KVS PGT Physics 2014 Previous Year Paper with Answers

Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your exam preparation. In this article we have shared the KVS PGT Physics 2014 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

KVS PGT Physics 2014 Previous Year Paper with Answers
KVS PGT Physics 2014 Previous Year Paper with Answers

To crack the KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the KVS PGT Physics Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

KVS PGT Physics Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. Two quantities X and Y have different dimensions. Which mathematical operation given below is physically meaningful?

(A) X/Y

(B) X + Y

(C) X – Y

(D) X – 2Y

Answer: a)

2. Two resistances R1 = 10.0 ± 0.1Ω and R2 = 5.0 ± 0.1Ω are connected in series. The percentage error in the equivalent resistance is

(A) 1.33 %

(B) 2.33 %

(C) 3.33 %

(D) 10.0 %

Answer: a)

3. If v is the speed, r is radius and g is the acceleration due to gravity, then which of the following is dimensionless ?

(A) v2rg

(B) v2/rg

(C) v2g/r

(D) vr2g

Answer: b)

4. A quantity X is defined by the equation X = 3 CY2, where C is capacitance in farad and Y represents magnetic field in Tesla. The dimensions of X are

(A) ML-2

(B) ML-2T

(C) ML-2T-2

(D) L-2

Answer: a)

5. What is the value of 600 m + 600 mm with due regard to the significant digits?

(A) 600 m

(B) 600.6 m

(C) 600.600 m

(D) 601 m

Answer: d)

6. The equation of motion of a projectile is y = 12 x – 0.75 x2. The horizontal component of velocity is 3 m/s. Given that acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2. Then the range of the projectile is

(A) 306 m

(B) 216 m

(C) 124 m

(D) 36 m

Answer: b)

7. The maximum number of rectangular components into which a vector can be split in its own plane is

(A) two

(B) three

(C) four

(D) more than four

Answer: a)

8. A particle moves in a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 7 meters. The velocity of the particle when the acceleration is zero is

(A) 42 m/s

(B) - 9 m/s

(C) 3 m/s

(D) - 12 m/s

Answer: c)

9. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 45o with the horizontal. The kinetic energy at the highest point of its flight will be

(A) E

(B) E/2

(C) E/3

(D) Zero

Answer: b)

10. There are N coplanar vectors each of magnitude X. Each vector is inclined to the preceding vector at an angle physics. The magnitude of their resultant is

(A) NX

(B) X

(C) X/N

(D) Zero

Answer: d)

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11. A body starts sliding down at an angle q to horizontal. Then coefficient of friction is equal to

(A) sin q

(B) cos q 

(C) tan q

(D) cot q

Answer: c)

12. The linear momentum of a particle is given by p = a + bt2, where t is time and a & b are constants. The force acting on the body varies directly as

(A) t0

(B) t1

(C) t2

(D) t3

Answer: b)

13. A packet of weight W is dropped with the help of a parachute and on striking the ground comes to rest with retardation equal to twice the acceleration due to gravity. The force exerted on the ground is

(A) W

(B) 2W

(C) 3W

(D) 4W

Answer: c)

14. The angular momentum (L) of a wheel changes from 2.45L to 4.45L in 2 seconds. The magnitude of the torque acting on it will be

(A) L/3

(B) L/5

(C) L

(D) L/2

Answer: c)

15. A 2 kg stone at the end of a string 1 m long is whirled in a vertical circle at a constant speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string will be 52 N when the stone is

(A) at the top of the circle

(B) halfway down

(C) at the bottom of the circle

(D) anywhere on the circle

Answer: c)

16. A body of 10 kg is dropped to the ground from a height of 10 m. The work done by the gravitational force is (given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) - 490 J

(B) + 490 ergs

(C) - 980 J

(D) + 980 ergs

Answer: c)

17. The power supplied by a force acting on a particle moving in a straight line is constant. The velocity of the particle varies with the displacement x as

(A) x

(B) x1/2

(C) x2

(D) x1/3

Answer: d)

18. The work done by all the forces (external and internal) on a system equals the change in

(A) total energy

(B) kinetic energy

(C) potential energy

(D) none of these

Answer: b)

19. Two springs X and Y (kx = 2ky) are stretched by applying forces of equal magnitudes at the four ends. If the energy stored in A is E, then the energy stored in B is

