CBSE Class 12 Geography Sample Paper 2024-25: Did you know that Geography comes from the Greek term ‘Geographia’ which means ‘Earth description’? Fascinating, right? Geography is the study of Earth-its landscapes, places, people and more. Since Geography is such an important subject, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has released the sample question papers for Geography and other subjects for the students of class 12. This article gives insights into the CBSE Class 12 Geography Model Paper and marking scheme.
The sample question papers will help students boost their exam preparation. CBSE has also released the marking scheme along with the sample papers. After solving the question papers, students can match their answers with the solutions given in the marking scheme.
Also Check:
| CBSE Class 12 Geography Syllabus 2024-25 | CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme 2025 | CBSE Class 12 Geography Pre-Board Sample Paper for 2025 Exam |
Download the Geography Sample Paper Class 12 with marking scheme in pdf format from the direct links provided in this article. The sample question paper has been given in PDF format so students can save and view them on phones, tablets, computers and laptops.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper Instructions 2024-25
1. This questions paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
4. Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
5. Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
6. Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
7. Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map-based questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
8. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions in all sections other than Section A.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Sample Paper 2024-25
Given below are the questions from Geography Sample Paper 2024-25. Go through them carefully.
Section A
Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. (17X1)
Q1. The Human Poverty Index measures the shortfall in human development on the basis of which parameters?
A. The adult literacy rate and the life expectancy at birth.
B. Access to resources in terms of purchasing power.
C. The number of small children who are underweight.
D. The number of children enrolled in the school.
Q2. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below.
Assertion (A): Often smaller countries have done better than larger ones and relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.
Reason (R): Size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place.
Options:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
D. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Q3. Which of the following statements are correct related to rural marketing centres? Choose the correct option.
i. Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements.
ii. Rural Marketing centres are quasi-urban trading centres of the most rudimentary type.
iii. They offer manufactured goods as well as many specialized markets develop, e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi or finished products.
iv. Personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres.
Options:
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iii
Also Check: NCERT Books for CBSE Class 12 - Latest Edition
Q4. Arrange the following facts related to the history of international trade in sequence.
i. The Silk Route is an early example of long distance trade connecting Rome to China – along the 6,000 km route.
ii. After the disintegration of the Roman Empire, European commerce grew during twelfth and thirteenth century with the development of ocean going warships trade between Europe and Asia grew and the Americas were discovered.
iii. Fifteenth century onwards, the European colonialism began and along with trade of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged which was called slave trade.
iv. During the World Wars I and II, countries imposed trade taxes and quantitative restrictions for the first time.
Codes
A. i, ii, iv, v
B. iv, ii, iii, i
C. i, ii, iii, iv
D. iii, ii, iv, i
Q5. The act of opening up economies for trading by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs and allowing goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services is called .
A. Dumping
B. Trade liberalization
C. Balance of trade
D. Bilateral trade
Q6. Arrange the following states in order of their population from highest to lowest.
1. Bihar
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes:
A. 1, 3, 2, 4
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 3, 2, 1, 4
D. 2, 1, 4, 3
Q7. There are four distinct phases of population growth identified in India over the last one century. Identify the phase from the given description.
This period is referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent. It is in this period that developmental activities were introduced through a centralized planning process and economy started showing up ensuring the improvement of living condition of people at large. Consequently, there was a high natural increase and higher growth rate.
A. Phase I 1901-1921
B. Phase II 1921-1951
C. Phase III 1951-1981
D. Phase IV post 1981 till present
Q8. The objective of protective irrigation is to___________________:
A. protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.
B. provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
C. double water input per unit area of cultivated land so that multiple cropping can be done.
D. increase the productivity of soil.
Q9. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below.
Assertion (A): There has been a significant increase in agricultural output and yield, of many crops such as rice and wheat among the other crops like sugarcane, oilseeds and cotton, due to improvement in technology during the last 50 years.
Reason (R): Expansion of irrigation has played a crucial role in enhancing agricultural output in the country. It provided basis for introduction of modern agricultural technology during the last 50 years.
Options:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
D. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
Q10. Identify the statement that is NOT true with regard to watershed management.
I. It refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources.
II. Watershed management includes judicious use of all resources – Both natural and human with in a watershed.
III. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other.
IV. The success of watershed development solely depends upon the state government.
Options:
A. Statement I and IV
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Statement IV
Q11. A group of students were conducting research on water Pollution level in Delhi. Which organization will students need to visit to gather information on water quality?
