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SSC MTS 2017: Tier-1 question paper held on 30th April, 2017

May 3, 2017 15:48 IST
    SSC MTS 2017
    SSC MTS 2017

    SSC MTS 2017 examination is conducted across the nation on 30thApril, 2017. MTS exam is held for recruiting candidates on various positions or work like maintenance of section records, photocopying, driving, general cleanliness, etc. Remaining exams are scheduled to be inducted tentatively on 14thMay & 28thMay, 2017 and 4thJune & 11thJune, 2017.

    SSC MTS 2017: Important points

    Conducting Body: - Staff selection commission

    Total number of vacancies:  - To be notified later

    Posts offered: -“C” Non – Gazetted, Non – Ministerial Post in Various Central Government Ministries/ Departments / Offices

    In this article, we have enclosed the complete question paper for SSC MTS 2016-17 sessions. Go through it and practice all questions. So that, further exam’s pattern in series can be understood.

    PART A: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

    Directions: In questions no. 1 to 4, select the related word(s) / letters / number from the given alternatives.

    1. StuV : wXYz : : ? : qRSt

    (A) mNOp

    (B) MnoP

    (C) LMno

    (D) LmnO

    2. Weight : Quintal : : ? : ?

    (A) Litre : Liquid

    (B) Distance : Kilometre

    (C) Metre : Length

    (D) Tonne : Weight

    3. Bowl : Soup : : Cup : ?

    (A) Coffee

    (B) Spoon

    (C) Plate

    (D) Food

    4. 3 : 12 :: 5 : ?

    (A) 25

    (B) 35

    (C) 30

    (D) 15

    Directions: In questions no. 5 to 7, find the odd word / letters / number from the given alternatives.

    5. (A) 343

    (B) 2401

    (C) 149

    (D) 49

    6. (A) Flute

    (B) Guitar

    (C) Sitar

    (D) Violin

    7. (A) YDWB

    (B) TKRI

    (C) QNOM

    (D) HLFJ

    8. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?

    1. Windows

    2. Walls

    3. Floor

    4. Foundation

    (A) 4, 3, 2, 1

    (B) 4, 3, 1, 2

    (C) 4, 2, 1, 3

    (D) 4, 1, 2, 3

    Directions : In questions no. 9 and 10, a series is given with one term missing. Out of the four alternatives, choose the alternative that will complete the series.

    9. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

    (A) 35

    (B) 36

    (C) 48

    (D) 49

    10. AEI, BFJ, CGK, ?

    (A) JKN

    (B) DHL

    (C) EIM

    (D) LPT

    11. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word :

    DISAPPOINTMENT

    (A) POINT

    (B) PAINTER

    (C) NATION

    (D) TENT

    12. If in a certain code language, "MADRAS" is coded as "NBESBT", how is "BOMBAY" coded in that code ?

    (A) CPNCBX

    (B) CPNCBZ

    (C) CPOCBZ

    (D) CQOCBZ

    13. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

    6 * 3 = 216, 5 * 4 = 625, 2 * 7 = ?

    (A) 256

    (B) 14

    (C) 128

    (D) 49

    14. If P denotes 'multiplied by', T denotes `subtracted from', M denotes 'added to' and B denotes 'divided by', then 28 B 7 P 8 T 6 M 4 = ?

    (A) - 3/2

    (B) 30

    (C) 32

    (D) 34

    15. Find the missing number from the given responses.

                    8              9              15

                    ?              7              3

                    4              2              1

                    160         126         45

    (A) 3

    (B) 4

    (C) 7

    (D) 5

    16. It was Amit's and Priya's 12th Wedding Anniversary. Amit said, "When we got married, Priya was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age". What are their present ages actually?

    (A) Amit 38 years, Priya 32 years

    (B) Amit 36 years, Priya 30 years

    (C) Amit 30 years, Priya 24 years

    (D) Amit 40 years, Priya 34 years

    17. Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

    Statements :

    All bags are cakes.

