KVS TGT 23rd December 2018 Questions with Answers

In this article, you will get the answers of KVS TGT 2018 Written Exam held on 23rd December 2018. The Written Exam was conducted in offline mode for 592 Post Graduate Teacher (TGT) Vacancies for the subjects Hindi, English, Sanskrit, Science, Maths and Social Studies in the MCQ format.

KVS TGT 23rd December 2018 Questions with Answers
KVS TGT 23rd December 2018 Questions with Answers

Part - I

General English

1. Direction: Improve the underlined phrase, if necessary, with the help of given options.

If I had not told you, You will not know the truth.

(1) You have known not

(2) You would not be knowing

(3) You would not have known

(4) You cannot know

Answer: (3)

2. Direction: Complete the sentence given below by choosing the correct form of verb from options that follow.

Jim came yesterday. I do not know whether he ____________ today.

(1) will have come

(2) will be Coming

(3) shall come

(4) came

Answer: (2)

3. Direction: Complete the sentence given below by using the correct form of the verb from the options that follow.

I do not bother much about money. I ___________ about it all my life.

(1) don't bother

(2) bothered

(3) will ever bother

(4) have never bothered

Answer: (4)

4. Direction: Choose the expression that best describes the word HOODLUM.

(1) a violent criminal

(2) a way-side hawker

(3) a student who hoots and shouts

(4) a neighbour who is rather nosey

Answer: (1)

5. Direction: Identify the Phrase in the following sentence that may be erroneous.

The training programme / takes a form of /

            (1)                                (2)

a series of workshops / for the LDCs and UDCs

          (3)                             (4)

Answer: (2)

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6. Direction: Choose the meaning that best suits the following idiom.

Be bound up with.

(1) be very busy or preoccupied

(2) be overwhelmed by

(3) be uninvolved in

(4) be tied to something for long

Answer: (1)

7. Direction: Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word.


(1) wild

(2) bright

(3) near

(4) sharp

Answer: (2)

8. Direction: Improve the underlined phrase, if necessary, with the help of given options.

George was laid to a rest beside his parents.

(1) lay in rest

(2) laid to rest

(3) lied to rest

(4) lied in rest

Answer: (2)

9. Direction: Choose the expression that best describes the word FALLIBLE.

(1) able to stitch pieces together

(2) that which can he felled easily

(3) apt to make mistakes or go wrong

(4) able to concoct stories

Answer: (3)

10. Direction: Out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word.

A number of tenants have been evicted for not paying the rent.

(1) excused

(2) sent out

(3) thrown out

(4) pardoned

Answer: (3)

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Part – I

General Hindi

11. 'एक तो करेला दूजे नीम चढ़ा' - इस लोकोक्ति के सटीक अर्थ को दिए गए विकल्पों में से चयन कीजिए:

(1) करेले और नीम का रस मिलाना

(2) करेले और नीम का संयोग स्वास्थ्य के लिए हितकर होना ।

(3) एक साथ दो या कई दुर्गुणों का होना

(4) करेले की बेल का नीम के वृक्ष पर चढ़ना

Answer: (3)

12. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द अर्धतत्सम है?

(1) अक्षर

(2) अच्छर

(3) अक्ख

(4) आखर

Answer: (2)

13. ‘जलपिपासु' शब्द में कौन-सा समास है?

(1) तत्पुरुष

(2) द्विगु

(3) बहुब्रीहि

(4) द्वन्द्व

Answer: (1)

14. जिस संज्ञा से पदार्थ में पाए जाने वाले किसी धर्म का बोध होता है, उसे क्या कहते हैं?

(1) भाववाचक संज्ञा

(2) वस्तुवाचक संज्ञा

(3) जातिवाचक संज्ञा

(4) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा

Answer: (1)

15. ‘वाक्यं रसात्मकं काव्यम्' अर्थात् रसात्मक वाक्य ही काव्य है। - काव्यलक्षण के विषय में यह कथन किस आचार्य का है?

