1. Home
  2. |  
  3. Civil Services |  

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Model Test Paper 2

Jun 22, 2015 13:05 IST

    1. Which of these are Irrigation related schemes of Government of India?

    (i) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
    (ii) Pradhanmantri Gram Sinchai Yojana
    (iii) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  2 and 3 only

    2. Choose the false statement among the following:

      (a) There is a separate consolidated fund for both Centre and States.
      (b)  Money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India with the President's approval.
      (c) The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
      (d) The salary and pension payable to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.

    3. The Contingency Fund of India which is an imprest placed at the disposal of the President of India to facilitate Government to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure. The corpus at present is Rs_____ crore.

    (a) 50
    (b) 100
    (c) 500
    (d) 1000

    4. Consider the following statements:

    (i) Budget is prepared by Economic Division of Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
    (ii) Individual Departments/Ministries also prepare and present to Parliament their Detailed Demands for Grants, Outcome Budget and their Annual Reports.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    5. With reference to Budget 2015-16, Consider the following statements:

      (i) Annual Financial Statement (AFS) shows estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for 2015-16 in relation to estimates for 2014-15 as also expenditure for the year 2013-14.
      (ii) Moneys held by Government in Trust as in the case of Provident Funds, Small Savings collections, income of Government set apart for expenditure on specific objects like road development, primary education, Reserve/Special Funds etc. are kept in the Public Account.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    6. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) Based on the new series, Growth in 2015-16 is expected to be between 8 to 8.5%.
    (b) The World Trade Organization has revised its forecast of world trade growth from 5.3% to 4%.
    (c) Manufacturing has declined from 18% to 16% of GDP as per new GDP data (Budget 2015)
    (d) JAM Trinity - Jan Dhan, Aadhar and Mobile, will help to implement direct transfer of benifits.

    7. With reference Amrut Mahotsav, consider the following statements:

       (i) The year 2022 will be the  Amrut Mahotsav, the 75th year, of India’s independence
      (ii)As per union budget ‘Housing for all’ by 2022 would require Team India to complete 2 crore houses in urban areas and 4 crore houses in rural areas
      (iii) At least two members from each family should have access to the means for livelihood and, employment or economic opportunity

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3

    8. Consider the following statements:

       (i) Fiscal deficit targets for the next three years are: 3.9% for 2015-16, 3.5% for 2016-17 and 3% for 2017-18.
       (ii) Union government accepted the 14th Finance Commission’s recommendation to devolve 42 per cent share of the divisible pool of taxes to states during 20015-16 to 2019-20.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    9.  Consider the following pairs:
                  

               Government Account/Fund                  Article

    1. The Consolidated Fund of India       :        Article 266(1)        
    2. The Public Account                           :        Article 266(2)
    3. The Contingency Fund of India        :        Article 267(1)

    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c)3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    10. Consider the following statements:

       (i) Rs 25,000 crore has been allocated to the corpus of Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) set up in NABARD.
       (ii) As per budget 2015-16 a ‘Unified National Agriculture market’ has been created.
       (iii) Farm credit target for the year 2015-16 is 8.5 lakh crore.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 1 and 3 only
      (c) 2 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3

    11. Capital Account is an account comprising_________________?

    1. FDI
    2. Foreign Loans
    3. Private Remittances
    4. Portfolio Investment

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    a)  1, 2 and 3            b) 1, 2 and 4
    c)  2, 3 and 4            d) 1, 3 and 4

    12. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to

    a) weaker sections
    b) MSME
    c) agriculture
    d) All of the above

    13. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to

    a) Schedule bank’s borrowing from RBI
    b) Commercial bank’s lending to industry and trade
    c) Government Security’s sale and purchase by the RBI
    d) None of the above

    14. A country’s national income for a given period is equal to

    a)  money value of final goods and services produced
    b)  sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
    c)  total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
    d)  sum of personal income of all the individuals.

