Jagran Josh Logo
  1. Home
  2. |  
  3. Civil Services|  

IAS Preparation: Questions for Prelims 12 January 2018

Jan 12, 2018 18:38 IST
    IAS Preparation: Questions for Prelims 12 January 2018
    IAS Preparation: Questions for Prelims 12 January 2018

    To clear the IAS Exam, continuous efforts to master the current affairs component are a must. To answer current affairs based questions in prelims, one should not only have the preliminary information about the current events, but also the clarity about the issues and concepts involved.

    To cater to this need of IAS Exam aspirants, Jagran Josh is providing five important Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on a daily basis. The questions cover important current affairs events in the fields of economy, national, India-World relations, science and technology, environment, etc. Answers along with detailed explanations to the questions will help the aspirants in answering further questions on the given topic in all the phases of the exam – Preliminary, Mains written and Personality Test.

    IAS Exam Current Affairs Prelims Practice MCQs for 12 January 2018 are as given below.

    1. Consider the following statements related to the National Trust that was in the news recently.

    1) It is an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
    2) It was set up through a resolution of the Union Cabinet in 1999.

    Which of the above statements is/are true?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer. a

    Explanation:

    On 10 January 2018, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved the proposal to amend Section 4(1) and Section 5(1) of the National Trust for the Welfare of Person with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities Act, 1999. The proposed amendments seek to fix the term of the Chairperson and Members of the Board of National Trust for three years.

    Section 4(1) of the National Trust Act, 1999 provides that the Chairperson or a Member of the Board of National Trust would continue in office beyond the prescribed term of three years  until his successor   shall   have been duly appointed. In case of resignation of the Chairperson, section 5(1) of the Act provides for him to continue in office until his successor is duly appointed by the Government.

    The wording of the above provisions of the Act in its present form has resulted in the continuation of a Chairman for an indefinite period as no suitable successor could be found eligible for appointment. The proposed amendments to these provisions in the Act seek to avoid such a situation and will thus eliminate any chance of prolonged continuation in the same post by any incumbent.

    About National Trust

    • It is a statutory body of the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It was set up under the National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities Act, 1999.

    • The National Trust works towards providing opportunities for capacity development of persons with disability and their families.

    • The fundamental purpose of the National Trust is to provide opportunities for persons with disabilities through comprehensive support systems, which will lead towards the development of an inclusive society.

    Best Books for IAS Preparation given by IAS Toppers

    2. Consider the following statements related to recent amendments to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy.
    1) 100% FDI under automatic route for single brand retail trading was permitted.
    2) 100% FDI under automatic route in construction development was permitted.
    3) Foreign airlines allowed to invest up to 49% under automatic rout in Air India.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 2 only
    b) 1 and 2
    c) 2 and 3
    d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer. b

    Explanation:

    The Union Cabinet on 10 January 2018 gave its approval to a number of amendments to the FDI Policy.  The following are key amendments to the existing FDI policy.

    • 100% FDI permitted under automatic route for single brand retail trading.

    • 100% FDI permitted under automatic route in construction development.

    • Foreign airlines allowed to invest up to 49% under the approval route in Air India.

    • FIIs/FPIs allowed to invest in power exchanges through the primary market.

    Details related to these decisions

    FDI in single-brand retail trade

    • The Union Cabinet has decided to allow 100% FDI under automatic route for single-brand retail trade (SBRT). Earlier, only 49% FDI was allowed under the automatic route and FDI beyond 49% and up to 100% through Government approval route.

    • The cabinet also eased ‘sourcing norms’ in SBRT by permitting companies to set-off their incremental sourcing of goods from India for global operations in the initial five years of establishment against the mandatory sourcing requirement of 30% of the purchases for India operations.

    •  Incremental sourcing will mean the increase in terms of the value of such global sourcing from India for that single brand (in INR terms) in a particular financial year over the preceding financial year.

    • After completion of this 5 year period, the SBRT entity shall be required to meet the 30% sourcing norms directly towards its India’s operation, on an annual basis.

