. Proteins                                      1. Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
B. Carbohydrates                          2. Fatty acids and glycerol
C. Nucleic acids                              3. Monosaccharides
D. Lipids                                           4. Amino acids
Code:
     A    B    C    D
(a) 2     3     1    4
(b) 2     1     3    4
(c) 4     1     3    2
(d) 4    3    1     2

Ans. (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

113. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as

(a) Dhrian
(b) Daurs
(c) Dhoros
(d) Dhaya

Ans. (a) Dhrian

114. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its

(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) work done
(d) energy

Ans. (b) momentum

115. Which one of the following statements with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?

(a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
(b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.
(c) Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating.
(d) The length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased.

Ans. (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.

116. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(National Park)              (Famous for)
1. Ranthambhore           : Tiger
2. Periyar                         : Elephant
3. Manas                           : Lion
4. Gir                                  : Rhinoceros
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 only

Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only

117. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?

(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Electrical energy
(d) Chemical energy

Ans. (c) Electrical energy

118. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:
 
The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively

(a) 25 km and 60 km
(b) 95 km and 35 km
(c) 60 km and 25 km
(d) 85 km and 35 km

Ans. (d) 85 km and 35 km

119. Jelep La pass is located in

(a) Punjab Himalaya
(b) Sikkim Himalaya
(c) Kumaon Himalaya
(d) Kashmir Himalaya

Ans. (b) Sikkim Himalaya

120. What is the number of mole(s) of H2 (g) required to saturate one mole benzene?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Ans. (c) 3

121. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly matched?
     Schedule                  Content
(a) Eighth Schedule   : Languages
(b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations
(c) Fourth Schedule    : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
(d) Tenth Schedule     : Provision as to disqualification on the ground of defection

Ans. (b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations

122. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

123. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice President of India
(d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

124. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?

(a) Shantha Sinha
(b) Kailash Satyarthi
(c) Aruna Roy
(d) Anil Agarwal

Ans. (b) Kailash Satyarthi

125. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
2. Enhancing financial literacy
3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

126. The Election Commission recognizes political party as a national party if
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

127. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?

(a) Development of capital goods industries
(b) Major involvement of the State in the economy
(c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
(d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector

Ans. (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector

128. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 2017)?

(a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
(b) Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure
(c) Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes
(d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning

Ans. (a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth

129. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of

(a) Central Industrial Security Force
(b) Indian Air Force
(c) ISRO
(d) Indian Navy

Ans. (b) Indian Air Force

130. Consider the following statements:
1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a) 1 only

131. Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
1. The CAG can attend the sitting of the Committee on Public Accounts.
2. The CAG can attend the sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a) 1 only

132. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds and office of profit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3

133. Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?

(a) Bhutan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Singapore

Ans. (c) Nepal

134. Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?

(a) Tommy Robredo
(b) Fabio Fognini
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Pablo Cuevas

Ans. (c) Roger Federer

135. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?

(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) Right to practice any profession
(d) Right to form co-operative societies

Ans. (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

136. Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Charles Wood’s Education Despatch, 1854
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861

Ans. (b) Charter Act, 1833

137. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:
1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

138. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is

(a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
(b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh
(c) Angul, Odisha
(d) Bardhaman, West Bengal

Ans. (a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya

139. Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?
1. It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Ans. (c) 4 only

140. Which of the following statements about Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?
1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Ans. (c) 1 and 3 only

141. Division of labour often involves
1. specialized economic activity.
2. highly distinct productive roles.
3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various need.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

142. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?

(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(b) Narendra Dabholkar
(c) G.D. Agrawal
(d) Kailash Satyarthi

Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar

143. Consider the following statements:
1. Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

144. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India.
1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

145. Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s political ideas?
1. Henry David Thoreau
2. John Ruskin
3. John Milton
4. Jainism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

146. Consider the following statements:
1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a) 1 only

147. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?
1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector
2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a) 1 only

148. Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?
1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a) 1 only

149. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (a) 1 only

150. Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?
1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each others’ culture and literature among nations
2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
4. To organize international conferences
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c) 2 only

Selecting Words

Directions: In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
1. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was _________.
(a) inevitable
(b) undeniable
(c) fatal
(d) miserable
Ans. (a) inevitable
2. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect _________ a simple plan on the blackboard.
(a) built
(b) finalised
(c) sketched
(d) arranged
Ans. (c) sketched
3. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was _________ by the Japanese.
(a) cultivated
(b) finished
(c) perfected
(d) enlarged.
Ans. (c) perfected