    All lamps are cakes.

    Conclusions :

    I. Some lamps are bags.

    II. No lamp is a bag.

    (A) Only conclusion I follows

    (B) Only conclusion II follows

    (C) Both conclusions I and II follow

    (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

    18. A person starts walking 4 km towards east, then turns left and walks 5 km, then turns left again and walks 3 km. In which direction is he going at the end?

    (A) East

    (B) West

    (C) North

    (D) South

    19. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

    Question figure:

    mts paper 2017

    Answer figures:

    mts paper 2017 1

    20. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

    Question figures:

    mts paper 2017 2

    Answer figures:

    mts paper 2017 3

    21. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

    Question figure:

    mts paper 2017 4

    Answer figures:

    mts paper 2017 5

    22. Identify the diagram that represents the relationship among the following:

    School Classroom, Blackboard

    mts paper 2017 6

    23. How many equilateral triangles does the following figure contain?

    mts paper 2017 7

    (A) 9

    (B) 10

    (C) 12

    (D) 13

    24. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., 'E' can be represented by 04, 21, etc., and 'P' can be represented by 56, 79, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word 'BANG'.

    mts paper 2017 8

    (A) 96, 68, 41, 44

    (B) 14, 44, 68, 96

    (C) 24, 34, 86, 69

    (D) 41, 44, 86, 69

    25. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the question figure?

    Question figure:

    mts paper 2017 9

    Answer figures:

    mts paper 2017 10

    PART B : NUMERICAL APTITUDE

    26. Two numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5. When 7 is subtracted from each, the ratio becomes 1 : 6. The original numbers are

    (A) 10, 25

    (B) 4, 20

    (C) 6, 15

    (D) 4, 10

    27. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 3. If 4 litres of this mixture is replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture will become

    (A) 2 : 1

    (B) 7 : 3

    (C) 6 : 3

    (D) 8 : 3

    28. A shirt marked Rs. 125 was sold for Rs. 100. The rate of discount on the marked price was

    (A) 20%

    (B) 25%

    (C) 12.5%

    (D) 15%

    29. A man saves Rs. 15 on the purchase of a clock when a discount of 20% is given. How much did he pay in rupees for the watch?

    (A) 75

    (B) 90

    (C) 60

    (D) 80

    30. A businessman offers two discount series, i.e., 40% single discount or three successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 15%. If a man wants to buy an article costing 2,500, what is the difference in the two offers he can visualise? (in whole numbers)

    (A) Rs. 126

    (B) Rs. 128

    (C) Rs. 131

    (D) Rs. 135

    31. A cylinder circumscribes a sphere. The ratio of their volumes is

    (A) 2 : 1

    (B) 3 : 2

    (C) 4 : 3

    (D) 6 : 5

    32. The greatest number of 5 digits formed by using 3, 4, 5 at least once, is

    (A) 55555

    (B) 55543

    (C) 54354

    (D) 54300

    33. Find the maximum number of children among whom 917 dolls and 524 apples may be equally distributed.

    (A) 917

    (B) 524

    (C) 131

    (D) 393

    34. A and B together can do a piece of work in 10 days. B alone can do it in 15 days. In how many days can A alone do it?

    (A) 25 days.

    (B) 30 days

    (C) 50 days

    (D) 40 days

    35. 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?