(1) विश्वनाथ

(2) पंडित राज जगन्नाथ

(3) मम्मट

(4) भामह

Answer: (1)

16. निम्नलिखित में से 'कामायनी' का काव्य रूप क्या माना जाता है?

(1) एकार्थकाव्य

(2) चरित काव्य

(3) महाकाव्य

(4) खण्डकाव्य

Answer: (3)

17. ‘तपोवन' शब्द में कौन सी संधि है?

(1) व्यंजन संधि

(2) स्वर-व्यंजन संधि

(3) स्वर संधि

(4) विसर्ग संधि

Answer: (4)

18. खड़ी बोली हिन्दी की किस उपभाषा के अन्तर्गत आती है?

(1) पहाड़ी हिन्दी

(2) पश्चिमी हिन्दी

(3) पूर्वी हिन्दी

(4) बिहारी हिन्दी

Answer: (2)

19. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा युग्म असंगत है?

(1) पीना - खाना

(2) आचार - विचार

(3) नोन - तेल

(4) अन्न - जल

Answer: (1)

20. उस मूल ध्वनि को, जिसके खंड न हो सकें - उसे क्या कहते हैं?

(1) प्रत्यय

(2) वर्ण

(3) कृदन्त

(4) शब्द

Answer: (2)

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Part - II

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

21. Who was the chairperson of the expert Committee set up for formulating a Green National Accounting (GNA) System in 2015?

(1) Kaushik Basu

(2) Amartya Sen

(3) Ashok Gulati

(4) Partha Dasgupta

Answer: (4)

22. What is the minimum number of members required for the introduction of No-confidence motion in Lok Sabha?

(1) 50 members

(2) 100 members

(3) 150 members

(4) 75 members

Answer: (1)

23. Which of the following day was observed as the 'world Day of Social Justice'?

(1) January 20, 2018

(2) February 20, 2018

(3) September 20, 2018

(4) March 20, 2018

Answer: (2)

24. Which is the correct chronological Order of the following events?

(a) Khilufat Movement

b) Jalianwala Bagh Massacre

(c) Peasant Movement in Bardoli

(d) Rowlntt Satyagraha


(1) (d), (b), (a), (c)

(2) (a), (d), (b), (c)

(3) (d), (c), (a), (b)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (1)

25. Which of the following is not a part of sustainable Development Goal target to be achieved by 2030?

(1) Equal access to affordable vocational training.

(2) Universal Access to a quality higher education.

(3) Free Higher Education to all

(4) Providing free Primary and Secondary Schooling to all boys and girls.

Answer: (2)

26. Which of the following Indigenous people live in the steppes of Russia?

(1) Bushmen

(2) Kirghiz

(3) Masai

(4) Tvareg

Answer: (2)

27. The Co-contributory pension scheme, 'Swavalamban’ was announced by the Central Government, in the:

(1) Union Budget 2010 - 11

(2) Union Budget 2015 - 16

(3) Union Budget 2016 - 17

(4) Union Budget 2008 - 09

Answer: (2)

28. What is the total geographical area of Seshachalam biosphere reserve?

(1) 4755.9 km2

(2) 765.6 km2

(3) 5520.2 km2

(4) 3000.6 km2

Answer: (1)

29. Which of the following was the first site where Indus Valley Civilization was discovered?

(1) Harappa

(2) Kotdiji

(3) Mohenjodaro

(4) Amri

Answer: (1)

30. The duration of panchayat is:

(1)for five years from the date appointes or its first meeting.

(2) for five years from the date of notification of elections.

(3) for five years from the date of dissolution of the last panchayat.

(4) for five years from the date of announcement of results.

Answer: (1)

31. Suryashakti Kisan Yojana (SKY) to promote generation of Solar energy by farmers is an initiative of which of the following state government?

(1) Rajasthan

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Gujarat

(4) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (3)

32. Which one of the following gases have higher Global Warming Potential?

(1) Methane (CH4)

(2) Nitrous oxide (N2O)

(3) Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6)

(4) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Answer: (3)

33. Which among, the following deposits, produces the 'basket of eggs' topography?

(1) Drumlins

(2) Fluvio deposits

(3) Glacial deposits

(4) Out wash plains

Answer: (1)

34. 'Bhima' is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?