    FDI in civil aviation

    As per the existing policy, foreign airlines are allowed to invest under Government approval route in the capital of Indian companies operating scheduled and non-scheduled air transport services, up to the limit of 49% of their paid-up capital. However, this provision was presently not applicable to Air India, thereby implying that foreign airlines could not invest in Air India.

    It has now been decided to do away with this restriction and allow foreign airlines to invest up to 49% under the approval route in Air India.

    FDI in construction development

    It has been decided by the Union Cabinet to clarify that real-estate broking service does not amount to real estate business and is, therefore, eligible for 100% FDI under the automatic route.

    FDI in power exchanges

    • The extant policy provides for 49% FDI under automatic route in power exchanges registered under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (Power Market) Regulations, 2010. However, Foreign Portfolio InvestmentFII/FPI purchases were restricted to secondary market only.

    • It has now been decided to do away with this provision, thereby allowing foreign institutional investors (FIIs)/foreign promotional investors (FPIs) to invest in power exchanges through the primary market as well.

    It should be noted that total FDI inflows received in 2014-15 were USD 45.15 billion as against USD 36.05 billion in 2013-14. During 2015-16, India received total FDI of USD 55.46 billion. In the FY 2016-17, total FDI of USD 60.08 billion has been received, which is an all-time high. The above decisions were taken by the government to further improve ease of doing business conditions in the country.  The liberalized policy is expected to result in  larger FDI inflows contributing to the growth of investment, employment and income.

    International Relations (IR) for UPSC IAS Main Exam

    3. Recently, the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare issued a set of guidelines for educational institutions to contain the spread of H1N1 virus. With reference to which one of the following diseases the virus is associated?
    a) AIDS
    b) Bird flu
    c) Dengue
    d) Swine flu

    Answer. d

    Explanation:

    Swine flu, also known as swine influenza or Pandemic Influenza is a respiratory disease. It is caused by a virus called H1N1 virus. This virus infects the wind pipe (respiratory tract) of pigs and later it gets transmitted to human beings. It results in nasal secretions, cough, decreased appetite, and restless behavior.
    Swine flu was a relatively new strain of influenza virus (flu) that was responsible for a flu pandemic during 2009-2010. Swine flu viruses may mutate (change) so that they are easily transmissible among humans.

    On 10 August 2010, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared that the swine flu pandemic was officially over. However, this does not mean that swine flu has been completely eliminated. The H1N1 virus that caused the pandemic is now a regular flu virus and continues to circulate seasonally worldwide.

    How to read the India year book for IAS exam?

    4. Today, the PSLV successfully launched 31 satellites in a single flight. Against this backdrop, consider the following statements.
    1) The PSLV-C40 rocket placed the Cartosat-2 Series Satellite into the geosynchronous orbit.
    2) The entire lift-off process along with the process of placing the satellites in two orbits will be the longest flight time for a PSLV.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer. b

    Explanation:

    The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on 12 January 2018 launched 31 satellites along with Cartosat-2 satellite on-board a 44.4-metre tall Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). The PSLV-C40 was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
    The 320-tonne rocket placed the 31 satellites one-by-one and deploy them into the earth's lower orbit. The entire lift-off process along with the process of placing the satellites in two orbits will take the satellite 2 hours and 21 minutes. It will be the longest flight time for a PSLV.

    Details related to the launch

    The launch included the Cartosat-2 Series Satellite. It is an earth observation satellite and was placed in the sun-synchronous orbit (SSO). An SSO is a nearly polar orbit around Earth, in which the satellite passes over any given point of the planet's surface at the same local mean solar time. The Cartosat-2 weighs 710 kg and is the heaviest satellite that the PSLV has carried till now. It will beam high-quality images for cartographic, urban and rural applications, coastal land use and utility management.
    Among 31 satellites, three satellites belong to India and 28 are of six other countries. The Indian satellites are 710 kg Cartosat-2 series, a 100 kg micro satellite and a 5 kg nano satellite.

    The 28 other satellites are from Canada, Finland, France, South Korea, the United Kingdom and the United States.