    15. What is the impact of increasing CRR by RBI?

    a) The commercial banks will have more money to lend
    b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
    c) The Union Government will have less money to lend
    d) The commercial banks will have less money to lend

    16. Artificial currency comprises of one of the following.

    a) ADR                
    b) SDR
    c) GDR
    d) Both ADR and SDR

    17. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the?

    a) Consolidated Fund of India
    b) Deposits and Advances Fund
    c) Contingency Fund of India
    d) Public Account

    18. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns with:

    a) Revenue Deficit
    b) Fiscal Deficit
    c) Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit
    d) Neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit

    19. Karl Marx’s explanation of process of class struggle was based on theory of________________?

    a) Dialectical materialism
    b) Existentialism
    c) Darwin’s theory of evolution
    d) Empirical Liberalism

    20. “Demography Dividend” of India is based on

    a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years.
    b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years.
    c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years.
    d) Its high total population.

    21. With reference to election in Israel consider the following statements:

         1. Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu’s Likud Party emerged as the single largest party in the 120-member parliament after elections.
         2. Parliament of Israel is known as Diet

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a)  1  only
    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2
    (d)  Neither 1 nor 2

    22. Consider the following pairs:

           Rescue Operation         Country/region

    1.    Operation Raahat      :   Yemen
    2.    Operation Maitri         :    Nepal
    3.    Operation All Out       :    India

    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

       (a) 1only

       (b)1 and 2 only

       (c) 2 and 3 only

       (d) 1, 2 and 3


    23. Match the followings:

    1.  Vivek Murthy              :      A.  Nasscom President
    2.  R. Chandrashekhar    :      B.  Surgeon-General of America
    3.  Dr. Vikram Patel         :      C. Time magazine’s 100 most influential people in the world
    4.  John Forbes Nash, Jr  :      D. Mathematician-Nobel prize

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
    (b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
    (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
    (d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, -A

    24. Consider the following statements:

       1. Union Cabinet has approved three lakh crore on urban development under two new urban missions over the next five years- Smart Cities Mission and AMRUT.
      2. Union Cabinet has approved new urban Renewal mission, Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation of 500 cities (AMRUT).
      3. The Cabinet has approved the Smart Cities Mission and the AMRUT with outlays of Rs.48, 000 crore and Rs.50, 000 crore respectively.

    Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    25.Who among the followings is the head of Indian Railway Innovative Council ’Kayakalp’?

    (a) M Raghuvaiah
    (b) Shiv Gopal Mishra
    (c) Ratan Tata
    (d) Gautam Adani

    26. Consider the following statements:

       1. The Department of AYUSH has been elevated to an independent Ministry w.e.f. 09.11.2014.
       2. June 21 was declared as the International Day of Yoga by the United Nations General Assembly.

       Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) None of these

    27. With reference to the 62nd National Film Awards, Consider the following statements:

       1. Directorate of Film Festivals was set up by the Government of India in 1973 to organize International and National Film Festivals within the country.
       2. Vijay has been awarded best actor for Nanu Avanalla Avalu (Kannada)
       3. Shashi Kapoor has been conferred  Dadasaheb Phalke Award.

    Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    28. Eminent Marathi litterateur _________ has been awarded 50th Jnanpith Award for 2014.

    (a) Bhalchandra Nemade
    (b) VS Khandekar
    (c) Shirwadkar
    (d) Govind Karandikar

    29. With reference to the 68th Cannes Film Festival, Consider the following statements:

       1. French film Dheepan has been awarded Palme d’Or Award at 68th Cannes Film Festival. The film is directed by Jacques Audiard.
       2. Cannes is a city of Germany on the banks of Baltic Sea.

     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) None of these

    30. Which committee has given its report on Government advertisements in Media?

    (a) Rajinder Sachar Committee
    (b) N. R madhav menon
    (c) Swaminathan Committee
    (d) Mudgal committee

    31.Consider the following statements:

         1 Trade in services denoted as invisible trade because they are not seen to cross national borders.
         2 Total foreign trade (exports +imports) as a proportion of GDP is a common measure of the degree of openness of an economy.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    32. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) If the real exchange rate is equal to zero, currencies are at purchasing power parity
    (b) The real exchange rate is often taken as a measure of a country’s international competitiveness.
    (c) The price of one currency in terms of the other is known as the exchange rate.
    (d) Real exchange rate – the ratio of foreign to domestic prices, measured in the same currency.

