UPSC EPFO Exam 2025: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts the exam for EO/AO (Enforcement Officers/Accounts Officers) and APFC under Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) which is scheduled for 30 November 2025. To maximize your chances of selection, go through these 50+ must-revise questions and important topics compiled from previous years’ papers that can be very helpful in your last minute revision. This quick revision can help you boost confidence and clarity the day before your exam.
UPSC EPFO 2025
The UPSC will conduct the EPFO exam on 30 November 2025 for the posts of EO/AO and APFC. The exam will be held in offline (pen-and-paper OMR based) mode, consisting of objective type MCQs. There will be a total of 120 questions asked in two hours. Each correct answer fetches 2.5 marks, and there is also a provision for negative marking. Each incorrect response will fetch one-third negative mark.
The Language medium for the UPSC EPFO exam is English and Hindi (except for the General English section, which is only in English).
Those candidates who will be shortlisted after the written examination will appear for an Interview/Personality Test carrying 100 marks. Final selection is based on combined merit.
Check the UPSC EPFO 2025 Exam Timings
UPSC EPFO 2025 Important Topics
These important topics for the UPSC EPFO exam 2025 have been taken based on previous year trends. Have a look at these topics:
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General English: Gammar, vocabulary, comprehension, fill in the blanks, error detection, reading comprehension, para-jumbles, antonyms/synonyms.
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Indian Freedom Struggle / History & Heritage: major movements, freedom fighters, key events and laws, independence history.
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Indian Polity & Economy + Governance and Constitution: constitution basics, polity structure, economic issues, social security, labour laws.
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Current Affairs & Development Issues: national and international developments, socio-economic issues, recent events.
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General Accounting Principles / Industrial Relations / Labour Laws / Social Security in India.
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Quantitative Aptitude / General Mental Ability / Statistics / Elementary Maths.
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General Science & Basics of Computer Applications.
UPSC EPFO 2025: 50+ Must-Revise Questions with Answers
Q1. In a worksheet, which one of the following is not a cell referencing style?
(a) Relative referencing
(b) Real-time referencing
(c) Absolute referencing
(d) Mixed referencing
Answer: Option B
Q2. Which one among the following is used to combine several object modules and libraries to a single executable program?
(a) Interpreter
(b) Compiler
(c) Linker
(d) Loader
Answer: Option C
Q3. If the length of a current carrying wire is halved, for a given potential difference, the current in the wire would:
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) remain unchanged
(d) become zero
Answer: Option A
Q4. Crystals of copper sulphate pentahydrate, on heating, form:
(a) blue colour salt
(b) white colour salt
(c) green colour salt
(d) brown colour salt
Answer: Option B
Q5. Tartaric acid is found in:
(a) Tamarind
(b) Tomato
(c) Orange
(d) Vinegar
Answer: Option A
Q6. Which one of the following was not provided in the Regulating Act of 1773?
(a) It made the Presidency of Bengal supreme over those of Bombay and Madras in matters relating to war and peace.
(b) The tenure of the Governor-General and his Councillors was fixed as five years.
(c) The Supreme Court of Justice was established at Calcutta.
(d) The Governor-General-in-Council was authorized to appoint successors to Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
Answer: Option D
Q7. Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act of 1935 is not correct?
(a) It was an outcome of the Round Table Conferences.
(b) It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation
(c) It retained the authority of the Secretary of State over the Government of India.
(d) It introduced the provision of Provincial Autonomy.
Answer: Option C
Q8. Who among the following started the Bhonsala Military School at Nashik?
(a) V.D. Savarkar
(b) M.R. Jayakar
(c) N.C. Kelkar
(d) B.S. Moonje
Answer: Option D
Q9. Arrange the following events associated with Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya in chronological order, starting with the earliest:
1. Founding of the Banaras Hindu University
2. Formation of the Congress Nationalist Party
3. Founding of the English newspaper ‘The Leader’
4. Founding of the Hindu Boarding House at Allahabad
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(a) 3-4-1-2
(b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 3-4-2-1
Answer: Option B
Q10. An employee shall be covered under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, should the employee be drawing a maximum monthly wage of:
(a) Rupees fifteen thousand
(b) Rupees eighteen thousand
(c) Rupees twenty-one thousand
(d) Rupees twenty-four thousand
Answer: Option D
Q11. A minimum rate of remuneration which shall be applied to an employee working on piece work for the purpose of securing to such employees a minimum rate of wages on a time work basis under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is known as:
(a) A minimum piece rate
(b) A guaranteed time rate
(c) A minimum time rate
(d) A guaranteed piece rate
Answer: Option B
Q12. How many members are to be nominated by the Central Government to the National Social Security Board as per the provisions of the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act,2008?