Also Check: NCERT Solutions for CBSE Class 12 - Updated
A. Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC)
B. Indian Council of Environmental Research (ICER)
C. National water development Agency (NWDA)
D. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Q12. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
| List I (Name of the state) | List II (Coal mining Centre) |
| A. West Bengal | I. Raniganj |
| B. Tamil Nadu | 2. Neyveli |
| C. Maharashtra | 3. Korba |
| D. Odisha | 4. Talcher |
Q13. Satellite is mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication. Choose the correct satellite system used by India.
1. India Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS)
2. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
3. Indian Nation Satellite System (INSAT)
4. India Regional Navigation Satellite System
Codes
A. Both I and III
B. Only I
C. Both II and III
D. Only IV
Q14. Setubharatam Pariyojana launched by the Indian government aims to achieve?
A. Development of State roads along coastal border areas.
B. The construction of about 1500 major bridges and 200 rail over bridges and rail under bridges.
C. Development of border roads.
D. Construction of more water ways
Q15. Read the graph and answer the following questions no.15-17:
Identify the highest populous country?
A. Russia
B. India
C. Canada
D. China
15.1 The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.15.
Identify the highest populous country?
A. Russia
B. India
C. Canada
D. China
Q16. Identify the African country that has very high population.
A. Mexico
B. Brazil
C. Pakistan
D. Nigeria
16.1 The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.16. What does the term population distribution refer to?
A. The total number of people living in specific area.
B. The arrangement or spread of people across a given area.
C. The rate at which population increases over time.
D. The number of births per 1,000 people in the population
Q17. Which continent has the highest number of the world's most populous countries?
A. Africa
B. North America
C. Asia
D. South America
17.1 The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. 17. Which continent has the highest number of the world's most populous countries?
A. Africa
B. North America
C. Asia
D. South America
Section B
Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions.
Q18. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Tourism
Tourism has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs (250 million) and total revenue (40 per cent of the total GDP). Besides, many local persons, are employed to provide services like accommodation, meals, transport, entertainment and special shops serving the tourists. Tourism fosters the growth of infrastructure industries, retail trading, and craft industries (souvenirs). In some regions, tourism is seasonal because the vacation period is dependent on favourable weather conditions, but many regions attract visitors all the year round.
The warmer places around the Mediterranean Coast and the West Coast of India are some of the popular tourist destinations in the world. Others include winter sports regions, found mainly in mountainous areas, and various scenic landscapes and national parks, which are scattered. Historic towns also attract tourists, because of the monument, heritage sites and cultural activities.
(I) What constitutes tourism?
(II) List two renowned global tourist destinations.
(III) “Tourism has become the largest tertiary activity in the world”. Comment
Also Check: CBSE Board Date Sheet 2025 Class 12: Download Official Time Table PDF and Exam Time
Q19. Study the following table and answer the questions:
| Level of human development | Score in development index | Number of countries |
| Very high | above 0.800 | 66 |
| High | between 0.700 up to 0.799 | 53 |
| Medium | between 0.550 up to 0.699 | 37 |
| Low | below 0.549 | 33 |
(I) Identify the human development score for the countries classified as having Medium Human Development?
(II) What can you infer about the well-being of people living in countries with a high level of human development?
(III) Give reasons for low level of human development in 33 countries.
To download the complete sample paper and marking scheme in pdf format, click on the links below:
Tips to Prepare for CBSE Class 12 Geography Examination
1. Go through the revised and latest syllabus. Analyze the topics that you have to study and make a note of ones that have been dropped.
2. Read the NCERT prescribed textbook for Geography carefully. Read the content multiple times and make comprehensive notes that will help you at the time of examination. For Geography, try to understand the concepts with the help of NCERT’s simple textbook.
3. Allot ample time for map practice. Practice as many times as you can to avoid confusion.
4. Solve the questions given at the end of the chapters in the textbook. Questions given in the NCERT books are always considered very important as not only do they help you to analyse your understanding of the concepts involved in a chapter but also in preparing for the examinations.
5. Solve as many sample papers and previous year question papers as you can. This practice will prove beneficial for you in the examination and will give insights about the level of difficulty of questions. Solving the sample question papers will give you a check as to how much you have actually understood from what you have studied.
Utilise these tips and resources to obtain good scores in the 2025 Board examinations.
Online Test Series for CBSE Class 12 Students
Class 12 students can prepare effectively for the exams with the help of online test series prepared by the subject matter experts. These test series will help students to check their exam preparation. Refer to the links below:
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