    (A) 2 days

    (B) 3 days

    (C) 4 days

    (D) 5 days

    36. If each side of a cube is doubled, then its volume

    (A) becomes 8 times

    (B) becomes 6 times

    (C) is doubled

    (D) becomes 4 times

    37. In an examination, Ravishankar got 230 marks and failed by 10 marks. If the total marks are 600, then the pass percentage is

    (A) 30%

    (B) 40%

    (C) 50%

    (D) 60%

    38. Ila donated 7% of her salary to a hospital and 13% ofher salary to a school library. If she is left with Rs. 24,000 now, then her actual salary is

    (A) Rs. 30,000

    (B) Rs. 34,000

    (C) Rs. 40,000

    (D) Rs. 44,000

    39. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hour, the length of the platform is

    (A) 120 m

    (B) 240 m

    (C) 300 m

    (D) 350 m

    40. A man travels 105 km partly at 18 km/hour and partly at 25 km/hour. If he were to cover the former distance at 25 km/hour and the latter distance at 18 km/hour, he could cover 5 km more in the same time. The time taken to cover the whole distance at the original rate is

    (A) 2 hours

    (B) 3 hours

    (C) 4 hours

    (D) 5 hours

    41. Mangoes are bought at Rs. 10 per 100. The rate per 100 at which they must be sold so that the gain on Rs. 100 may be equal to the selling price of 250 mangoes is

    (A) Rs. 10

    (B) Rs. 11 1/2

    (C) Rs. 12

    (D) Rs. 13 1/3

    42. The cost price and the selling price of an item are in the ratio of 2 : 3. The percentage of gain is

    (A) 10%

    (B) 30%

    (C) 40%

    (D) 50%

    43. In a partnership business, A invests 1/6 th of the capital for 1/6 th of the total time, B invests 1/3 rd of the capital for 1/3 rd of the total time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs. 9,200, B's share is

    (A) Rs. 1,500

    (B) Rs. 1,600

    (C) Rs. 1,700

    (D) Rs. 1,800

    44. A policeman starts to chase a thief. When the thief goes 5 steps, the policeman moves 6 steps. Again, 3 steps of the policeman is equal to 6 steps of the thief. Then the ratio of their speeds is

    (A) 1 : 2

    (B) 7 : 9

    (C) 12 : 5

    (D) 11 : 13

    45. There are only deers and ducks in a zoo. When the heads are counted, it is 204 and when the legs are counted, it is 512. How many deers are there in the zoo?

    (A) 52

    (B) 152

    (C) 176

    (D) 26

    46. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 7, the expenditure of the mess increases by Rs. 42 per day while the average expenditure per head diminishes by Rs. 1. The original total expenditure of the mess was

    (A) Rs. 400

    (B) Rs. 420

    (C) Rs. 1,764

    (D) Rs. 1,722

    47. In a certain time, Rs. 8,000 will amount to Rs. 9,261 at 10% per annum compound interest, interest being compounded half-yearly. Then the time period is

    (A) 3 ½ years

    (B) 2 years

    (C) 2 2/3 years 

    (D) 1 ½ years

    48. A and B lent the same amount of money for two years at 6 ¼% per annum at simple interest and compound interest respectively. If B got Rs. 3 1/8 more than A, the amount of money lent by each was

    (A) Rs. 600

    (B) Rs. 400

    (C) Rs. 800

    (D) Rs. 8,000

    Directions: The bar graph shows the Uttar Pradesh Poll outcome (1996). Study the bar graph and answer the questions no. 49 and 50.

    mts paper 2017 11

    49. The percentage of JD members not elected in the U.P. election is

    (A) 94.25%

    (B) 93.75%

    (C) 94.75%

    (D) 93.25%

    50. Which two parties combined together got the majority?

    (A) Congress and BJP

    (B) BJP and BSP/SP

    (C) BJP and JD

    (D) CPI and BSP/SP

    PART C : GENERAL ENGLISH

    Directions: In questions no. 51 to 60, a part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the, sentence has an error and blacken the circle ( • ) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the circle corresponding to "No error" in the Answer Sheet.