(a) Eighteen
(b) Twenty
(c) Twenty-six
(d) Thirty-four
Answer: Option D
Q13. Which one of the following schemes is not a Social Security Scheme under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act,2008?
(a) National Family Benefit Scheme
(b) Janshree Bima Yojana
(c) Employees’ Pension Scheme
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
Answer: Option C
Q14. Which one of the following authorities constituted by the Central Government shall be the Appellate Authority under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
(a)Employees Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal
(b) National Tribunal
(c) Labour Appellate Tribunal
(d) Industrial Tribunal
Answer: Option D
Q15. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the maximum period for which a female employee shall be entitled to leave with wages as maternity benefit for giving birth to the third child is:
(a) Eight weeks
(b) Twelve weeks
(c) Sixteen weeks
(d) Twenty-six weeks
Answer: Option B
Q16. Which one of the following statements under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is not correct?
(a) It makes provision for pension scheme including family pension.
(b) It makes provision for Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.
(c) The provisions of the Act shall not be applicable to Cooperative Societies employing fifty or more persons working without the aid of power.
(d) The contribution by the employer to the Fund shall be on the basis of the basic wage, dearness allowance and retaining allowance (if any) of the employee.
Answer: Option C
Q17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Depreciation is a non-cash expense.
(b) Depreciation is the process of valuation of assets.
(c) The main cause of depreciation is wear and tear caused by usage.
(d) Depreciation must be charged so as to ascertain true profit or loss of a business.
Answer: Option B
Q18. A credit purchase of machinery recorded in Purchase Book instead of Journal Proper is an example of:
(a) Compensating errors
(b) Errors of commission
(c) Errors of principle
(d) Errors of omission
Answer: Option C
Q19. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liability in accounting statements is pursuant to:
(a) Convention of consistency
(b) Money measurement concept
(c) Convention of conservatism
(d) Convention of full disclosure
Answer: Option D
Q20. ‘Outstanding rent’ may be classified as:
(a) Natural personal account
(b) Representative personal account
(c) Real account
(d) Nominal account
Answer: Option B
Q21. Which of the following tag is used to insert comments in the HTML source code?
(a) </-- -->
(b) <!-- -->
(c) <-- ! -->
(d) </-- --/>
Answer: Option B
Q22. Which one among the following is used to create an e-mail hyperlink to a webpage?
(a) mail:
(b) mailto:
(c) tomail:
(d) to_mail:
Answer: Option B
Q23. In the context of a buffer in memory area or disk, spool refers to:
(a) Simple peripheral operation on-line
(b) Simple peripheral operation off-line
(c) Simultaneous peripheral ‘operation on-line
(d) Simultaneous peripheral operation off-line
Answer: Option C
Q24. Which one of the following is not a commutative law?
(a) A*b=b*A
(b) A+b=b+A
(c) A-b=b-A
(d) A*B=B*A
Answer: Option C
Q25. Which OSI layer is responsible for managing the communication between computers in the network?
(a) Network layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Session layer
(d) Data link layer
Answer: Option C
Q26. Consider the following statements about DNA:
1. DNArefers to Deoxyribonucleic Acid.
2. It is located in the ribosomes.
3. It is composed of Ribonucleic Acid.
4. It can make a copy of itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: Option A
Q27. Velamen, a spongy tissue, is formed in:
(a) Tap root
(b) Epiphytic root
(c) Fibrous root
(d) Respiratory root
Answer: Option B
Q28. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone.
(b) All compounds containing hydrogen are acidic.
(c) Separation of H+ ions from HCl molecules cannot occur in the absence of water.
(d) Water soluble bases are known as alkalis.
Answer: Option B
Q29. Which one of the following elements has the highest boiling point?
(a) Lithium
(b) Sodium
(c) Potassium
(d) Rubidium
Answer: Option A
Q30. An ice cube with 10 cm side is divided into eight smaller cubes, each with same side. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
(a) Total volume will increase and total surface area will decrease.
(b) Total volume will decrease and total surface area will increase.
(c) Total volume will remain the same and total surface area will increase.
(d) Total volume will increase and total surface area will remain the same.
Answer: Option C
Q31. Which of the following statements regarding the attendance of retired judges at sittings of the Supreme Court of India is/are correct?
1. Article 128 permits the attendance of retired judges at the sittings of the Supreme Court.
2. The Chief Justice of India may at any time request anyone who has held office as a Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the President of India, request any person who has held the office of Chief Justice of a High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
4, The Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the President of India, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 4 only
Answer: Option A
Q32. The board of a cooperative society can be superseded or kept under suspension if:
1. There is negligence in the performance of duties.
2. There is any act prejudicial to the interest of the co-operative society or its members.
3. The body has failed to conduct elections in accordance with the provisions of the State Act.
4. There is no Government shareholdings or loan or financial assistance or any guarantee by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: Option D
Q33. Which of the following statements regarding the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme are correct?