(1) Kavery

(2) Mahanadi

(3) Godavari

(4) Krishna

Answer: (4)

35. In the 2018 Asian games the Gold medal in Men's shot put was won by:

(1) Tejinder Pal Singh Toor

(2) Neeraj Chopra

(3) Dharun Ayyasami

(4) Muhammad Anas Yahya

Answer: (1)

36. Keystone species are:

(1) Species that influences its Comnunity by creating, modifying, or maintaining physical habitat for itself and other species.

(2) Species that have significant effect on energy flow and structure of their Communities.

(3) Species that arrive to inhabit areas first where no life existed earlier.

(4) Conmunity at the equilibrium state with the environment.

Answer: (1)

37. Which state of India launched "Aahar”, a scheme for providing subsidised food to Urban poor?

(1) Odisha

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Uttar Pradesh

(4) Delhi

Answer: (1)

38. The title 'golden pen' awarded to calligraphers at the Mughal court was known as:

(1) Roshan qalam

(2) Shireen qalam

(3) Karntarin qalam

(4) Ambarin qalam

Answer: (1)

39. The Chola temple of chidambram belongs to which of the following religious group?

(1) Nayanars

(2) Jaina

(3) Vedic

(4) Alvars

Answer: (3)

40. Who is known as the Architect of Indian Planning?

(1) K.N. Raj

(2) P.C. Mahalanobis

(3) John Matthai

(4) Sukhamoy Chakravarty

Answer: (2)

41. Match the Directive Principles in List - II with the Articles from the constitution of India mentioned in List - I.

List – I

List – II

(a) Article 41

(b) Article 39A

(c) Article 12

(d) Article 50

(i) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

(ii) Right to work

(iii) Just and Human conditions of work and Maternity relief

(iv) Equal Justice and free legal aid


     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer: (4)

42. Match the economists in List - I with the development principles associated with them in List - II.

List – I

List – II

(a) P.C. Mahalanobis

(b) K.N. Raj

(c) J.C. Kumarappa

(d) Verghese Kurien

(i) Co-operative model for generating employment and elimination of poverty

(ii) Strengthening the agricultural sectors

(iii) Rapid industrialisation and strengthening the public sector

(iv) Rural industrialisation


     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (2)

43. Under which of the following laws was the confession of a co-accused before police authority was allowed to be submitted as evidence against the accused?

(1) UAPA, 1967

(2) POTA, 2002

(3) TADA, 1985

(4) AFSPA, 1958

Answer: (3)

44. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Events in Buddha’s representation)

List - II (Symbolic Life)

(a) Birth

(b) Enlightenment

(c) First sermon

(d) Demise

(i) Bodhi Tree

(ii) Chakra

(iii) Elephant

(iv) Stupa


      (a)  (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (2)

45. Which one of the following types of climate is experienced in the mountaineous region of

Himalayas, Andes and Alps'?

(1) Tropical Climate

(2) The High lands Climate

(3) Humid Micro-thermal Climate

(4) Polar Climate

Answer: (4)

46. Under Koeppen's scheme of classification of climate, which of the following characteristic refers 'Warm Temperate'?

(1) Potential Evaporation exceeds precipitation.

(2) The average temperature of the coldest month of the (mid-latitude) climate years is higher than minus 3°C but below 18°C.

(3) Average temperature for all months is below 10°C.

(4) Average temperature of the coldest month is 18°C or higher.

Answer: (4)

47. Who is the Chairman of Fifteenth Finance Commission?

(1) Y.V. Reddy

(2) N.K. Singh

3) Ashok Lahiri

(4) Ramesh Chand

Answer: (2)

48. Which among the following Women's team was the Champion in the world Table Tennis Championships of 2018?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) Japan

(4) India

Answer: (1)

49. ‘SASHAKT’ is a programme launched by the Government of India in July 2018:

(1) to empower women in rural areas.

(2) to provide institutional Credit to marginal farmers in rural areas.

