SSC MTS 2017: Tier-1 question paper held on 30th April, 2017

In this article, we have enclosed all questions asked in SSC MTS 2016-17 exam held on 30th April 2017. Read article for full exposure.

Created On: May 3, 2017 15:48 IST
SSC MTS 2017
SSC MTS 2017

SSC MTS 2017 examination is conducted across the nation on 30thApril, 2017. MTS exam is held for recruiting candidates on various positions or work like maintenance of section records, photocopying, driving, general cleanliness, etc. Remaining exams are scheduled to be inducted tentatively on 14thMay & 28thMay, 2017 and 4thJune & 11thJune, 2017.

SSC MTS 2017: Important points

Conducting Body: - Staff selection commission

Total number of vacancies:  - To be notified later

Posts offered: -“C” Non – Gazetted, Non – Ministerial Post in Various Central Government Ministries/ Departments / Offices

In this article, we have enclosed the complete question paper for SSC MTS 2016-17 sessions. Go through it and practice all questions. So that, further exam’s pattern in series can be understood.


Directions: In questions no. 1 to 4, select the related word(s) / letters / number from the given alternatives.

1. StuV : wXYz : : ? : qRSt

(A) mNOp

(B) MnoP

(C) LMno

(D) LmnO

2. Weight : Quintal : : ? : ?

(A) Litre : Liquid

(B) Distance : Kilometre

(C) Metre : Length

(D) Tonne : Weight

3. Bowl : Soup : : Cup : ?

(A) Coffee

(B) Spoon

(C) Plate

(D) Food

4. 3 : 12 :: 5 : ?

(A) 25

(B) 35

(C) 30

(D) 15

Directions: In questions no. 5 to 7, find the odd word / letters / number from the given alternatives.

5. (A) 343

(B) 2401

(C) 149

(D) 49

6. (A) Flute

(B) Guitar

(C) Sitar

(D) Violin

7. (A) YDWB




8. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?

1. Windows

2. Walls

3. Floor

4. Foundation

(A) 4, 3, 2, 1

(B) 4, 3, 1, 2

(C) 4, 2, 1, 3

(D) 4, 1, 2, 3

Directions : In questions no. 9 and 10, a series is given with one term missing. Out of the four alternatives, choose the alternative that will complete the series.

9. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A) 35

(B) 36

(C) 48

(D) 49

10. AEI, BFJ, CGK, ?





11. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word :






12. If in a certain code language, "MADRAS" is coded as "NBESBT", how is "BOMBAY" coded in that code ?





13. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

6 * 3 = 216, 5 * 4 = 625, 2 * 7 = ?

(A) 256

(B) 14

(C) 128

(D) 49

14. If P denotes 'multiplied by', T denotes `subtracted from', M denotes 'added to' and B denotes 'divided by', then 28 B 7 P 8 T 6 M 4 = ?

(A) - 3/2

(B) 30

(C) 32

(D) 34

15. Find the missing number from the given responses.

                8              9              15

                ?              7              3

                4              2              1

                160         126         45

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 5

16. It was Amit's and Priya's 12th Wedding Anniversary. Amit said, "When we got married, Priya was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age". What are their present ages actually?

(A) Amit 38 years, Priya 32 years

(B) Amit 36 years, Priya 30 years

(C) Amit 30 years, Priya 24 years

(D) Amit 40 years, Priya 34 years

17. Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

Statements :

All bags are cakes.

All lamps are cakes.

Conclusions :

I. Some lamps are bags.

II. No lamp is a bag.

(A) Only conclusion I follows

(B) Only conclusion II follows

(C) Both conclusions I and II follow

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

18. A person starts walking 4 km towards east, then turns left and walks 5 km, then turns left again and walks 3 km. In which direction is he going at the end?

(A) East

(B) West

(C) North

(D) South

19. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure:

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Answer figures:

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20. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figures:

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Answer figures:

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21. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure:

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Answer figures:

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22. Identify the diagram that represents the relationship among the following:

School Classroom, Blackboard

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23. How many equilateral triangles does the following figure contain?