    51. We heard / of their / having discovered another stream. / No error.

                (A)          (B)                    (C)                                            (D)

    52. Who the Gods / would destroy / they first make mad. / No error.

                (A)                          (B)                          (C)                  (D)

    53. He never / listened / what I said. / No error.

             (A)          (B)                  (C)                  (D)

    54. The match being over / the gentleman goes / to Dhaka with a heavy heart. / No error.

                        (A)                             (B)                                       (C)                             (D)

    55. Tomorrow we are holding / a party / around the garden. / No error.

                         (A)                          (B)                 (C)                          (D)

    56. Atoms are the tiny particles / of which everything / are made. / No error.

                         (A)                                         (B)                  (C)                  (D)

    57. A new bank account / has in the process / of being set up for you. / No error.

                    (A)                          (B)                                          (C)                     (D)

    58. CO2 and other / green house gases / is essential in the atmosphere. / No error.

                   (A)                          (B)                                          (C)                           (D)

    59. They have been / married / since twenty years. / No error.

                      (A)               (B)                  (C)                        (D)

    60. We were honouring / to have such an eminent historian / in our school. / No error.

                    (A)                                 (B)                                              (C)                 (D)

    Directions: In questions no. 61 to 70, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the most appropriate alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the corresponding circle in the Answer Sheet.

    61. We must desist ________ spreading rumours.

    (A) in

    (B) from

    (C) of

    (D) with

    62. John has not decided whether to go for higher studies or to _______ a job.

    (A) take in

    (B) take to

    (C) take up

    (D) take off

    63. You will certainly help us, _________

    (A) will you ?

    (B) won't you ?

    (C) wouldn't you ?

    (D) would you ?

    64. Polly wants to cycle round the world. She's really keen _______ the idea.

    (A) about

    (B) for

    (C) on

    (D) with

    65. The poor man wore a shirt.

    (A) shattered

    (B) fettered

    (C) battered

    (D) tattered

    66. But alas ! The money was all gone. She had not a ________ left.

    (A) fascicle

    (B) facet

    (C) farthing

    (D) fascia

    67. I've got a meeting  __________  Thursday afternoon.

    (A) at

    (B) in

    (C) on

    (D) to

    68. I usually do the washing in the ________.

    (A) week

    (B) holiday

    (C) Sunday

    (D) weekend

    69. I wondered if he would comply _______  grandfather's wishes.

    (A) to

    (B) for

    (C) with

    (D) by

    70. Jonah returns from his office to find Philip __________ in bed.

    (A) late

    (B) still

    (C) freezing

    (D) slept

    Directions: In questions no. 71 to 73, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

    71. Admire

    (A) Love

    (B) Revere

    (C) Treasure

    (D) Like

    72. Ready

    (A) Gone

    (B) Granted

    (C) Seen

    (D) Prepared

    73. Subordinate

    (A) Inferior

    (B) Senior

    (C) Superior

    (D) Supplementary

    Directions: In questions no. 74 to 76, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning opposite to the given word.

    74. Concur

    (A) Disagree

    (B) Agree

    (C) Gather

    (D) Disburse

    75. Shallow

    (A) Wide

    (B) Narrow

    (C) Deep

    (D) Thick

    76. Eager

    (A) Difficult

    (B) Apathetic

    (C) Demanding

    (D) Intolerant

    Directions: In questions no. 77 to 79, four alternatives are given for the Idiom /Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom /Phrase.

    77. He failed to live up to her expectations time and again.

    (A) sometimes

    (B) rarely

    (C) most of the time

    (D) all the time

    78. The mountaineers said that the beauty of the Himalayas beggars description.

    (A) is describable

    (B) is indescribable

    (C) cannot be compared

    (D) is insignificant

    79. The twins are like two peas in a pod.

    (A) alike

    (B) different

    (C) close

    (D) unique

    Directions: In questions no. 80 to 84, a sentence or a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, blacken the circle corresponding to "No improvement" in the Answer Sheet.