(3) to ensure Community participation in development projects.

(4) for the resolution of stressed assets with PSU Banks.

Answer: (4)

50. Which of the following statemente refers ‘Endemic Species'?

(1) Species which are only found in some particular areas usually isolated by natural or geographical barriers.

(2) Species with small population may move into the endangered/vulnerable category if the negative factors affecting them continue to operate.

(3) Species whose population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate.

(4) Species which are not found after searches of known or likely areas where they may occur.

Answer: (1)

51. When there is n Prolonged Period of Inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space is called as:

(1) Hydrological Drought

(2) Meteorological Drought

(3) Ecological Drought

(4) Agricultural Drought

Answer: (1)

52. In which of the following geographical regions Al-Biruni was born in 973?

(1) Turkrnenistan

2) Uzbekistan

(3) Afghanistan

(4) Tajikistan

Answer: (2)

53. Below sea level paddy farming is practised at which of the following places?

(1) Mangalore

(2) Kuttanad

(3) The Ziro valley

(4) Thanjavur

Answer: (2)

54. Who among the following was recently named as “Best Sports Person of India” by the Kolkata Sports Journalists' Club?

(1) Arun Lal

(2) Safiqui Mondol

(3) Sunil Chhetri

(4) Aroon Ghosh

Answer: (3)

55. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:



(a) Jahaz Mahal

(b) Angh Palace

(c) Writers Building

(d) Fort St. George

(i) Tamil Nadu

(ii) west Bengal

(iii) Madhya Pradesh

(iv) Nagaland


      (a)  (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (1)

56. Which among the following won the ‘Oscar’ for the best picture at the 2018 Academy awards?

(1) Darkest Flour

(2) All the Money in the World

(3) The Shape of Water

(4) Dunkirk

Answer: (3)

57. Who among the following was the author of the novel ‘The Woman in the window’ published in 2018?

(1) A.J. Finn

(2) Laura Marshall

(3) Tara westover

(4) Krishin hannah

Answer: (1)

58. Which among the following is largest fresh water lake in India?

(1) Reindeer

(2) Malawi

(3) Wooler

(4) Ladoga

Answer: (3)

59. Which among the following is not a part of the Part III of the Constitution of India?

(1) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

(2) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against him self.

(3) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

(4) Separation of judiciary from executive.

Answer: (4)

60. Which of the following agency published the 'World Happiness Report'?

(1) United Nations

(2) WHO

(3) The World Bank

(4) UNDP

Answer: (1)

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Part - II

Reasoning Ability

61. In a family there are four sisters. Among them Navnoor is younger to Manvi but older than Toshana. Sadhika is older than Toshana but younger than Navnoor. The oldest one is allotted no. 1 and no. 4 is allotted to the youngest. Who is number 2 among them?

(1) Toshana Sacihika

(2) Sadhika

(3) Manvi

(4) Navnoor

Answer: (4)

62. A statement is given followed by four conclusions as alternatives. Without resolving anything yourself, choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statement.

Statement: Most toys in that shop are expensive.


(1) Only Japanese toys in that shop are expensive.

(2) There are cheap toys also in that shop.

(3) There are no cheap toys available in that shop.

(4) Some toys in that shop are expensive.

Answer: (2)

63. Ravi and Mohan are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Sachin and Ravi are good in Cricket and Baseball. Gaurav and Mohan are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Sachin, Gaurav and Michael are good in Football and Baseball. Who are good in Hockey and Volleyball?

(1) Ravi, Mohan and Sachin

(2) Ravi, Mohan and Gaurav

(3) Mohan, Gaurav and Michael

(4) Gaurav, Sachin and Mohan

Answer: (2)

64. An address is presented below. Find EXACTLY SAME from the given alternatives.

Mr A. Acharyulu

38 Triplican

Bhubaneshwar - 560065

(1) Mr. A Acharyulu

38 Triplican

Bhubaneshwar- 560065

(2) Mr A. Acharyulu

38 Triplicane

Bhubaneshwar - 560065

(3) Mr A. Acharyulu

38 Triplican

Bhubaneshwar - 560065

(4) Mr A. Acharyulu

38 Triplican

Bhuvneshwar - 560065

Answer: (3)

65. Five ladies A, B, C, D, E are sitting in a line facing south. Five men L, M, N, 0, P are sitting in a line parallel to above line facing north.

