CBSE Class 12 Chemistry: In order to prepare for the CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Half Yearly Exam 2025, one must regularly practice answering objective-style questions in addition to having a solid conceptual grasp. One of the best methods to assess application abilities and conceptual clarity is through multiple-choice questions (MCQs). The Top 50 MCQs for CBSE Class 12 Chemistry have been collected to assist students in efficiently revising. The NCERT syllabus's key chapters are the basis for these questions, which will act as a rapid study aid prior to the test.
CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Exam Pattern 2025-26
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marks per Question | Total Marks |
SECTION A | Multiple Choice Questions | 16 | 1 | 16 |
SECTION B | Short Answer Questions | 5 | 2 | 10 |
SECTION C | Short Answer Questions | 7 | 3 | 21 |
SECTION D | Case-Based Questions | 2 | 4 | 8 |
SECTION E | Long Answer Questions | 3 | 5 | 15 |
Important Instructions for Students:
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Attempt all MCQs carefully before checking the answers.
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Practice solving without referring to textbooks for effective self-assessment.
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The answer key is provided at the end in tabular form for quick reference.
Related: CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Syllabus 2025-26
Top 50 Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Half Yearly Exam 2025-26
Q1. Which type of solid is diamond?
(a) Molecular solid
(b) Ionic solid
(c) Covalent solid
(d) Metallic solid
Q2. The coordination number of Na+ in NaCl crystal is:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 12
Q3. In Schottky defect:
(a) Equal number of cations and anions are missing
(b) Only cations are missing
(c) Only anions are missing
(d) None of these
Q4. A solution that obeys Raoult’s law is called:
(a) Non-ideal solution
(b) Ideal solution
(c) Azeotropic mixture
(d) Colloidal solution
Q5. Which colligative property is used to determine the molar mass of a solute?
(a) Osmotic pressure
(b) Vapour pressure
(c) Surface tension
(d) Viscosity
Q6. Henry’s law is related to:
(a) Solid in liquid
(b) Gas in liquid
(c) Liquid in liquid
(d) Gas in solid
Q7. The standard reduction potential of hydrogen electrode is:
(a) +1 V
(b) 0 V
(c) –1 V
(d) 2.303 V
Q8. Conductivity of a solution decreases with:
(a) Increase in concentration
(b) Decrease in temperature
(c) Increase in temperature
(d) Increase in dilution
Q9. In a galvanic cell, the flow of current is:
(a) From anode to cathode externally
(b) From cathode to anode externally
(c) From salt bridge to cathode
(d) None of the above
Q10. The unit of rate constant for a first-order reaction is:
(a) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
(b) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
(c) s⁻¹
(d) No unit
Q11. Which factor does not affect the rate of a reaction?
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Catalyst
(d) Molecularity
Q12. The slope of a straight line obtained by plotting log [R] versus time gives:
(a) Activation energy
(b) Order of reaction
(c) Rate constant
(d) Molecularity
Q13. The process of removing colloidal particles by shaking with electrolyte is called:
(a) Coagulation
(b) Peptization
(c) Dialysis
(d) Electrophoresis
Q14. Tyndall effect is observed in:
(a) True solutions
(b) Colloidal solutions
(c) Suspensions only
(d) Both colloids and suspensions
Q15. Which type of adsorption decreases with increase in temperature?
(a) Chemical adsorption
(b) Physical adsorption
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Q16. Which of the following is an ore of aluminium?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Galena
(c) Hematite
(d) Magnetite
Q17. The method of zone refining is based on the principle of:
(a) Volatility
(b) Fractional distillation
(c) Fractional crystallization
(d) Greater solubility of impurities in the melt
Q18. Froth flotation process is used for the concentration of:
(a) Sulphide ores
(b) Oxide ores
(c) Halide ores
(d) None
Q19. Which is the heaviest halogen?
(a) Iodine
(b) Bromine
(c) Astatine
(d) Fluorine
Q20. Which gas is known as laughing gas?
(a) N₂O
(b) NO₂
(c) N₂O₃
(d) NO
Q21. Which of the following is the most electronegative element?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Chlorine
(c) Fluorine
(d) Nitrogen
Q22. Which among the following is a transition element?
(a) Zn
(b) Cu
(c) Ca
(d) Mg
Q23. Potassium dichromate is:
(a) Oxidising agent
(b) Reducing agent
(c) Both
(d) Neutral
Q24. Which ion imparts blue colour to aqueous solutions?