4. He is greatly admired for his __________ behaviour.
(a) decrepit
(b) decadent
(c) decorative
(d) decorous
Ans. (d) decorous
5. Would you mind _________ to the Principal how the trouble started?
(a) remarking
(b) saying
(c) explaining
(d) talking
Ans. (c) explaining
6. Vaccination will make people immune __________ certain diseases for a given period.
(a) against
(b) to
(c) with
(d) for
Ans. (b) to
7. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to __________ between them.
(a) discriminate
(b) discern
(c) distinguish
(d) identify
Ans. (c) distinguish
8. The campers __________ their tents at the base of the mountain.
(a) installed
(b) dug
(c) pitched
(d) established
Ans. (c) pitched
9. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to __________ the state secrets.
(a) divulge
(b) divert
(c) indulge
(d) invert
Ans. (a) divulge

Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
10. He handled the machine with deft fingers.
(a) delicate
(b) sturdy
(c) quick
(d) clumsy
Ans. (d) clumsy
11. I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.
(a) rural
(b) rude
(c) irrational
(d) indifferent
Ans. (b) rude
12. His timidity proved costly.
(a) arrogance
(b) boldness
(c) skilfulness
(d) cunning
Ans. (b) boldness
13. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.
(a) significant
(b) small
(c) unruly
(d) noisy
Ans. (b) small
14. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.
(a) occupied
(b) inattentive
(c) engaged
(d) absent
Ans. (b) inattentive
15. These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.
(a) following
(b) previous
(c) first
(d) last
Ans. (a) following
16. He made a shrewd guess.
(a) clever
(b) wild
(c) incorrect
(d) discriminating
Ans. (b) wild
17. He is suffering from a severe cough.
(a) violent
(b) mild
(c) bad
(d) continuous
Ans. (b) mild
18. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.
(a) Individually
(b) Obviously
(c) Clearly
(d) Collectively
Ans. (a) Individually
19. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.
(a) charming
(b) ugly
(c) small
(d) unnoticeable
Ans. (d) unnoticeable
20. He hates these continual arguments with his friend.
(a) repeated
(b) irrational
(c) occasional
(d) regular
Ans. (c) occasional

Spotting Errors
Directions: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
21. She said that she was understanding his point of view very well. No error.
                                           (a)                              (b)                 (c)           (d)     
Ans. (a) she was understanding
22. All the houses having been washed away by the flood, the villagers sought shelter in the
                                                (a)                            (b)                             (c)
panchayat office. No error.
                                (d)
Ans. (d) No error
23. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to the ways of the people
                                                    (a)                            (b)
among whom we live. No error.
               (c)                     (d)
Ans. (a) to familiarize with
24. The mother asked the child why did she cry out in her sleep. No error.
                           (a)                                  (b)                     (c)              (d)
Ans. (b) why did she cry out
25. I asked him that why he was angry but he did not answer. No error.
                 (a)                        (b)                            (c)                     (d)
Ans. (a) I asked him that
26. Had I not taken ill; I would have sent you my research paper much earlier. No error.
                 (a)                                       (b)                                               (c)              (d)
Ans. (a) Had I not taken ill
27. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could, if left unchecked do a lot of
                                                                 (a)                                                  (b)
damage to the crops No error.
              (c)                  (d)
Ans. (d) No error
28. He had gone home three weeks ago and was expected back yesterday, but he
                 (a)                                                           (b)              
has not come yet. No error.
           (c)                 (d)
Ans. (a) had gone
29. We must sympathize for others in their troubles. No error.
                        (a)                   (b)               (c)                 (d)
Ans. (b) for others
30. The scientists in America are trying for long to discover the genes responsible for ageing.
                        (a)                                 (b)                                            (c)
No error.
    (d)
Ans. (b) are trying for long
Sentence Improvement
Directions: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).
31. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.
(a) carried aloft
(b) carried down
(c) carried away
(d) No improvement
Ans. (c) carried away
32. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.
(a) rose another two feet
(b) arisen another two feet
(c) would raise another two feet
(d) No improvement
Ans. (a) rose another two feet
33. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.
(a) seldom
(b) hardly
(c) ever
(d) No improvement
Ans. (c) ever
34. Application of those who are graduates will be considered.
(a) whom are graduates
(b) whose are graduates
(c) whom are only graduates
(d) No improvement
Ans. (d) No improvement
35. It is raining heavily all through this week.
(a) has rained
(b) rains
(c) rained
(d) No improvement
Ans. (a) has rained
36. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.
(a) notice of
(b) notice from
(c) notice to
(d) No improvement
Ans. (a) notice of
37. As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.
(a) big
(b) tall
(c) long
(d) No improvement
Ans. (b) tall
38. We ought to stand for what is right.
(a) stand at
(b) stand on
(c) stand up
(d) No improvement
Ans. (c) stand up
39. He enjoys to tell stories to children.
(a) how to tell stories
(b) telling stories
(c) to narrate stories
(d) No improvement
Ans. (b) telling stories
40. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.
(a) shall be waiting on
(b) shall have been waiting
(c) shall wait
(d) No improvement
Ans. (b) shall have been waiting
Synonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
41. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.
(a) dangerous
(b) terrifying
(c) mild
(d) very loud
Ans. (d) very loud
42. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.
(a) usual
(b) durable
(c) commendable
(d) some
Ans. (c) commendable
43. When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.
(a) at rest
(b) idle
(c) quiet
(d) impatient
Ans. (d) impatient
44. There is no dearth of talent in this country.
(a) scarcity
(b) availability
(c) plenty
(d) absence
Ans. (a) scarcity
45. The servants retired to their quarters.
(a) entered
(b) went away
(c) ran away
(d) mobilised
Ans. (b) went away
46. The navy gave tactical support to the marines.
(a) sensitive
(b) strategic
(c) immediate
(d) expert
Ans. (b) strategic
47. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.
(a) dispute
(b) disagree
(c) distinguish
(d) differ
Ans. (d) differ
48. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.
(a) depressed
(b) weakened
(c) worried
(d) defeated
Ans. (b) weakened
49. His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.
(a) welcome
(b) sincere
(c) good
(d) praiseworthy
Ans. (d) praiseworthy
50. His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.
(a) rebuke
(b) sympathy
(c) indifference
(d) remorse
Ans. (a) rebuke