(i) A and L are diagonally opposite to each other.

(ii) M is at one end of line.

(iii) D is just to the left of E and is opposite to O.

(iv) P is just to the left of M and is opposite to B.

(v) E is opposite to N who is just right to L.

Which man is sitting in the middle of his line?

(1) L

(2) O

(3) P

(4) N

Answer: (2)

66. Select the correct option which is related to the third term in the same way as second term is related to the first:

KCA : HBE : : EBH : ?

(1) CBM

(2) CGE

(3) BCM

(4) CBE

Answer: (2)

Answer: (4)


Answer: (4)

69. On which day of the week did 6th September 1996 fall?

(1) Wednesday

(2) Friday

(3) Sunday

(4) Tuesday

Answer: (2)

Answer: (2)

Answer: (3)

72. Insert the Missing number:

821      (40)      779

875      (42)      889

?          (44)      999

(1) 919

(2) 929

(3) 937

(4) 947

Answer: (2)

Answer: (2)

Answer: (3)

75. Which one of the given responses would be a dictionary order of the following words?

(a) Epitaph

(b) Epilogue

(c) Epigraph

(d) Epithet

(e) Epileptic


(1) (c), (e), (b), (d), (a)

(2) (c), (e), (b), (a), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (e), (d), (a)

(4) (e), (b), (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (2)

76. Select the correct option which is related to the third term in the same way as second term related to the first:

1 2 3 4 : 24 : : 3 1 5 4 : ?

(1) 44

(2) 60

(3) 35

(4) 54

Answer: (2)

Answer: (4)

Answer: (2)

Answer: (2)

80. Six years ago Dhruv was twice of his sister Reema in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 4 : 3. What is Reema's present age?

(1) 15 years

(2) 12 years

(3) 9 years

(4) 6 years

Answer: (3)

Answer: (2)

82. Choose the correct option from the given ones which will complete the series.


(1) KPJM

(2) KMIN

(3) KPLO

(4) KQNR

Answer: (3)

83. Four groups of numbers are given. One of them is different from others on some basis. Identify it.

(1) 12, 24, 48, 36

(2) 8, 16, 32, 24

(3) 15, 30 60, 45

(4) 9, 18, 45, 27

Answer: (4)

84. What is the price of the ball?

Statement (I): Total Price of the hockey stick and the ball is Rs. 650.

Statement (II): Price of the hockey sticks is Rs. 20 more than twice the cost of the ball.

(1) Data in statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(2) Data in statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(3) Data in both the statements is necessary to answer the question.

(4) Data in statements (I) and (II) is not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (3)

85. Pointing to a boy, Shashi says, 'He is the son of my grandfather's only child.’ How is the boy related to Shashi?

(1) Brother

(2) Cousin

(3) Uncle

(4) Aunt

Answer: (1)

86. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements?


(A) All pens are books.

(B) All erasers are books.


(I) Some pens are erasers.

(II) Some books are pens.

(1) Only conclusion (I) follows.

(2) Only conclusion (II) follows.

(3) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

(4) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Answer: (3)

87. Study the following table regarding maize production in lakh tonnes in 5 states of India and answer the question that follows:

In which state the production of maize has been continuously increasing every year?

(1) (B)

(2) (C)

(3) (D)

(4) (E)

Answer: (4)

88. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term:

Tennis : Court : : Cricket : ?