(A) E/2

(B) 2E

(C) E

(D) E/4

Answer: b)

20. The minimum horizontal speed given to the bob of a simple pendulum of length L to describe a complete circle should be

(A) gL

(B) 5gL

(C) (5gL)1/2

(D) (2gL)1/2

Answer: c)

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21. Two bodies X and Y have masses M and m respectively, where M > m, and they are at a distance d apart. Equal force is applied to them so that they approach each other. The position where they hit each other is

(A) nearer to Y

(B) nearer to X

(C) at equal distance from X and Y

(D) cannot be decided

Answer: b)

22. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its end and perpendicular to the length is

(A) ML2/3

(B) ML2/12

(C) ML2/2

(D) ML2

Answer: a)

23. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2 about its axis rotates at 50 rpm about this axis. The torque that can stop the wheel in one minute is


Answer: d)

24. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length L about an axis passing through its centre of mass is


Answer: a)

25. A circular disc X of radius r is made from an iron plate of thickness t and another circular disc Y of radius 4r is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. The relation between the moments of inertia IX and IY is

(A) IX> IY

(B) IX = IY

(C) IX< IY

(D) depends on actual values of r and t

Answer: c)

26. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height R above the surface of earth. R is radius of earth. Then the value of T1/T2 is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: b)

27. At what rate the earth should rotate so that the weight of a body at equator of the earth becomes zero?

(A) about 17 times the present speed

(B) about 8 times the present

(C) 170 times the present speed

(D) 80 times the present speed

Answer: a)

28. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining its shape. The gravitational potential at the centre

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains constant

(D) oscillates

Answer: b)

29. The magnitude of gravitational potential energy of the moon-earth system is U with zero potential energy at infinite separation. The kinetic energy of the moon with respect to the earth is K, then

(A) U < K

(B) U > K

(C) U = K

(D) 3U = K

Answer: b)

30. The relation between the time period and mean radius of the orbit of a planet about the sun is given by

(A) Newton’s law of gravitation

(B) Keplar’s law

(C) the law of conservation of momentum

(D) conservation of energy law

Answer: b)

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31. If two spherical bodies of equal masses but radii r and 2r are allowed to fall in a liquid, then the ratio of their terminal velocities will be

(A) 1 : 4

(B) 1 : 2

(C) 1 : 32

(D) 2 : 1

Answer: d)

32. The extension of a wire by the application of load is 3 mm. The extension in other wire of the same material and same length but half the radius by the same load is

(A) 12 mm

(B) 0.75 mm

(C) 15 mm

(D) 6 mm

Answer: a)

33. A solid of relative density D is floating in a liquid of density d. If v be the volume of the solid submerged in the liquid and V be the total volume of the solid, then

(A) vV = dD

(B) V/v = D/d

(C) v/V = D/d

(D) DV = (1+d)v

Answer: c)

34. Two pieces of glass plate lying one upon the other with a little water in between them can not be separated easily because of

(A) inertia

(B) pressure

(C) surface tension

(D) viscosity

Answer: c)

35. The temperature of a black body increases from T to 2T. The factor by which the rate of emission of radiation will increase is

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

Answer: d)

36. Dry air at 15oC and 10 atmospheric pressure is suddenly released at atmospheric pressure. The final temperature of the gas (Cp/Cv= 1.41) is

(A) 148 K

(B) 238 K

(C) 273 K

(D) 373 K

Answer: a)

37. At what temperature the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas will become equal to kinetic energy of an electron accelerated from rest through 1V potential difference?

(A) 104 K

(B) 2.34 x 104 K

(C) 7.73 x 103 K

(D) 2.34 x 105 K

Answer: c)

38. If the pressure of a gas is increased then its mean free path becomes

(A) zero

(B) less

(C) more

(D) infinity

Answer: b)

39. A Carnot heat engine working at temperature 300 K and 600 K has a work output 800 J/cycle. The amount of heat energy supplied from the source to engine in each cycle is

(A) 3200 J

(B) 800 J

(C) 1600 J

(D) 640 J

Answer: c)

40. A gas mixture consists of two moles of oxygen and four moles of Argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

(A) 4 RT

(B) 11 RT

(C) 9 RT

(D) 15 RT

Answer: b)