(a) Fe²⁺
(b) Cu²⁺
(c) Mn²⁺
(d) Zn²⁺
Q25. The coordination number of Co in [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is:
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 8
Q26. The ligand in [Ni(CO)₄] is:
(a) CO
(b) Ni
(c) Both
(d) None
Q27. Which of the following is an ambidentate ligand?
(a) CN⁻
(b) NH₃
(c) H₂O
(d) CO
Q28. The C–X bond strength is highest in:
(a) C–F
(b) C–Cl
(c) C–Br
(d) C–I
Q29. Which reaction mechanism is followed by tertiary haloalkanes?
(a) SN1
(b) SN2
(c) E1
(d) E2
Q30. Which of the following is used as a refrigerant?
(a) CFCs
(b) Alcohol
(c) Ether
(d) CO₂
Q31. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is:
(a) Methanol
(b) Propanol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Butanol
Q32. Phenol on reaction with FeCl₃ gives:
(a) Blue-violet colour
(b) White precipitate
(c) Brown ring
(d) Yellow colour
Q33. Williamson synthesis is used for the preparation of:
(a) Alcohols
(b) Ethers
(c) Phenols
(d) Aldehydes
Q34. Fehling’s test is used to distinguish:
(a) Aldehydes and ketones
(b) Alcohols and phenols
(c) Acids and esters
(d) Amines and amides
Q35. Which reaction converts aldehydes into alcohols?
(a) Reduction
(b) Oxidation
(c) Substitution
(d) Hydrolysis
Q36. The functional group –COOH represents:
(a) Carboxylic acid
(b) Aldehyde
(c) Ketone
(d) Ester
Q37. Aniline reacts with bromine water to give:
(a) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
(b) Monobromoaniline
(c) p-Bromoaniline
(d) None
Q38. Hinsberg’s test is used to distinguish:
(a) Primary, secondary, and tertiary amines
(b) Aldehydes and ketones
(c) Alcohols and phenols
(d) Acids and esters
Q39. Which of the following is not an amine?
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(c) C₂H₅OH
(d) (CH₃)₃N
Q40. The building blocks of proteins are:
(a) Nucleotides
(b) Amino acids
(c) Monosaccharides
(d) Fatty acids
Q41. The deficiency of insulin causes:
(a) Diabetes
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Asthma
Q42. Which vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Q43. Nylon-6 is obtained from:
(a) Caprolactam
(b) Hexamethylenediamine
(c) Adipic acid
(d) Ethylene glycol
Q44. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) Nylon
(b) Bakelite
(c) Rubber
(d) PVC
Q45. The monomer of polystyrene is:
(a) Styrene
(b) Ethylene
(c) Propylene
(d) Vinyl chloride
Q46. Which drug is used as a tranquilizer?
(a) Valium
(b) Ranitidine
(c) Omeprazole
(d) Aspirin
Q47. Aspirin is used as:
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Anti-inflammatory
(d) All of these
Q48. Detergents are sodium salts of:
(a) Fatty acids
(b) Alkyl benzene sulphonic acids
(c) Carboxylic acids
(d) Amines
Q49. Which of the following is an antihistamine?
(a) Chlorpheniramine
(b) Penicillin
(c) Aspirin
(d) Ofloxacin
Q50. Artificial sweetener saccharin is:
(a) 300 times sweeter than sucrose
(b) 500 times sweeter than sucrose
(c) Equal to sucrose
(d) 100 times sweeter than sucrose
Answer Key for CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs (Half Yearly 2026)
Q.No. | Answer | Q.No. | Answer |
1 | c | 26 | a |
2 | a | 27 | a |
3 | a | 28 | a |
4 | b | 29 | a |
5 | a | 30 | a |
6 | b | 31 | c |
7 | b | 32 | a |
8 | d | 33 | b |
9 | a | 34 | a |
10 | c | 35 | a |
11 | d | 36 | a |
12 | c | 37 | a |
13 | a | 38 | a |
14 | b | 39 | c |
15 | b | 40 | b |
16 | a | 41 | a |
17 | d | 42 | c |
18 | a | 43 | a |
19 | c | 44 | c |
20 | a | 45 | a |
21 | c | 46 | a |
22 | b | 47 | d |
23 | a | 48 | b |
24 | b | 49 | a |
25 | b | 50 | a |
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