(1) Ring

(2) Ground

(3) Pitch

(4) Stadium

Answer: (2)

89. In a queue P is standing 15th from the front and Q is standing 21st from the last. R is standing between P and Q. There are 7 students between P and R whereas there are 6 students between R and Q. Total number of students in the queue is:

(1) 48

(2) 49

(3) 50

(4) 51

Answer: (3)

90. Select the one which is different from other three groups of letters in some respect.

(1) DHLP

(2) MQUY

(3) JNRV

(4) TYDI

Answer: (4)

91. If 84 + 29 = 15 and 52 + 16 = 10, following the same logic the value of 83 + 25 is:

(1) 17

(2) 13

(3) 9

(4) 12

Answer: (4)

Answer: (2)

93. A word is given. It is followed by four other words. One out of the four words cannot be formed by using the letters of given word. Find that word.






Answer: (4)

94. Select the one which is different from the other three alternatives:

(1) Link

(2) Bond

(3) Hook

(4) Connect

Answer: (3)

95. In a code language PRINT is written as RQGOS. How will DREAM be written as, in the same code language?





Answer: (1)

96. In a code language the word ‘TRIP’ is denoted as ‘QJSIT’. The word corresponding to code ‘LSPD’ is.

(1) ROCK

(2) CORK

(3) PORK

(4) RUCK

Answer: (2)

97. George goes 4 km toward East from the school. He turns to the right and walks 3 km. Again takes a turn to the right, and walks 2 km to reach his house. In which direction George's house is located from school?

(1) South-East

(2) East

(3) North

(4) North-West

Answer: (1)

98. If 24 = 72 and 53 = 152 then the value of 36 is:

(1) 243

(2) 225

(3) 326

(4) 189

Answer: (1)

99. A Cube is coloured blue on all the faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller cubes. These cubes are now separated. The number of smaller cubes with no surface coloured is:

(1) 4

(2) 8

(3) 16

(4) 12

Answer: (2)

100. Jayati travels 12 km to the North, turns left and travels 6 km, and then again turns right and covers another 7 km and then turns right and travels another 6 km. How far is she from the starting point?

(1) 25km

(2) 13km

(3) 18 Km

(4) 19 Km

Answer: (4)

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Part - II

Computer Literacy

101. Which of the following tasks can be done using MS Excel?

(a) Preparing students' result

(b) Storing names of Indian classical singers with the Gharana

(c) Playing music video

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (1)

102. VGA is:

(1) Volatile Graphics Array

(2) Video Graphics Adapter

(3) Video Graphics Array

(4) Visual Graphics Array

Answer: (3)

103. Devices that enter information into the computer and communicate with it are called ___________ devices.

(1) Output

(2) Input

(3) Hardware

(4) Storage

Answer: (2)

104. _________ is used to carry digital data on analog lines.

(1) Multiplexer

(2) Modulator

(3) Modem

(4) Demodulator

Answer: (3)

105. Action of using the mouse to move an item on computer screen to a new location is called:

(1) Copy and Paste

(2) Cut and Paste

(4) Drag and Drop

(4) Plug and Play

Answer: (3)

106. Which of the following options contains extensions of MS-Office files?

(1) xlsx, docx, pdfx

(2) xlsx, docx, pptx

(3) xls, doc, pdf

(4) ppt, doc, pdf

Answer: (2)

107. The numeric data entered in the worksheet (MS Excel) is __________ aligned by default.

(1) Centre

(2) Left

(3) Right

(4) Top

Answer: (3)

108. Which of the following tasks is possible in slide show of MS PowerPoint?

(a) Browsing a website

(b) Playing a YouTube video

(c) Preparing result of the class

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

109. All data in the computer system is represented as _________.

(1) only two numbers - 0 and 1

(2) numbers and alphabets

(3) numbers, alphabets and symbols like +, -, *, $ etc.

(4) numbers and alphabets of all languages that appear on the keyboard

Answer: (1)

110. A disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a ____________.

(1) Time bomb

(2) Trojan horse

(3) Virus

(4) Time - related bomb sequence

Answer: (3)

Part – II


111. The main objective of continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) is ___________.

(1) help teacher complete the course

(2) lay emphasis on thought process and de-emphasize memorisation

(3) satisfy parents with childrens’ progress

(4) help authorities monitor school functioning

Answer: (2)

112. Students with low sense of self-efficacy attribute their poor performance to:

(1) lack of ability

(2) lack of effort

(3) misunderstanding of directions

(4) not studying effort

Answer: (2)

113. The training courses for special education are regulated by:

(1) National Council of Teacher Education

(2) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(3) Ministry of Social Defence

(4) Rehabilitation Council of India

Answer: (1)


114. When a teacher sets a task that is above the student’s current ability level, she is likely to:

(1) repeat the same content a number of times.