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(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 13

24. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., 'E' can be represented by 04, 21, etc., and 'P' can be represented by 56, 79, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word 'BANG'.

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(A) 96, 68, 41, 44

(B) 14, 44, 68, 96

(C) 24, 34, 86, 69

(D) 41, 44, 86, 69

25. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the question figure?

Question figure:

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Answer figures:

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26. Two numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5. When 7 is subtracted from each, the ratio becomes 1 : 6. The original numbers are

(A) 10, 25

(B) 4, 20

(C) 6, 15

(D) 4, 10

27. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 3. If 4 litres of this mixture is replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture will become

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 7 : 3

(C) 6 : 3

(D) 8 : 3

28. A shirt marked Rs. 125 was sold for Rs. 100. The rate of discount on the marked price was

(A) 20%

(B) 25%

(C) 12.5%

(D) 15%

29. A man saves Rs. 15 on the purchase of a clock when a discount of 20% is given. How much did he pay in rupees for the watch?

(A) 75

(B) 90

(C) 60

(D) 80

30. A businessman offers two discount series, i.e., 40% single discount or three successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 15%. If a man wants to buy an article costing 2,500, what is the difference in the two offers he can visualise? (in whole numbers)

(A) Rs. 126

(B) Rs. 128

(C) Rs. 131

(D) Rs. 135

31. A cylinder circumscribes a sphere. The ratio of their volumes is

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 3 : 2

(C) 4 : 3

(D) 6 : 5

32. The greatest number of 5 digits formed by using 3, 4, 5 at least once, is

(A) 55555

(B) 55543

(C) 54354

(D) 54300

33. Find the maximum number of children among whom 917 dolls and 524 apples may be equally distributed.

(A) 917

(B) 524

(C) 131

(D) 393

34. A and B together can do a piece of work in 10 days. B alone can do it in 15 days. In how many days can A alone do it?

(A) 25 days.

(B) 30 days

(C) 50 days

(D) 40 days

35. 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?

(A) 2 days

(B) 3 days

(C) 4 days

(D) 5 days

36. If each side of a cube is doubled, then its volume

(A) becomes 8 times

(B) becomes 6 times

(C) is doubled

(D) becomes 4 times

37. In an examination, Ravishankar got 230 marks and failed by 10 marks. If the total marks are 600, then the pass percentage is

(A) 30%

(B) 40%

(C) 50%

(D) 60%

38. Ila donated 7% of her salary to a hospital and 13% ofher salary to a school library. If she is left with Rs. 24,000 now, then her actual salary is

(A) Rs. 30,000

(B) Rs. 34,000

(C) Rs. 40,000

(D) Rs. 44,000

39. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hour, the length of the platform is

(A) 120 m

(B) 240 m

(C) 300 m

(D) 350 m

40. A man travels 105 km partly at 18 km/hour and partly at 25 km/hour. If he were to cover the former distance at 25 km/hour and the latter distance at 18 km/hour, he could cover 5 km more in the same time. The time taken to cover the whole distance at the original rate is

(A) 2 hours

(B) 3 hours

(C) 4 hours

(D) 5 hours

41. Mangoes are bought at Rs. 10 per 100. The rate per 100 at which they must be sold so that the gain on Rs. 100 may be equal to the selling price of 250 mangoes is

(A) Rs. 10

(B) Rs. 11 1/2

(C) Rs. 12

(D) Rs. 13 1/3

42. The cost price and the selling price of an item are in the ratio of 2 : 3. The percentage of gain is

(A) 10%

(B) 30%

(C) 40%

(D) 50%

43. In a partnership business, A invests 1/6 th of the capital for 1/6 th of the total time, B invests 1/3 rd of the capital for 1/3 rd of the total time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs. 9,200, B's share is

(A) Rs. 1,500

(B) Rs. 1,600

(C) Rs. 1,700

(D) Rs. 1,800

44. A policeman starts to chase a thief. When the thief goes 5 steps, the policeman moves 6 steps. Again, 3 steps of the policeman is equal to 6 steps of the thief. Then the ratio of their speeds is

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 7 : 9

(C) 12 : 5

(D) 11 : 13

45. There are only deers and ducks in a zoo. When the heads are counted, it is 204 and when the legs are counted, it is 512. How many deers are there in the zoo?