PART – B
Directions: The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
51. Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.
Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
52. Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.
Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
53. Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.
Ans. (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
54. Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.
Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.
Ans. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
55. Statement I: India has wide variation in population density.
Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.
Ans. (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
56. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 ×103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then
(a) X = Y
(b) X = 13.6 Y
(c) Y = 13.6 X
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Y = 13.6 X
57. Density of water is
(a) maximum at 0°C
(b) minimum at 0°C
(c) maximum at 4°C
(d) minimum at - 4°C
Ans. (c) maximum at 4°C
58. The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is
(a) Red phosphorus
(b) Black phosphorus
(c) White phosphorus
(d) Scarlet phosphorus
Ans. (a) Red phosphorus
59. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) Ripening of fruits
(b) Curdling of milk
(c) Freezing of water
(d) Digestion of food
Ans. (c) Freezing of water
60. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
3. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
4. Benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
61. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:
1. Rishikesh
2. New Delhi
3. Patna
4. Bhubaneswar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 4-1-3-2
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Ans. (a) 4-3-1-2
62. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become
(a) F
(b) 2 F
(c) 4 F
(d)  
Ans. (c) 4 F
63. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would
(a) lose one-fourth of its total energy
(b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
(c) gain one-fourth of its potential energy
(d) gain three-fourth of its total energy
Ans. (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
64. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of
(a) Stearic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Palmitic acid
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
65. Mass of a particular amount of substance
1. is the amount of matter present in it.
2. does not vary from place to place.
3. changes with change in gravitational force.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only
66. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
1. Pesticide residues
2. Lead
3. Metanil yellow
4. Mercury
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in
(a) Sapt Kosi Valley
(b) Jhelum Valley
(c) Alakananda Valley
(d) Teesta Valley
Ans. (b) Jhelum Valley
68. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of
(a) Shiwalik Range
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Greater Himalaya
(d) Aravalli Range
Ans. (b) Deccan Plateau
69. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
(b) Momentum of A will be double that of B.
(c) Momentum of B will be four times that of A.
(d) Momentum of both A and B will be equal.
Ans. (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
70. During solar eclipse
(a) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon.
(b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
(c) the moon comes exactly halfway between the earth and the sun.
(d) the sun comes in between the earth and the moon.
Ans. (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
71. The S.I. unit of acceleration is
(a) ms─1
(b) ms─2
(c) cms─2
(d) kms─2
Ans. (b) ms─2
72. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 14
Ans. (b) 6
73. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?
(a) 2 Mg (s) + O2 (g) → 2 MgO (s)
(b) S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)
(c)  
(d) Mg (s) + S (s) → MgS (s)
Ans. (c)  
74. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
1. Steel utensils
2. Plastic coffee mugs
3. Aluminium utensils
4. Plastic water storage bottles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c) 2 and 4 only
75. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kavery
(d) Mahanadi
Ans. (b) Krishna
76. Consider the following statements:
1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
2. Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
77. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be
(a) real and magnified
(b) virtual and magnified
(c) real and reduced
(d) virtual and reduced
Ans. (a) real and magnified
78. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be
(a) real, inverted and magnified
(b) real, erect and magnified
(c) virtual, erect and reduced
(d) virtual, erect and magnified
Ans. (d) virtual, erect and magnified
79. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?
(a) Tidal energy
(b) Geothermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Biomass energy
Ans. (d) Biomass energy
80. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?
(a) N2O
(b) N2O3
(c) NO2
(d) N2O5
Ans. (d) N2O5
81. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda ?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)
(d) Potassium carbonate
Ans. (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
82. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.
4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only
83. Which organization prepares the topographical maps of India?
(a) Geological Survey of India
(b) Archaeological Survey of India
(c) Survey of India
(d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
Ans. (c) Survey of India
84. Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?
(a) Dresden Line
(b) Durand Line
(c) Maginot Line
(d) 38th Parallel
Ans. (a) Dresden Line
85. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is
(a) 40 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 120 cm
Ans. (c) 80 cm
86. The brightness of a star depends on its
(a) size and temperature only
(b) size and distance from the earth
(c) size, temperature and mass
(d) size, temperature and distance from the earth
Ans. (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth
87. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Diffusion
Ans. (c) Sublimation
88. Which one of the following is water gas?
(a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
(d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour
Ans. (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
89. Which of the following statements are correct?
In  honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
4. Honey is collected/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
90. The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?
1. Narmada
2. Mahanadi
3. Tapti
4. Son
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
91. Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b) 1 and 3 only
92. A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Them it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?
(a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
(b) The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
(c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
(d) The water does not freeze at all
Ans. (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
93. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A
Ans. (a) 0.5 A
94. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be
(a) less than 2 ohm
(b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
(c) 4 ohm
(d) 14 ohm
Ans. (a) less than 2 ohm
95. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?
(a) Solution ‘A’
(b) Solution ‘B’
(c) Solution ‘C’
(d) Solution ‘D’
Ans. (b) Solution ‘B’
96. Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?
(a) CuO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) Na2O
Ans. (d) Na2O
97. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have
1. low cholesterol level.
2. high HDL level.
3. high VLDL level.
4. high LDL level.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only
98. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of
(a) Equatorial forest
(b) Temperate coniferous forest
(c) Monsoon forest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest
Ans. (b) Temperate coniferous forest
99. ‘Sal’ tree is a
(a) Tropical evergreen tree
(b) Tropical semi-evergreen tree
(c) Dry deciduous tree
(d) Moist deciduous tree
Ans. (d) Moist deciduous tree
100. Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is
(a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
(b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
(c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
(d) Solid < Gas < Liquid
Ans. (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
101. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of
(a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
(b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
(c) molecular mass
(d) molecular size
Ans. (a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
102. Consider the following circuit:
 