(2) create a communication barrier.

(3) generate interest and motivation among children.

(4) minimize the effect of noise.

Answer: (1)

115. The first satellite for serving the education sector is:


(2) INSAT - B

(3) INSAT - C


Answer: (1)

116. A child with visual impairment maximizes learning with the help of

(1) tactile inputs

(2) kinaesthetic system

(3) auditory system

(4) learning aids

Answer: (3)

117. The main argument in favour of the textbooks is:

(1) Testbooks are easily available.

(2) Textbooks help in developing creativity of the learners.

(3) Textbooks ascertain a minimun of authentic content to be covered by the learners.

(4) Textbooks cost less.

Answer: (3)

118. In a selection test pass outs of different boards are competing. What is the best technique to interpret their scores on achievement?

(1) Medians of respective boards

(2) T Score

(3) t test

(4) Range of respective boards

Answer: (2)

119. A teacher makes a conscious effort to behave in an acceptable manner with the expectation that the students will respond similarly. Which of the following principle explains teacher’s behaviour?

(1) Shaping

(2) Modelling

(3) Cueing

(4) Reinforcement

Answer: (4)

120. Spearman’s theory of intelligence is to Thorndike's as:

(1) qualitative is to quantitative

(2) culture-free is to culture fair

(3) innate is to acquired

(4) verbal is to performance

Answer: (4)

121. A Unit of teaching can have

(1) only one chapter

(2) only one concept

(3) several chapters

(4) one chapter with one concept only

Answer: (3)

122. An indigenous teaching aid is not

(1) costly

(2) made of material from far away place

(3) locally developed

(4) relevant

Answer: (2)

123. In order to be of maximum effectiveness the reinforcement of a given response must:

(1) follow immediately upon the response.

(2) precede rather than follow the response.

(3) be of maximum strength.

(4) involve simultaneous reward of correct responses and punishment of incorrect Ones.

Answer: (1)

124. If a student in your class is comfortable using his/her left hand what would you do as a teacher?

(1) Discourage him to use his/her left hand

(2) Ignore it

(3) Seek medical Help

(4) Allow him to use hand according to his/her preference

Answer: (4)

125. The “law of effect” implies:

(1) Learning or non-learning of a response is related to the satisfaction it provides.

(2) extrinsic rewards must be applied for right responses.

(3) for learning to take place the learner must have a motive and a goal clearly recognized.

(4) extrinsic punishment must be applied for wrong responses.

Answer: (1)

126. Which of the following is not a developmental disorder?

(1) Dyslexia

(2) Autistic spectrum Disorder

(3) ADHD

(4) cerebral palsy

Answer: (1)

127. Combining computing, telecommunication and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as:

(1) online communication

(2) integrated media

(3) chat-room

(4) convergence

Answer: (2)

128. Adjusting assessments, materials, curriculum or classroom environment to accommodate a student’s need so that s/he can participate in and achieve the teaching/learning goals is known as:

(1) adaptation

(2) assimilation

(3) modification

(4) Individualized Education Programme

Answer: (4)

129. What is the greatest obstacle in inclusion?

(1) Social barriers

(2) Wastage of time in Communication

(3) Misunderstanding

(4) Physical Barriers

Answer: (1)

130. Which one of the following cannot be a criterion while designing curriculum?

(1) Educational level of parents

(2) Performance of learners in last examination

(3) Abilities of the learners

(4) Aspirations of the learners

Answer: (1)

131. In which of the following curricular approaches, the learner enjoys maximum autonomy?

(1) Subject centred approach

(2) Teacher Centred approach

(3) Activity Centred approach

(4) Experience Centred approach

Answer: (3)