    Types of orbits

    Primarily, there are three different orbits around the earth. They are –
    1) Polar orbits
    2) Sun-synchronous orbits
    3) Geosynchronous orbits

    Polar orbits

    As the name suggests, polar orbits pass over the Earth’s polar regions from north to south. These orbits have an inclination of 90 degrees to the poles. This allows the satellite to see virtually every part of the Earth as the Earth rotates underneath it. Satellites placed in polar orbits are often used for earth-mapping and earth observation. These orbits mainly take place at low altitudes of between 200 to 1000 km.

    Sun-synchronous orbits

    These are polar orbits which are synchronous with the Sun. A Sun-synchronous orbit is a nearly polar orbit around Earth, in which the satellite passes over any given point of the planet's surface at the same local mean solar time. Such an orbit can place a satellite in constant sunlight and is useful for imaging, spy, and weather satellites. The satellites in these orbits are placed at an altitude between 700 to 800 km.

    Geosynchronous orbits

    A geosynchronous orbit, often referred to as geostationary orbit, circles the Earth above the equator from west to east at a height of 36, 000 km. As it follows the Earth’s rotation, satellites in a GEO orbit appear to be ‘stationary’ over a fixed position. Their speed is about 3 km per second.

    UPSC IAS Main Exam 2017 Question Papers

    5. Recently, the Election Commission, constituted the Umesh Sinha Committee to suggest changes to the Representation of the People (RP) Act, 1951. Against this backdrop, consider the following statements.
    1) The committee will suggest changes to the Section 126 of the RP Act, 1951.
    2) Section 126 of the RP Act, 1951 prohibits displaying any election matter by television or similar apparatus, during the period of 48 hours before the elections.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer. c

    Explanation:

    The Election Commission of India on 11 January 2018 constituted a 14 member committee to suggest changes to Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) in view of the social media expansion.

    The Committee, chaired by Senior Deputy Election Commissioner Umesh Sinha, will study the impact of social media during the ‘silence period’ and suggest modifications to the election law and model code of conduct (MCC).

    The committee will also examine the difficulties faced in regulating media platforms during the prohibitory 48 hours in a multi-phase election. The committee will submit its report within three months.

    The Section 126 of the RP Act, 1951 is as given below.

    “126. Prohibition of public meetings during period of forty—eight hours ending with hour fixed for conclusion of poll.
    (1) No person shall —
    (a) convene, hold or attend, join or address any public meeting or procession in connection with an election; or
    (b) display to the public any election matter by means of cinematograph, television or other similar apparatus; or
    (c) propagate any election matter to the public by holding, or by arranging the holding of, any musical concert or any theatrical performance or any other entertainment or amusement with a view to attracting the members of the public thereto, in any polling area during the period of forty-eight hours ending with the fixed for the conclusion of the poll for any election in the polling area.
    (2) Any person who contravenes the provisions of sub-section (1) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
    (3) In this section, the expression "election matter" means any matter intended or calculated to influence or affect the result of an election.”

    Background

    The Election Commission constituted the committee three weeks after it withdrew the show cause notice issued to Rahul Gandhi for alleged violation of the MCC and the RP Act, 1951. The show cause notice was issued to the Congress leader as it was alleged that he gave interviews to TV channels on 13 December 2017, a day before the second phase of the Gujarat polls.

    The issue of notice to Rahul had evoked a strong reaction from the Congress party, which questioned the move on the ground that it did not initiate action against news channels for airing BJP president Amit Shah’s interview and Union Minister Piyush Goyal’s press conference, which took place on the same day of Rahul Gandhi’s interview.

    Against this backdrop, the Election Commission withdrew the notice and decided to set up the committee to look into the issue in a holistic manner.

    UPSC IAS Topper in 2017: Arif Ahsan Rank 74 shares his journey of Success in IAS

    Latest Videos

    Register to get FREE updates

      All Fields Mandatory
    • (Ex:9123456789)
    • Please Select Your Interest
    • Please specify

    • By clicking on Submit button, you agree to our terms of use
      ajax-loader
    • A verifcation code has been sent to
      your mobile number

      Please enter the verification code below

    Newsletter Signup
    Follow us on
    X

    Register to view Complete PDF