    80. In this town more than 5000 people die every year in car accidents and hundreds more are suffering grave injury.

    (A) suffer

    (B) have been suffering

    (C) have suffered

    (D) No improvement

    81. You should not had left so early.

    (A) should have not

    (B) did not have

    (C) should not have

    (D) No improvement

    82. Did he received any recommendations?

    (A) Received he

    (B) Was he received

    (C) Did he receive

    (D) No improvement

    83. He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.

    (A) sent word

    (B) had sent a word

    (C) sent words

    (D) No improvement

    84. The prisoners made an escape but failed.

    (A) completed a jail break

    (B) attained an escape

    (C) attempted an escape

    (D) No improvement

    Directions: In questions no. 85 to 89, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can most appropriately substitute the given word(s) or sentence.

    85. A book which gives information on many branches of knowledge

    (A) Dictionary

    (B) Thesaurus

    (C) Atlas

    (D) Encyclopaedia

    86. A place where fruit trees are grown

    (A) Orchard

    (B) Vineyard

    (C) Garden

    (D) Meadow

    87. A beast of prey

    (A) Predator

    (B) Perpetrator

    (C) Victim

    (D) Vampire

    88. One who always takes a hopeful view of things

    (A) Pessimist

    (B) Linguist

    (C) Hedonist

    (D) Optimist

    89. Continuous dry weather and lack of rain

    (A) Draft

    (B) Drought

    (C) Famine

    (D) Calamity

    Directions: In questions no. 90 to 95, four words are given, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

    90. (A) Assasination

    (B) Asassination

    (C) Assassination

    (D) Asasination

    91. (A) Temperayture

    (B) Tempurature

    (C)Tamperature

    (D) Temperature

    92. (A) Precee

    (B) Presi

    (C) Preci

    (D) Precis

    93. (A) Procidure

    (B) Procedure

    (C) Procedere

    (D) Prosedure

    94. (A) Fundamentle

    (B) Fundamentol

    (C) Fundemental

    (D) Fundamental

    95. (A) Immortals

    (B) Immortols

    (C) Immortles

    (D) Immortels

    Directions: In questions no. 96 to 100, read the following passage carefully and choose the most appropriate answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

    Ozone is a form of oxygen that is naturally present in our atmosphere. Each ozone molecule contains three atoms of oxygen and is chemically denoted as O3. About 10 percent of the atmospheric ozone is in the troposphere, the region closest to the Earth. The remaining 90 percent of the ozone is in the stratosphere, extending from the top of the troposPhere to about 50 kilometres of altitude. A thin veil of ozone, 25 to 40 kilometres above the Earth's surface, protects life below from the Sun's ultraviolet radiations (UV-B) that would otherwise damage many forms of life. The ozone veil is being damaged by chemicals released on the Earth's surface, notably the Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) widely used in refrigeration, aerosols and as cleaners in many industries.

    96. What does the ozone layer protect the Earth from?

    (A) X-rays

    (B) UV-B rays

    (C) Gamma rays

    (D) Alpha rays

    97. What is notably damaging the ozone veil?

    (A) Carbon monoxide

    (B) Carbon dioxide

    (C) Carbon tetra chloride

    (D) Chlorofluorocarbons

    98. Name the atmospheric layer closest to the Earth.

    (A) Stratosphere

    (B) Mesosphere

    (C) Troposphere

    (D) Exosphere

    99. In which layer is most of the ozone concentrated?

    (A) Stratosphere

    (B) Mesosphere

    (C) Troposphere

    (D) Exosphere

    100. Where do you find ozone ?

    (A) It is naturally present in our atmosphere.

    (B) It is naturally present in the air around us.

    (C) It is naturally present in water.

    (D) It is present in aerosols.