132. The central idea/s in constructivist views of learning is/are

(i) Learners are active in constructing their own knowledge

(ii) Prior knowledge and beliefs of students are key inputs

(iii) Teachers hnve deep conceptual knowledge

(iv) Social interactions are important in knowledge construction

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (4)

133. When a student can correctly categorize a geometrical shape, she/he demonstrates:

(1) declarative knowledge

(2) self-regulatory knowledge

(3) procedural knowledge

(4) conditional knowledge

Answer: (4)

134. Which of the following resources has maximum scope of Social development of learners?

(1) Museum

(2) Laboratories

(3) Community

(4) Library

Answer: (3)

135. Which of the following are 'being needs’ in Maslow’s (1970) hierarchy of needs?

(i) esteem needs

(ii) cognitive needs

(iii) aesthetic needs

(iv) love and belongingness


(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i) and (iv)

(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (2)

136. The IEDC (Integrated Education for the Disabled) was first launched during:

(1) 1960s

(2) 1970s

(3) 1980

(4) 1990

Answer: (2)

137. Learning by doing and experiencing the consequences of your actions is

(1) operant conditioning

(2) vicarious learning

(3) enactive learning

(4) problem solving

Answer: (3)

138. Which one of the following is used to encourage students' interaction?\

(1) Language games

(2) Drama

(3) Debate

(4) Music

Answer: (1)

139. Which is the most important skill to promote effective communication?

(1) Risk taking

(2) Quick responding

(3) Active listening

(4) Non-verbal cues

Answer: (3)

140. Insight may he defined as:

(1) a form of intuition closely related to instinct.

(2) a systematic application of the scientific method to the solution of a problem.

(3) a sudden reorganization of experience

(4) a form of inspiration involved in Creativity.

Answer: (1)

141. Slapping and Spanking children is not considered appropriate for disciplining children. Which of the following technique/s would you recommend as an alternative to harsh punishment?

(i) Time - out

(ii) Withdrawal or privileges

(iii) Modelling

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) Only

(3) (i) and (ii)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (3)

142. Summative assessment is not usually used for:

(1) Remediation

(2) Awarding grades

(3) Promotion to next grades

(4) Classification

Answer: (1)

143. Who is credited for giving a curricular model?

(1) Ausubel

(2) Hilda Taba

(3) Piaget

(4) Guilford

Answer: (2)

144. According to PWD Act. 1995, a person with disability is one who suffers from not less than _________________% of any disability as identified by a medical authority.

(1) 40%

(2) 30%

(3) 50%

(4) 60%

Answer: (1)

145. The Information and Communication Technology (ICT) has not been able to again momentum in Indian rural schools because:

(1) In rural areas there is power failure most of the time.

(2) Rural population has not a very favourable mindset for ICT.

(3) ICT is a costly affair.

(4) ICT involves complex terminology.

Answer: (3)

146. Which of the following is a better strategy for teaching children with special needs?

(1) Discussion in the class room involving maximum number of students.

(2) Demonstration by teacher involving students.

(3) Cooperative learning and peer tutoring

(4) Ability grouping for teaching

Answer: (3)

147. 'People’s beliefs about their capabilities to produce designated levels of performance that exercise influence over events that affect their lives’ are known by the term

(1) self Concept

(2) self Esteem

(3) self Worth

(4) self Efficacy

Answer: (4)

148. What is the name of the process of making value judgments based on quantitative/qualitative data collected over a period of time?

(1) Examination

(2) Measurement

(3) Assessment

(4) Evaluation

Answer: (4)

149. While teaching as per a lesson plan, generally teachers give least weightage to:

(1) Testing previous knowledge

(2) Motivatory questions

(3) Presentation

(4) Blackboard writing

Answer: (2)

150. A child with impairment may experience disability when

(1) he/she is reprimanded for incomplete tasks.

(2) his/her performance at a task is not appreciate by teacher in the class.

(3) he/she is functioning in an environment that impacts child’s successful performance at a task.

(4) he/she is constantly compared to other children who perform well in certain tasks.

Answer: (4)

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