    33. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

    (a) The Bretton Woods Conference was held in 1944 in Canada.
    (b) Silver supplemented gold introducing ‘bimetallism’.
    (c) Gold standard was the epitome of the fixed exchange rate system
    (d) The Gold Standard: 1870 to the outbreak of the First World
    War in 1914

    34. What does pegged exchange rate system mean?

    (a) The exchange rate is pegged at a particular level
    (b) The exchange rate is determined by the forces of market demand and supply

    (c) The exchange rate is fixed by bank consortium
    (d) The exchange rate is fixed by Govt together with private players.

    35. A devaluation is said to occur when the exchange rate is ______?

    (a) Decreased    
    (b) Increased
    (c) Kept constant
    (d)None of these

    36. With reference to Exchange rate, consider the following statements:

    1.    Managed floating exchange rate system is a mixture of a flexible exchange rate system and a fixed rate system.
    2.    In dirty floating, central banks intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to moderate exchange rate movements whenever they feel that such actions are appropriate.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    37. Which of these Institutions are “The Bretton Woods System”?

    (a)IMF and WTO
    (b)IMF and World Bank
    (c)WTO and World Bank
    (d)IBRD and IDA

    38.The Smithsonian Agreement of 1971 is related to?

    (a)    Widening the permissible band of the exchange rates to 2.5 per cent above or below the new ‘central rates’.
    (b)    Tackle shortage of liquidity during the Great Depression
    (c)    Moving from fixed to floating exchange rate
    (d)    Bop crisis faced  by countries after fall of the Bretton Woods System

    39. With reference to SDR, consider the following statement:

         1. ‘Reserve asset’ created under the control of the IMF
         2. At present, it is calculated daily as the weighted sum of the values in dollars of four currencies (euro, dollar, Japanese yen, and pound sterling)
         3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) also known as ‘paper gold’

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 and 2 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) 1, 2 and 3
      (d) 2 and 3 only

    40. With mines not producing enough gold, __________ helped to economise on gold.

    (a)  Fractional reserve banking( Paper currency was not entirely backed by gold)
    (b)  Gold Standard
    (c)  fixed exchange rate system
    (d)  Silver standard

    41. Which of the following Environment related Act is/are correctly mentioned?

    1. Environment Protection Act, 1986
    2. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
    3. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
    4. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

    a) Only (1) and (2)                          b) Only (3) and (4)
    c) Only (1), (2) and (3)                    d) Only (1), (2) and (4).

    42. Phenomena of Excessive growth of Planktonic in river bodies is caused due to:

    a) Presence of large amount of fishes in the water
    b) Presence of large amount of nutrients in the water
    c) Presence of large amount of dead fishes in the water
    d) Presence of no fishes in the water

    43. Which of the following elements is/are not found in polluted water in India?

    1. Mercury
    2. Cadmium
    3. Lead
    4. Copper
    5. Uranium

    a) Only (1)                                   b) Only (3)
    c) Only (1) and (3) and (5)          d) None of the above

    44. Few toxic substances found in industrial waste water undergo biological magnification. In this phenomena

    a) Concentration of toxic substances increases when we move up in pyramids
    b) Concentration of toxic substances decreases when we move up in pyramids
    c) Concentration of toxic substances remains same
    d) Concentration of toxic substances first decreases, then increases.

    45. Which of the following is True about lakes as well as other water bodies:

    a) Young lake supports more life compared to Old Lake
    b) Young lake supports less life compared to Old Lake
    c) Support to life is similar in Young as well as Old Lake
    d) None of the above.

    46. Which of the following is not an in-situ conservation method?

    a) National Parks
    b) Wild life sanctuaries
    c) Biosphere reserves
    d) Zoological Parks

    47. Contribution of various green house gases to total global warming in decreasing order

    a) Carbon dioxide, Methane, CFCs
    b) Methane, Carbon dioxide, CFCs
    c) Carbon dioxide, CFCs, Methane
    d) Methane, CFCs, Carbon dioxide

    48. Which of the following phenomena is correct about ozone?

    a) Good ozone is found in the Troposphere.
    b) Good ozone is found in the stratosphere.
    c) Bad ozone is found in the stratosphere.
    d) Good ozone is found in troposphere as well as stratosphere.

    49. Which of the following is not true about ozone?

    a) Ozone is covered under Montreal Protocol.
    b) Ozone is also covered under Kyoto Protocol.
    c) Montreal protocol binds countries to adopt measures to curb ozone depleting substances.
    d) HFC was used to replace ozone depleting substances.