The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be
(a) 12 Ω
(b)  
(c)  
(d)  
Ans. (c)  
103.  Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H2?
(a) Hg
(b) Al
(c) Mg
(d) Fe
Ans. (a) Hg
104. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?
       Vector                 Disease
1. Anopheles         :    Malaria
2. Aedes oegypti   :    Chikungunya
3. Tsetse fly          :     Filariasis
4. Bed bugs           :     Sleeping sickness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only
105. Consider the following statements:
1. All Echinoderms are not marine.
2. Sponges are exclusively marine.
3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
4. Many primates are arboreal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (b) 3 and 4 only
106. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as
(a) Export Processing Zones
(b) Duty Free Tariff Zones
(c) Special Economic Zones
(d) Technology Parks
Ans. (c) Special Economic Zones
107. Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?
(a) South-Western border along Arabian Sea
(b) Coromandel Coast
(c) North-Eastern Frontier
(d) North-Western India
Ans. (d) North-Western India
108. A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be
(a) 625 m
(b) 1250 m
(c) 2500 m
(d) 50 m
Ans. (a) 625 m
109. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become
(a) 70 kg
(b) 35 kg
(c) 140 kg
(d) Zero
Ans. (d) Zero
110. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be
(a) 2000 J
(b) 4000 J
(c) 8000 J
(d) 1000 J
Ans. (c) 8000 J
111. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?
(a) Benzene
(b) Hexane
(c) Naphthalene
(d) Anthracene
Ans. (b) Hexane
112. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Molecule)                              List II (Product of digestion)
A. Proteins                                    1. Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
B. Carbohydrates                          2. Fatty acids and glycerol
C. Nucleic acids                            3. Monosaccharides
D. Lipids                                       4. Amino acids
Code:
     A    B    C    D
(a) 2     3     1    4
(b) 2     1     3    4
(c) 4     1     3    2
(d) 4    3    1     2
Ans. (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
113. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as
(a) Dhrian
(b) Daurs
(c) Dhoros
(d) Dhaya
Ans. (a) Dhrian
114. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) work done
(d) energy
Ans. (b) momentum
115. Which one of the following statements with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?
(a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
(b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.
(c) Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating.
(d) The length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased.
Ans. (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
116. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(National Park)              (Famous for)
1. Ranthambhore           : Tiger
2. Periyar                       : Elephant
3. Manas                        : Lion
4. Gir                              : Rhinoceros
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (b) 1 and 2 only
117. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Electrical energy
(d) Chemical energy
Ans. (c) Electrical energy
118. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:
 