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41. A particle is executing two different mutually perpendicular SHMs of different amplitudes and having a phase difference Physics. The path of the particle will be

(A) straight line

(B) circular

(C) elliptical

(D) parabolic

Answer: c)

42. If x = 4cos wt + 3sin wt is the equation of a particle executing SHM. The initial phase angle is

(A) 38o

(B) 53o

(C) 90o

(D) 93o

Answer: b)

43. A transverse wave described by y = 0.02 sin (x + 30t) propagates on a stretched string of linear density 12 gm-1. The tension in the string is

(A) 2.16 N

(B) 1.08 N

(C) 0.108 N

(D) 0.0108 N

Answer: c)

44. If fundamental frequency of an open pipe is ¦0. Its fundamental frequency when it is half-filled with water is


Answer: a)

45. The speed of sound in a mixture of 1 mole of He and 2 mole of O2 at 270C is

(A) 480 m/s

(B) 621 m/s

(C) 401 m/s

(D) 601 m/s

Answer: c)

46. Two particles P and Q of equal mass carry charges +q and +4q respectively. If these are accelerated from rest through same potential difference then the ratio of their speed will be as

(A) 4 : 1

(B) 1 : 4

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 1 : 2

Answer: d)

47. Electric current will not flow between two charged bodies when mutually connected, if their

(A) capacities are same

(B) potentials are same

(C) charges are same

(D) resistances are same

Answer: b)

48. A thin spherical metallic shell carries a charge Q over its surface. A point charge q1 lies at the centre of this spherical shell and another charge q2 is situated outside the shell. The force on charges on q1 will be

(A) Zero

(B) attractive

(C) repulsive

(D) infinite

Answer: a)

49. When dielectric medium of dielectric constant K is filled between the plates of a charged parallel plate condenser, then the energy stored becomes as compared to previous value as

(A) K times

(B) K-1 times

(C) K-2 times

(D) K2 times

Answer: b)

50. A drop of water of mass 10-6 kg has an electric charge of Physics. The electric field required to balance the drop in air is

(A) 10 V/m upwards

(B) 10 V/m downwards

(C) 0.1 V/m downwards

(D) drop cannot be balanced in air

Answer: a)

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51. There are 0.8 x 1023 free electrons/cm3 in copper. If 0.2 A current is flowing in copper wire, then the drift velocity of electrons will be, if the cross-sectional area of wire is 0.01 cm2

(A) 1.56 x 10-5 m/s

(B) 1.56 x 105 m/s

(C) 108 m/s

(D) 107 m/s

Answer: a)

52. If a resistance R1 is connected to a source of emf then the power consumed is P. If additional resistance R2 is connected in series with R1 then power consumed in R1 will be

(A) P

(B) less than P

(C) more than P

(D) zero

Answer: b)

53. A standard cell of 1.08 Volt is connected in secondary circuit in a potentiometer experiment. The balancing length, in order to obtain a potential gradient of 2 x 10-3 volt/cm, will be

(A) 10.8 m

(B) 5.4 m

(C) 2.7 m

(D) 1 m

Answer: b)

54. The e.m.f. of a thermocouple, one junction of which is kept at 0oC, is given by e = at + bt2. The neutral temperature will be

(A) a/b

(B) - a/b

(C) a/2b

(D) - a/2b

Answer: d)

55. Atomic mass number of zinc is 66 and its valency is 2. The mass of zinc liberated by 9.65 A current in 10 sec will be


Answer: b)

56. A current carrying conductor produces

(A) only electric field

(B) only magnetic field

(C) neither electric nor magnetic field

(D) both electric and magnetic fields

Answer: b)

57. A proton, a deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through same potential difference and then they enter a normal magnetic field. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be

(A) 2 : 1 : 3

(B) 1 : 1 : 2

(C) 1 : 1 : 1

(D) 1 : 2 : 4

Answer: b)

58. A 0.5 m long straight wire in which a current of 1.2 A is flowing is kept at right angle to a uniform magnetic field of 2.0 T. The force acting on the wire will be

(A) 1.2 N

(B) 2.0 N

(C) 2.4 N

(D) 3 N

Answer: a)

59. The area of B-H curve and area of I-H curve are related as

(A) Area of I-H curve > area of B-H curve

(B) Area of I-H curve = area of B-H curve

(C) Area of I-H curve < area of B-H curve

(D) there is no I-H curve

Where H, B and I have their usual meanings

Answer: a)