    50. Which of the following is/are not a cause of bio-diversity loss:

    1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
    2. Over exploitation
    3. Alien Species invasion
    4. Co-extinctions

    a) Only (1), (2), (3)                b) Only (1), (3) and (4)
    c) Only (1), (2) and (4)           d) All of the above.

    51. There is a place A with longitude 060o East. There is another place B with longitude 090o East. If local time at place A is 1200 Hrs. What would be local time at Place B?

    a) 1200 Hrs
    b) 1400 Hrs
    c) 1000 Hrs
    d) 1220 Hrs

    52. Which of the following is correct about India?

    1) India has total area of 3.28 million sq. Km.
    2) India has a coastline of 6100 km in mainland.
    3) India has a total coastline of 7600 km including islands.

    a) 1 and 2 only                b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1 and 3 only                d) All of the above

    53. What is the correct order of river from north to south?

    a) Indus, Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Beas
    b) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Beas, Ravi
    c) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas
    d) Indus, Chenab, Jhelum, Beas, Ravi

    54. What is the correct order of Mountains from East to West?

    a) Garo Hills, Jaintia Hills, Naga Hills, Khasi Hills
    b) Garo Hills, Khasi Hills, Jaintia Hills, Naga Hills
    c) Jaintia Hills, Garo Hills, Khasi Hills, Naga Hills
    d) Jaintia Hills, Garo Hills, Naga Hills, Khasi Hills

    55. What is the correct order of Mountain Peaks from South to North?

    a) Anai Mudi, Doda Betta, Mahendragiri, Malayagiri
    b) Anai Mudi, Doda Betta, Malayagiri, Mahendragiri
    c) Doda Betta, Anai Mudi, Malayagiri, Mahendragiri
    d) Doda Betta, Malayagiri, Anai Mudi, Mahendragiri

    56. Arrange the following rivers from longest to shortest?

    a) Yamuna, Narmada, Mahanadi, Kaveri
    b) Narmada, Yamuna, Mahanadi, Kaveri
    c) Narmada, Mahanadi, Yamuna, Kaveri
    d) Mahanadi, Narmada, Yamuna, Kaveri

    57. Which of the following cities has maximum northern latitude?

    a) Ranchi
    b) Dhanbad
    c) Jamshedpur
    d) Barddhaman

    58. Which of the following statement is correct about Lake Loktak?

    1) It is located in Mizoram.
    2) It is one of the site under Ramsar Convention

    a) 1 only                      b) 2 only
    c) Both                        d) None


    59. Which is the correct order of Islands from North to South in Nicobar Islands?

    a) Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar, Great Nicobar
    b) Great Nicobar, Little Nicobar, Car Nicobar
    c) Great Nicobar, Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar
    d) Little Nicobar, Car Nicobar, Great Nicobar

    60. Arrange the following islands of Japan from North to South?

    a) Honshu, Hokkaido, Shikoku, Kyushu
    b) Honshu, Hokkaido, Kyushu, Shikoku
    c) Hokkaido, Honshu, Kyushu, Shikoku
    d) Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku, Kyushu

    61. Consider the following pairs:

         1. Earth Summit, 1993                                                  :   Rio de Janeiro
         2. World Conference on Disaster Management, 1994  :   Yokohama
         3. National Institute of Disaster Management, 1995    :  Hyderabad

    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

       (a) 1 only

       (b) 1 and 2 only

       (c) 3 only

       (d) 1, 2 and 3                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    
    62. Consider the following statements:

      1. Natural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or property or both.
       2. Natural disasters are relatively sudden and cause large scale, widespread death, loss of property and disturbance to social systems and life over which people have a little or no control.

       Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) None of these

    63. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

      (a) World Conference on Disaster Management in May 1994 was subsequently called the Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World.
      (b) The issue of Natural Disaster was raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1992 and was finally formalised at the world conference on Disaster management in 1994.
      (c) The Tropical cyclone of 1971 in India is the deadliest one till date.
      (d) Unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters that are the results of indirect human actions.