The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively
(a) 25 km and 60 km
(b) 95 km and 35 km
(c) 60 km and 25 km
(d) 85 km and 35 km
Ans. (d) 85 km and 35 km
119. Jelep La pass is located in
(a) Punjab Himalaya
(b) Sikkim Himalaya
(c) Kumaon Himalaya
(d) Kashmir Himalaya
Ans. (b) Sikkim Himalaya

120. What is the number of mole(s) of H2 (g) required to saturate one mole benzene?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (c) 3
121. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly matched?
     Schedule                  Content
(a) Eighth Schedule   : Languages
(b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations
(c) Fourth Schedule    : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
(d) Tenth Schedule     : Provision as to disqualification on the ground of defection
Ans. (b) Second Schedule  : The forms of oaths and affirmations
122. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
123. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice President of India
(d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
124. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?
(a) Shantha Sinha
(b) Kailash Satyarthi
(c) Aruna Roy
(d) Anil Agarwal
Ans. (b) Kailash Satyarthi
125. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
2. Enhancing financial literacy
3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
126. The Election Commission recognizes political party as a national party if
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
127. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?
(a) Development of capital goods industries
(b) Major involvement of the State in the economy
(c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
(d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector
Ans. (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
128. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 2017)?
(a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
(b) Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure
(c) Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes
(d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning
Ans. (a) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
129. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of
(a) Central Industrial Security Force
(b) Indian Air Force
(c) ISRO
(d) Indian Navy
Ans. (b) Indian Air Force
130. Consider the following statements:
1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) 1 only
131. Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
1. The CAG can attend the sitting of the Committee on Public Accounts.
2. The CAG can attend the sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a) 1 only
132. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds and office of profit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3
133. Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Singapore
Ans. (c) Nepal
134. Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?
(a) Tommy Robredo
(b) Fabio Fognini
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Pablo Cuevas
Ans. (c) Roger Federer
135. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) Right to practice any profession
(d) Right to form co-operative societies
Ans. (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
136. Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?
(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Charles Wood’s Education Despatch, 1854
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861
Ans. (b) Charter Act, 1833
137. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:
1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
138. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is
(a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
(b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh
(c) Angul, Odisha
(d) Bardhaman, West Bengal
Ans. (a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
139. Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?
1. It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (c) 4 only
140. Which of the following statements about Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?
1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans. (c) 1 and 3 only
141. Division of labour often involves
1. specialized economic activity.
2. highly distinct productive roles.
3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various need.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
142. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?
(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(b) Narendra Dabholkar
(c) G.D. Agrawal
(d) Kailash Satyarthi
Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar
143. Consider the following statements:
1. Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
144. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India.
1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
145. Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s political ideas?
1. Henry David Thoreau
2. John Ruskin
3. John Milton
4. Jainism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
146. Consider the following statements:
1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) 1 only
147. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?
1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector
2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a) 1 only
148. Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?
1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) 1 only
149. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a) 1 only
150. Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?
1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each others’ culture and literature among nations
2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
4. To organize international conferences
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c) 2 only



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