60. To protect the machine of a watch from external magnetic field, its box should be made of

(A) paramagnetic material

(B) diamagnetic material

(C) ferromagnetic material

(D) non-magnetic material

Answer: c)

61. The flux through each turn of a 100 – turn coil is given by t3 - 2t mWb, where t is in seconds. The induced emf at t = 2 sec is

(A) 1 V

(B) - 1 V

(C) 4 mV

(D) 0.4 V

Answer: b)

62. At what frequency 1 Henry inductance offers same impedance as physics capacitor?

(A) 460 Hz

(B) 512 Hz

(C) 1000 Hz

(D) 159 Hz

Answer: d)

63. A square loop of side 22 cm is changed to a circle in a time of 0.4 s. The magnetic field is 0.2 T. The emf induced is

(A) - 6.6 mV

(B) - 13.2 mV

(C) + 6.6 mV

(D) + 13.2 mV

Answer: a)

64. A pure inductor with AC source gives current lag from emf of


Answer: b)

65. In a series LCR circuit, on increasing the capacity four times, the value of inductance in order to keep the resonant frequency unchanged, will be

(A) L/4

(B) L/2

(C) 2L

(D) 4L

Answer: a)

66. Which one of the following phenomenon can not provide colours from white light?

(A) interference

(B) diffraction

(C) polarization

(D) dispersion

Answer: c)

67. The light rays of different colours do not converse at a point after passing through a conversing lens. This defect is known as

(A) Coma

(B) Spherical aberration

(C) Chromatic aberration

(D) Distribution

Answer: c)

68. Two coherent sources whose intensities ratio is 9:1 produce interference fringes. The ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity in fringe system is

(A) 121:81

(B) 81:1

(C) 11:9

(D) 4:1

Answer: d)

69. In which of the following the final image is erect?

(A) Astronomical telescope

(B) Compound microscope

(C) Simple microscope

(D) None of these

Answer: c)

70. A glass slab is 10 cm thick. The time taken by the light to travel through the slab is

(A) 5 x 10-8 s

(B) 5 x 10-10 s

(C) 3 x 10-10 s

(D) None of these

Answer: b)

71. A proton is bombarded on 65Cu nucleus. As a result, a 64Zn nucleus is produced along

with emission of

(A) two neutrons

(B) one proton

(C) two electrons

(D) one positron

Answer: a)

72. The size of the nucleus is of the order of

(A) 10-9 m

(B) 10-11 m

(C) 10-12 m

(D) 10-14 m

Answer: d)

73. The masses of 22Na and 23Na nuclei are 21.9944 amu and 22.989767 amu, respectively. The binding energy of the last neutron in 23Na nucleus is

(A) 12.4 eV

(B) 124.0 keV

(C) 1.24 keV

(D) 12.4 MeV

Answer: d)

74. The Ka line of an unknown material has energy of 66 keV. Using Bohr model the atomic number Z of the material is

(A) 78

(B) 82

(C) 68

(D) 66

Answer: b)

75. Assuming that there are 5 x 1028 atoms per m3 in copper, the value of Hall coefficient for this material will be as

(A) - 1.50 x 10-9 m3C-1

(B) - 1.50 x 109 m3C-1

(C) - 0.125 x 10-9 m3C-1

(D) 1.125 x 10-9 m3C-1

Answer: c)

76. An LED device has an energy gap of 1.82 eV. The wavelength of the light emitted during recombination is


Answer: a)

77. A semiconducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be

(A) a p-type semiconductor

(B) an n-type semiconductor

(C) a p-n junction

(D) an intrinsic semiconductor

Answer: c)

78. In an n-p-n transistor, the base current is Physics and the collector current is 10 mA. What is the emitter current?

(A) 10.1 mA

(B) 1.01 mA

(C) 0.101 mA

(D) 0.0101 mA

Answer: a)

79. Which of the following represents the logic addition?

(A) 1 + 1 = 10

(B) 1 + 1 = 1

(C) 1 + 1 = 2

(D) None of these

Answer: b)

80. Zener diode is used as a

(A) Rectifier

(B) Amplifier

(C) Oscillator

(D) Voltage regulator

Answer: d)

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting the Physics Paper of KVS TGT 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam.

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