    64. With reference to the Classification of Natural Disasters, Consider the following statements:

        1. Broadly, natural disasters can be classified under four categories: Atmospheric,     Terrestrial, Aquatic and Biological.
        2. Bird flu, dengue are example of Aquatic Disaster.
        3. India has experienced all the four kind of natural disaster.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d)  1 and 3 only

    65. Tropical Cyclones are intense low pressure areas confined to the area lying between

    (a) 30 degree north and 30 degree south.
    (b) 50 degree north and 50 degree south.
    (c)  50 degree north and 30 degree south.
    (d)  5 degree north and 5 degree south.

    66. Which one among these is not an essential condition for emergence of Tropical Cyclone?

     (a) Peninsular landmass
     (b) Strong coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre.
     (c) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
     (d) Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

    67. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) established at Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Sciences is established in

    (a)Chennai
    (b)Goa
    (c)Kochi
    (d)Hyderabad

    68. With reference to flood consider the following statements:

      1. National Programme of Flood Management was launched in 1954.
      2. Disturbances along the natural drainage channels and colonisation of flood-plains and river-beds are some of the human activities that play an important role in increasing the intensity, magnitude and gravity of floods.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    69. Rashtriya Barh Ayog (National Flood Commission) identified ______ million hectares of land as flood-prone in India.

    (a) 40
    (b) 80
    (c) 100
    (d) 120

    70. Which of these is/are flood prevention and mitigation strategy?

         1. Construction of flood protection embankments
         2. Depopulating the flood plains
         3.  Afforestation
         4.  Construction of dams

    Select the correct option using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    71. Following pairs comprises of Bill/Act of British Rule and Governor-General. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

    a) Doctrine of Lapse      : Dalhousie
    b) Pitt’s India Act           : Warren Hastings
    c) Ilbert Bill                    : Ripon
    d) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

    72. Tebhaga Peasant Movement of Bengal was caused for

    a) grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were actual cultivators
    b) the uprooting of Zamindari System and the end of serfdom
    c) writing off all peasant debts
    d) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the    crop to one-third

    73. Members of the Constituent Assembly of India from the provinces were

    a) Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
    b) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
    c) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
    d) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies

    74. Government of India Act, 1919 had the provisions of?

    1) Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims
    2) Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces
    3) Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    a) Only 1                     b) Only 2 and 3
    c) Only 1 and 3            d) All of the above

    75. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Annie Besant?

    1) the founder of the Theosophical Society
    2) responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
    3) once the President of the Indian National Congress

    Select the correct statement using the codes given below.

    a) Only 1                  b) Only 2 and 3
    c) Only 1 and 3            d) All of the above

    76. “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the constitution as:

    a) Extent of executive power of State
    b) Fundamental Rights
    c) Directive Principles of State Policy
    d) Conduct of business of the Government of India

    77. Who was the Governor General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny?

     a) Lord Dalhousie
    b) Lord Canning
    c) Lord Lytton
    d) Lord Hardings

    78. Which Governor General of India was the founder of Indian Civil Service?

    a) Wellesley
    b) Warren Hastings        
    c) William Bentinck
    d) Cornwallis

    79. Which of the following statements are correct:

    1) The Regulating Act, 1773 established Supreme Court at Calcutta.
    2) The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
    3) Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British Pattern.

    a)    Only 1 and 2            b) Only 2 and 3
    b)    Only 1 and 3            d) All of the above

    80. Consider the following statements:

       1) William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.
       2) Robert Clive was the first Governor-General of Bengal.

         a)  Only 1                b) Only 2
         c)  Both 1 and 2      d) None

    81. Which of the following criteria is/are incorporated to obtain the citizenship as per Citizenship Act, 1955.

    1. Citizenship by birth.
    2. Citizenship by descent.
    3. Citizenship by registration.
    4. Citizenship by naturalisation.
    5. Citizenship by incorporation of territory.

    a)    Only (1), (2) & (3)            b) Only (1), (3), (5)
    c)    Only (1), (2) & (5)            d) All of the above.

    82. Which of the following is/are false about fundamental rights?

    1.    Fundamental rights are covered in Part IV of constitution.
    2.    Fundamental rights are covered between Art 12 to Art 35.
    3.    Fundamental rights are inspired from Bill of rights, US.
    4.    Fundamental rights cannot be amended.