(A) 52

(B) 152

(C) 176

(D) 26

46. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 7, the expenditure of the mess increases by Rs. 42 per day while the average expenditure per head diminishes by Rs. 1. The original total expenditure of the mess was

(A) Rs. 400

(B) Rs. 420

(C) Rs. 1,764

(D) Rs. 1,722

47. In a certain time, Rs. 8,000 will amount to Rs. 9,261 at 10% per annum compound interest, interest being compounded half-yearly. Then the time period is

(A) 3 ½ years

(B) 2 years

(C) 2 2/3 years 

(D) 1 ½ years

48. A and B lent the same amount of money for two years at 6 ¼% per annum at simple interest and compound interest respectively. If B got Rs. 3 1/8 more than A, the amount of money lent by each was

(A) Rs. 600

(B) Rs. 400

(C) Rs. 800

(D) Rs. 8,000

Directions: The bar graph shows the Uttar Pradesh Poll outcome (1996). Study the bar graph and answer the questions no. 49 and 50.

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49. The percentage of JD members not elected in the U.P. election is

(A) 94.25%

(B) 93.75%

(C) 94.75%

(D) 93.25%

50. Which two parties combined together got the majority?

(A) Congress and BJP

(B) BJP and BSP/SP

(C) BJP and JD

(D) CPI and BSP/SP


Directions: In questions no. 51 to 60, a part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the, sentence has an error and blacken the circle ( • ) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the circle corresponding to "No error" in the Answer Sheet.

51. We heard / of their / having discovered another stream. / No error.

            (A)          (B)                    (C)                                            (D)

52. Who the Gods / would destroy / they first make mad. / No error.

            (A)                          (B)                          (C)                  (D)

53. He never / listened / what I said. / No error.

         (A)          (B)                  (C)                  (D)

54. The match being over / the gentleman goes / to Dhaka with a heavy heart. / No error.

                    (A)                             (B)                                       (C)                             (D)

55. Tomorrow we are holding / a party / around the garden. / No error.

                     (A)                          (B)                 (C)                          (D)

56. Atoms are the tiny particles / of which everything / are made. / No error.

                     (A)                                         (B)                  (C)                  (D)

57. A new bank account / has in the process / of being set up for you. / No error.

                (A)                          (B)                                          (C)                     (D)

58. CO2 and other / green house gases / is essential in the atmosphere. / No error.

               (A)                          (B)                                          (C)                           (D)

59. They have been / married / since twenty years. / No error.

                  (A)               (B)                  (C)                        (D)

60. We were honouring / to have such an eminent historian / in our school. / No error.

                (A)                                 (B)                                              (C)                 (D)

Directions: In questions no. 61 to 70, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the most appropriate alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the corresponding circle in the Answer Sheet.

61. We must desist ________ spreading rumours.

(A) in

(B) from

(C) of

(D) with

62. John has not decided whether to go for higher studies or to _______ a job.

(A) take in

(B) take to

(C) take up

(D) take off

63. You will certainly help us, _________

(A) will you ?

(B) won't you ?

(C) wouldn't you ?

(D) would you ?

64. Polly wants to cycle round the world. She's really keen _______ the idea.

(A) about

(B) for

(C) on

(D) with

65. The poor man wore a shirt.

(A) shattered

(B) fettered

(C) battered

(D) tattered

66. But alas ! The money was all gone. She had not a ________ left.

(A) fascicle

(B) facet

(C) farthing

(D) fascia

67. I've got a meeting  __________  Thursday afternoon.

(A) at

(B) in

(C) on

(D) to

68. I usually do the washing in the ________.

(A) week

(B) holiday

(C) Sunday

(D) weekend

69. I wondered if he would comply _______  grandfather's wishes.

(A) to

(B) for

(C) with

(D) by

70. Jonah returns from his office to find Philip __________ in bed.

(A) late

(B) still

(C) freezing

(D) slept

Directions: In questions no. 71 to 73, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

71. Admire

(A) Love

(B) Revere

(C) Treasure

(D) Like

72. Ready

(A) Gone

(B) Granted

(C) Seen

(D) Prepared

73. Subordinate

(A) Inferior

(B) Senior

(C) Superior

(D) Supplementary

Directions: In questions no. 74 to 76, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning opposite to the given word.