    PART D : GENERAL AWARENESS

    101. The central problems of an economy are solved under capitalism through

    (A) Central planning authority

    (B) Mutual consultation by producers

    (C) Price mechanism

    (D) Trade associations

    102. The maximum strength of members of the Rajya Sabha is

    (A) 250

    (B) 350

    (C) 150

    (D) 200

    103. The Concurrent List includes

    (A) Preventive detention

    (B) Excise on alcoholic liquors

    (C) Census

    (D) Ancient and historical monuments

    104. The proceedings regarding impeachment against the President can be started in

    (A) The Lok Sabha only

    (B) The Rajya Sabha only

    (C) Either of the Houses

    (D) The Vidhan Sabha only

    105. An employment situation where the marginal productivity of an agricultural labour is zero is known as

    (A) Chronic unemployment

    (B) Seasonal unemployment

    (C) Frictional unemployment

    (D) Disguised unemployment

    106. With an increase in production, the average fixed cost

    (A) rises

    (B) falls

    (C) remains constant

    (D) fluctuates

    107. With which country is the foreign trade of India the maximum?

    (A) America

    (B) Britain

    (C) Germany

    (D) Japan

    108. Which of the following is the cause of sub-division and fragmentation of agricultural holdings in India?

    (A) Decline of joint family system

    (B) Laws of inheritance

    (C) Increasing population

    (D) All of the above

    109. A sermon read on Friday prayers in the name of a ruling Muslim king is

    (A) Khutbah

    (B) Namaz

    (C) Insha-Allah

    (D) Salaam

    110. Whose famous work was `Satyarth Prakash' ?

    (A) Swami Vivekananda

    (B) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

    (C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

    (D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

    111. Megasthenes visited India during the reign of

    (A) Chandragupta II

    (B) Chandragupta Maurya

    (C) Asoka

    (D) Harsha

    112. Under which of the following Delhi Sultans did Malik Kafur serve as a military general ?

    (A) Alauddin Khilji

    (B) Jalaluddin Khilji

    (C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

    (D) Aurangzeb

    113. Who amongst the following was the founder of Fascist Ideology?

    (A) Hitler

    (B) 'Mussolini

    (C) Napoleon Bonaparte

    (D) Bismarck

    114. The Andaman Sea is a part of the

    (A) Arabian Sea

    (B) Yellow Sea

    (C) Sea of Japan

    (D) Bay of Bengal

    115. Which among the following States is created as the 29th State of India?

    (A) Jharkhand

    (B) Telangana

    (C) Chhattisgarh

    (D) Sikkim

    116. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed in which Part of the Indian Constitution?