1. The nodal ministry for the scheme is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
2. Funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.
3. The role of the Member of Parliament is limited to recommending works.
4. The scheme is confined to the State from which the Member of Parliament is elected (Lok Sabha). However, a Member of Parliament from Rajya Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4only
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: Option B
Q34. The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index developed by the United Nations Development Programme is a measurement of:
1. Nutrition
2. Cooking fuel
3. Assets
4. School attendance
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: Option A
Q35. Which one of the following was not recommended by the Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990)?
(a) The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner should be made by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition.
(b) The members of the Election Commission should be appointed by the President of India on the advice of a Committee, consisting of the Prime Minister and the Leader of the Opposition.
(c) The consultation process should have a statutory backing.
(d) The appointment of the other Election Commissioners should be made in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner, the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition.
Answer: Option B
Q36. Who among the following was a companion of freedom fighter Rani Chennamma of Kittur and continued the fight against the British after the Rani’s capture by the British in 1824?
(a) Rayanna
(b) Tipu Garo
(c) Jagbandhu
(d) Dukaribala Devi
Answer: Option A
Q37. The First Indian Factories Act, passed in 1881, dealt primarily with:
(a) Women labour
(b) Living conditions of factory workers
(c) Child labour
(d) Textile workers
Answer: Option C
Q38. Where was Azad Hind Fauj (INA) formed?
(a) Singapore
(b) Tokyo
(c) Berlin
(d) Rangoon
Answer: Option A
Q39. In 1927, Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State for India, appointed a Committee of three members to enquire into the relationship between the Indian States and the British Government and to make suggestions for more satisfactory adjustment of the existing economic relations between the Indian States and British India. Who among the following was not a member of the Committee?
(a) Harcourt Butler
(b) A.J. Wilson
(c) WS. Holdsworth
(d) S.C. Peel
Answer: Option B
Q40. Which of the following statements are correct?
1, Under the Cornwallis System, the districts were divided into thanas or police jurisdictions of 20-30 miles square.
2. Each of them was placed under an officer of government, under the denomination of daroga.
3. The daroga system was introduced inMadras in 1812.
4. The daroga was nominated by the district magistrate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
Answer: Option D
Q41. Model Standing Orders formed under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 shall nof apply to an establishment in respect of which the Appropriate Government is that of the State of:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Answer: Option B
Q42. An ‘out-worker’ is expressly excluded from the definition of ‘workman’ under which one of the following legislations?
(a) The Factories Act, 1948
(b) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
(c) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(d) The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979
Answer: Option C
Q43. Which one of the following nature of work shall mot be taken into account while the Appropriate prohibiting employment of contract labour in an establishment under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?
(a) Government considers The process, operation or other work is incidental to or necessary for the industry
(b) The work is of a permanent nature
(c) The work is done ordinarily through regular workmen
(d) The work is of intermittent nature
Answer: Option D
Q44. Which of the statements relating to the Grievance Redressal Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?
(a) It shall consist of equal number of members from among employer and workmen.
(b) It shall be constituted in an industrial establishment employing twenty or more workmen.
(c) The Chairperson of the Committee shall be nominated by the Appropriate Government.
(d) The total members of the Committee shall not be more than six.
Answer: Option C
Q45. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, a Safety Committee is to be constituted in a factory where:
(a) 1000 or more workers are employed
(b) Hazardous substances are used or handled
(c) Heavy machinery is utilized
(d) 500 or more workers are employed
Answer: Option B
Q46. Which of the following is included in the ‘Cost of Inventory’ according to Accounting Standard-2 (Inventory Valuation):
(a) Administrative overheads that do not contribute to bringing the inventories to their present location and condition
(b) Storage costs which are necessary in the production process prior to a further production stage
(c) Selling and distribution costs
(d) Duties and taxes paid on purchases, subsequently recoverable by the enterprise from the Tax Authorities
Answer: Option B
Q47. Reporting on fraud is to be made by an auditor to the Central Government when the sums involved in the fraud:
(a) exceed ₹ 20 lakh
(b) exceed ₹ 50 lakh
(c) exceed ₹ 75 lakh
(d) are ₹ 1 crore or above
Answer: Option D
Q48. Which one of the following is not a security protocol?
(a) TLS
(b) SSL
(c) IPsec
(d) MIME
Answer: Option D
Q49. LaTeX document does not contain:
(a) \documentclass{article}
(b) \begin{document}
(c) \end{document}
(d) \documentstyle(article}
Answer: Option D
Q50. The decimal equivalent of (-1101)2 is :
(a) 0.8122
(b) 0.8123
(c) 0.8124
(d) 0.8125
Answer: Option D
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