74. Concur

(A) Disagree

(B) Agree

(C) Gather

(D) Disburse

75. Shallow

(A) Wide

(B) Narrow

(C) Deep

(D) Thick

76. Eager

(A) Difficult

(B) Apathetic

(C) Demanding

(D) Intolerant

Directions: In questions no. 77 to 79, four alternatives are given for the Idiom /Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom /Phrase.

77. He failed to live up to her expectations time and again.

(A) sometimes

(B) rarely

(C) most of the time

(D) all the time

78. The mountaineers said that the beauty of the Himalayas beggars description.

(A) is describable

(B) is indescribable

(C) cannot be compared

(D) is insignificant

79. The twins are like two peas in a pod.

(A) alike

(B) different

(C) close

(D) unique

Directions: In questions no. 80 to 84, a sentence or a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, blacken the circle corresponding to "No improvement" in the Answer Sheet.

80. In this town more than 5000 people die every year in car accidents and hundreds more are suffering grave injury.

(A) suffer

(B) have been suffering

(C) have suffered

(D) No improvement

81. You should not had left so early.

(A) should have not

(B) did not have

(C) should not have

(D) No improvement

82. Did he received any recommendations?

(A) Received he

(B) Was he received

(C) Did he receive

(D) No improvement

83. He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.

(A) sent word

(B) had sent a word

(C) sent words

(D) No improvement

84. The prisoners made an escape but failed.

(A) completed a jail break

(B) attained an escape

(C) attempted an escape

(D) No improvement

Directions: In questions no. 85 to 89, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can most appropriately substitute the given word(s) or sentence.

85. A book which gives information on many branches of knowledge

(A) Dictionary

(B) Thesaurus

(C) Atlas

(D) Encyclopaedia

86. A place where fruit trees are grown

(A) Orchard

(B) Vineyard

(C) Garden

(D) Meadow

87. A beast of prey

(A) Predator

(B) Perpetrator

(C) Victim

(D) Vampire

88. One who always takes a hopeful view of things

(A) Pessimist

(B) Linguist

(C) Hedonist

(D) Optimist

89. Continuous dry weather and lack of rain

(A) Draft

(B) Drought

(C) Famine

(D) Calamity

Directions: In questions no. 90 to 95, four words are given, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

90. (A) Assasination

(B) Asassination

(C) Assassination

(D) Asasination

91. (A) Temperayture

(B) Tempurature


(D) Temperature

92. (A) Precee

(B) Presi

(C) Preci

(D) Precis

93. (A) Procidure

(B) Procedure

(C) Procedere

(D) Prosedure

94. (A) Fundamentle

(B) Fundamentol

(C) Fundemental

(D) Fundamental

95. (A) Immortals

(B) Immortols

(C) Immortles

(D) Immortels

Directions: In questions no. 96 to 100, read the following passage carefully and choose the most appropriate answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Ozone is a form of oxygen that is naturally present in our atmosphere. Each ozone molecule contains three atoms of oxygen and is chemically denoted as O3. About 10 percent of the atmospheric ozone is in the troposphere, the region closest to the Earth. The remaining 90 percent of the ozone is in the stratosphere, extending from the top of the troposPhere to about 50 kilometres of altitude. A thin veil of ozone, 25 to 40 kilometres above the Earth's surface, protects life below from the Sun's ultraviolet radiations (UV-B) that would otherwise damage many forms of life. The ozone veil is being damaged by chemicals released on the Earth's surface, notably the Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) widely used in refrigeration, aerosols and as cleaners in many industries.