    (A) Part III

    (B) Part IV

    (C) Part V

    (D) Part VI

    117. Human forearm is an example of

    (A) First order lever

    (B) Second order lever

    (C) Third order lever

    (D) Fourth order lever

    118. Tirupati Hills are found in

    (A) Satpura Ranges

    (B) Western Ghats

    (C) Aravalli Ranges

    (D) Eastern Ghats

    119. 'Green Revolution' in Indian agriculture refers to

    (A) scientific methods for improved irrigation

    (B) intensive afforestation

    (C) increase in agricultural production due to scientific methods

    (D) improved techniques in cultivation of fodder crops

    120. The coldest place in the northern hemisphere is

    (A) Reykjavik

    (B) Alaska

    (C) Greenland

    (D) Verkhoyansk

    121. The rhinoceros and hippopotamus are found in the forests of

    (A) Assam

    (B) Uttaranchal

    (C) Karnataka

    (D) Madhya Pradesh

    122. The universal photosynthetic pigment is

    (A) Chlorophyll-a

    (B) Chlorophyll-b

    (C) Chlorophyll-c

    (D) Chlorophyll-d

    123. Lichen is an association of

    (A) Algae and fungi

    (B) Fungi and moss

    (C) Moss and fern

    (D) Fungi and fern

    124. In pea, the tendril is a modification of

    (A) Stem

    (B) Leaf

    (C) Leaflets

    (D) Petiole

    125. Dodder is a/an

    (A) Stem parasite

    (B) Root parasite

    (C) Leaf parasite

    (D) Endophyte

    126. An example of vestigial organ is

    (A) Lung

    (B) Pancreas

    (C) Nictitating membrane

    (D) Thyroid gland

    127. The first computers were programmed using

    (A) Machine language

     (B) Source code

    (C) Assembly language

    (D) Object code

    128. Who is the inventor of 'Difference Engine'?

    (A) Alan Turing

    (B) Charles Babbage

    (C) Seymour Cray

    (D) Augusta Adaming

    129. Rusting of iron involves

    (A) Oxidation

    (B) Reduction

    (C) Decomposition

    (D) Displacement

    130. The disease 'Diabetes mellitus' is caused by the deficiency of

    (A) Iodine

    (B) Insulin

    (C) Phenylalanine

    (D) Alanine

    131. The physical quantity corresponding to the rate of change of displacement is

    (A) Speed

    (B) Velocity

    (C) Acceleration

    (D) Retardation

    132. Which one of the following is luminous?

    (A) Pole Star

    (B) Earth

    (C) Moon

    (D) Uranus

    133. The freezing mixture, which is used in preparing Kulfis, is made by adding salt to ice because the

    (A) melting point of ice increases

    (B) latent heat of fusion of water decreases

    (C) latent heat of fusion of water increases

    (D) melting point of ice decreases

    134. Malicious software is known as

    (A) Malware

    (B) Maliciousware

    (C) Freeware

    (D) Shareware

    135. The Union Government on 22nd August, 2016 announced which award for P.V. Sindhu and Sakshi Malik?

    (A) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

    (B) Dronacharya Award

    (C) Dhyan Chand Award

    (D) Arjuna Award

    136. Which of the following materials is used as anode in dry cells?

    (A) Copper

    (B) Brass

    (C) Silver

    (D) Carbon

    137. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

    (A) Acetic acid

    (B) Ammonium hydroxide

    (C) Hydrochloric acid.

    (D) Oxalic acid

    138. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

    (A) Biosphere reserves

    (B) Botanical gardens

    (C) National parks

    (D) Wildlife sanctuaries

    139. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

    (A) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

    (B) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

    (C) Ozone and carbon dioxide

    (D) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

    140. Drinking water is purified by

    (A) Microbial activity

    (B) Aerobic respiration

    (C) Purifying seawater

    (D) Dumping chloroform in water

    141. The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following?

    (A) Earth Summit, Rio-de-Janeiro

    (B) Kyoto Protocol

    (C) Montreal Protocol

    (D) G-8 Summit, Heiligendamm

    142. In which State of India is Abhaneri festival celebrated?

    (A) Chhattisgarh

    (B) Rajasthan

    (C) Jharkhand

    (D) Uttarakhand

    143. For which of the following musical instruments is Hariprasad Chaurasia famous?

    (A) Guitar

    (B) Flute

    (C) Violin

    (D) Tabla

    144. Which of the following is being touted as the Whatsapp moment' ?

    (A) Paytm

    (B) M-Pesa

    (C) United Payment Interface (UPI)

    (D) New Featured Whatsapp (NFW)

    145. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Special Task Force constituted to speed up recalibration of ATMs?

    (A) Cyrus Mistry

    (B) Anantha Kumar

    (C) S.S. Mundra

    (D) Arvind Subramanian

    146. IBRD is also known as

    (A) WTO

    (B) IMF

    (C) World Bank

    (D) ADB

    147. Who has been elected as an individual member of International Olympic Committee (IOC) in August, 2016?

    (A) Nita Ambani

    (B) Kapil Dev

    (C) Tina Ambani

    (D) Shashank Thakur

    148. Who created a new world record in scoring the fastest century in Test Cricket history in February, 2016?

    (A) Steve Smith

    (B) Chris Gayle

    (C) Brendon McCullum

    (D) Virat Kohli

    149. 'Mission Bhagiratha' is a water supply project of which of the following States?

    (A) Telangana

    (B) Uttar Pradesh

    (C) Uttarakhand

    (D) Bihar

    150. Which of the following is a statutory body?

    (A) Union Public Service Commission

    (B) Election Commission of India

    (C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

    (D) Central Vigilance Commission

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