96. What does the ozone layer protect the Earth from?

(A) X-rays

(B) UV-B rays

(C) Gamma rays

(D) Alpha rays

97. What is notably damaging the ozone veil?

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Carbon tetra chloride

(D) Chlorofluorocarbons

98. Name the atmospheric layer closest to the Earth.

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Exosphere

99. In which layer is most of the ozone concentrated?

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Exosphere

100. Where do you find ozone ?

(A) It is naturally present in our atmosphere.

(B) It is naturally present in the air around us.

(C) It is naturally present in water.

(D) It is present in aerosols.


101. The central problems of an economy are solved under capitalism through

(A) Central planning authority

(B) Mutual consultation by producers

(C) Price mechanism

(D) Trade associations

102. The maximum strength of members of the Rajya Sabha is

(A) 250

(B) 350

(C) 150

(D) 200

103. The Concurrent List includes

(A) Preventive detention

(B) Excise on alcoholic liquors

(C) Census

(D) Ancient and historical monuments

104. The proceedings regarding impeachment against the President can be started in

(A) The Lok Sabha only

(B) The Rajya Sabha only

(C) Either of the Houses

(D) The Vidhan Sabha only

105. An employment situation where the marginal productivity of an agricultural labour is zero is known as

(A) Chronic unemployment

(B) Seasonal unemployment

(C) Frictional unemployment

(D) Disguised unemployment

106. With an increase in production, the average fixed cost

(A) rises

(B) falls

(C) remains constant

(D) fluctuates

107. With which country is the foreign trade of India the maximum?

(A) America

(B) Britain

(C) Germany

(D) Japan

108. Which of the following is the cause of sub-division and fragmentation of agricultural holdings in India?

(A) Decline of joint family system

(B) Laws of inheritance

(C) Increasing population

(D) All of the above

109. A sermon read on Friday prayers in the name of a ruling Muslim king is

(A) Khutbah

(B) Namaz

(C) Insha-Allah

(D) Salaam

110. Whose famous work was `Satyarth Prakash' ?

(A) Swami Vivekananda

(B) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

111. Megasthenes visited India during the reign of

(A) Chandragupta II

(B) Chandragupta Maurya

(C) Asoka

(D) Harsha

112. Under which of the following Delhi Sultans did Malik Kafur serve as a military general ?

(A) Alauddin Khilji

(B) Jalaluddin Khilji

(C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(D) Aurangzeb

113. Who amongst the following was the founder of Fascist Ideology?

(A) Hitler

(B) 'Mussolini

(C) Napoleon Bonaparte

(D) Bismarck

114. The Andaman Sea is a part of the

(A) Arabian Sea

(B) Yellow Sea

(C) Sea of Japan

(D) Bay of Bengal

115. Which among the following States is created as the 29th State of India?

(A) Jharkhand

(B) Telangana

(C) Chhattisgarh

(D) Sikkim

116. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed in which Part of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Part III

(B) Part IV

(C) Part V

(D) Part VI

117. Human forearm is an example of

(A) First order lever

(B) Second order lever

(C) Third order lever

(D) Fourth order lever

118. Tirupati Hills are found in

(A) Satpura Ranges

(B) Western Ghats

(C) Aravalli Ranges

(D) Eastern Ghats

119. 'Green Revolution' in Indian agriculture refers to

(A) scientific methods for improved irrigation

(B) intensive afforestation

(C) increase in agricultural production due to scientific methods

(D) improved techniques in cultivation of fodder crops

120. The coldest place in the northern hemisphere is

(A) Reykjavik

(B) Alaska

(C) Greenland

(D) Verkhoyansk

121. The rhinoceros and hippopotamus are found in the forests of

(A) Assam

(B) Uttaranchal

(C) Karnataka

(D) Madhya Pradesh

122. The universal photosynthetic pigment is

(A) Chlorophyll-a

(B) Chlorophyll-b

(C) Chlorophyll-c

(D) Chlorophyll-d

123. Lichen is an association of

(A) Algae and fungi

(B) Fungi and moss

(C) Moss and fern

(D) Fungi and fern

124. In pea, the tendril is a modification of

(A) Stem

(B) Leaf

(C) Leaflets

(D) Petiole

125. Dodder is a/an

(A) Stem parasite

(B) Root parasite

(C) Leaf parasite

(D) Endophyte

126. An example of vestigial organ is

(A) Lung

(B) Pancreas

(C) Nictitating membrane

(D) Thyroid gland

127. The first computers were programmed using

(A) Machine language

 (B) Source code

(C) Assembly language

(D) Object code

128. Who is the inventor of 'Difference Engine'?

(A) Alan Turing

(B) Charles Babbage

(C) Seymour Cray

(D) Augusta Adaming

129. Rusting of iron involves

(A) Oxidation

(B) Reduction

(C) Decomposition

(D) Displacement

130. The disease 'Diabetes mellitus' is caused by the deficiency of

(A) Iodine

(B) Insulin

(C) Phenylalanine

(D) Alanine

131. The physical quantity corresponding to the rate of change of displacement is

(A) Speed

(B) Velocity

(C) Acceleration

(D) Retardation

132. Which one of the following is luminous?

(A) Pole Star

(B) Earth

(C) Moon

(D) Uranus

133. The freezing mixture, which is used in preparing Kulfis, is made by adding salt to ice because the

(A) melting point of ice increases

(B) latent heat of fusion of water decreases

(C) latent heat of fusion of water increases

(D) melting point of ice decreases

134. Malicious software is known as

(A) Malware

(B) Maliciousware

(C) Freeware

(D) Shareware

135. The Union Government on 22nd August, 2016 announced which award for P.V. Sindhu and Sakshi Malik?

(A) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

(B) Dronacharya Award

(C) Dhyan Chand Award

(D) Arjuna Award

136. Which of the following materials is used as anode in dry cells?

(A) Copper

(B) Brass

(C) Silver

(D) Carbon

137. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

(A) Acetic acid

(B) Ammonium hydroxide

(C) Hydrochloric acid.

(D) Oxalic acid

138. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

(A) Biosphere reserves

(B) Botanical gardens

(C) National parks

(D) Wildlife sanctuaries

139. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

(A) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

(B) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

(C) Ozone and carbon dioxide

(D) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

140. Drinking water is purified by

(A) Microbial activity

(B) Aerobic respiration

(C) Purifying seawater

(D) Dumping chloroform in water

141. The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following?

(A) Earth Summit, Rio-de-Janeiro

(B) Kyoto Protocol

(C) Montreal Protocol

(D) G-8 Summit, Heiligendamm

142. In which State of India is Abhaneri festival celebrated?

(A) Chhattisgarh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Jharkhand

(D) Uttarakhand

143. For which of the following musical instruments is Hariprasad Chaurasia famous?

(A) Guitar

(B) Flute

(C) Violin

(D) Tabla

144. Which of the following is being touted as the Whatsapp moment' ?

(A) Paytm

(B) M-Pesa

(C) United Payment Interface (UPI)

(D) New Featured Whatsapp (NFW)

145. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Special Task Force constituted to speed up recalibration of ATMs?

(A) Cyrus Mistry

(B) Anantha Kumar

(C) S.S. Mundra

(D) Arvind Subramanian

146. IBRD is also known as



(C) World Bank


147. Who has been elected as an individual member of International Olympic Committee (IOC) in August, 2016?

(A) Nita Ambani

(B) Kapil Dev

(C) Tina Ambani

(D) Shashank Thakur

148. Who created a new world record in scoring the fastest century in Test Cricket history in February, 2016?

(A) Steve Smith

(B) Chris Gayle

(C) Brendon McCullum

(D) Virat Kohli

149. 'Mission Bhagiratha' is a water supply project of which of the following States?

(A) Telangana

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Uttarakhand

(D) Bihar

150. Which of the following is a statutory body?

(A) Union Public Service Commission

(B) Election Commission of India

(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(D) Central Vigilance Commission

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