    (a) Only (1)                         (b) (1) and (4) only
    (c) Only (1), (2), (4)            (d) Only (1), (3), (4)

    83. Which of the following is false?

    a)    Uniform civil code is covered under Art. 44 of constitution.
    b)    Protection of environment is a DPSP under Art. 48A.
    c)    Abolition of untouchability is covered under Art. 17 of constitution.
    d)    Right to constitutional remedies is covered under Art. 19 of constitution.

    84. Which of the following is true about Directive Principles of State Policy?

    1) These are directions to state.
    2) Aim of DPSP is to develop socio-economic equality in the society.
    3) DPSP are superior to Fundamental Rights. Fundamental right which violates DPSP would be void.
    4) DPSP are justiciable in nature.

          a)  Only (1) and (2)            b) Only (2), (4)
          c)  Only (4)                         d) All of the above.

    85. Which of the following is/are true about fundamental duties?

    1) Fundamental duties are covered under Art. 51 of constitution.
    2) Fundamental duties have been incorporated by Swarn Singh Committee report.
    3) There are total 10 fundamental duties in constitution.
    4) To safeguard private property is a fundamental duty.

    a)  Only (1) and (2)                b) Only (2)
    c)  Only (1), (2) and (4)            d) All of the above

    86. Which of the following is true about President?

    a) President takes oath in front of Vice-President.
    b) Impeachment of President is covered under Art. 61 of constitution.
    c) President can maximum be elected for 2 terms.
    d) Pardoning power of President is covered under Art. 73 of constitution.

    87. which of the following is false about council of ministers?

    a) Council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
    b) A minister can be elected in council of ministers without being a member of parliament.
    c) Prime Minister is the head of council of ministers.
    d) Council of minister consists of cabinet ministers, ministers of state and deputy ministers only.

    88. Which of the following is not a special power of Loksabha?

    a) A no-confidence motion can only be initiated in Lok Sabha.
    b) Money and Finance bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
    c) Power to initiate impeachment process of president.
    d) All of the above are correct.

    89. Which of the following is special power of Rajya Sabha?

    1) Removal of vice-president can only be initiated from Rajya Sabha.
    2) Centre’s power to make law on state list can only be initiated from Rajya Sabha.
    3) Formation of All-India Service.

    a)   Only (1) and (2)            b) Only (2) and (3)
    c)   Only (1) and (3)            d) All of the above.

    90. Special powers of speaker of lok sabha consist of:

    1) Presiding over a joint sitting of the Parliament.
    2) Power to certify a bill as money bill.
    3) Appoint of chairman to the primary committees.
    4) Power to bring adjournment motion.

    a) Only (1), (2) & (3)            b) Only (2), (3) & (4)
    c) Only (1), (2) & (4)            d) All of the above.

    91. With reference to SOLAR IMPULSE 2(Si2) statements:

       (i) Swiss explorers Bertrand Piccard and André Borschberg are the founders, pilots and driving force behind Solar Impulse, the first airplane of perpetual endurance, able to fly day and night without a drop of fuel.
       (ii) The Round-The-World flight started from Abu Dhabi, on March 9. The route includes stop-overs in Oman, India, Myanmar and China. After trying to cross the Pacific Ocean via Hawaii, Si2 should fly across the U.S.A. and over the Atlantic Ocean, heading back to Abu Dhabi.
       (iii) Si2 had arrived in Ahmedabad on March 10 after covering a distance of 1465km from Muscat — it’s first stop in India and second in its global tour. In India it took off from the city of Indore for Myanmar.

     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

       (e)  (i) and (iii) only
       (f)   (i) and (ii) only
       (g)  (ii) and (iii) only
       (h)  (i),(ii) and (iii)

    92. India has unveiled its cheapest indigenously developed and manufactured Rotavirus vaccine. Is the third such vaccine available globally against the Rotavirus. Each year, diarrhoea caused by rotavirus results up to 10 lakh hospitalizations and kills nearly 80 thousand children under the age of 5 years. The vaccine is known as?

    (a)    ROTOMAC
    (b)    ROTOMED
    (c)    ROTOVAC
    (d)    None of these

    93. India successfully launched the IRNSS-1D on March 28, 2015 from Satish Dhawan space centre in Sriharikota. Consider the following statements:

      (i) PSLV-C27 placed the 1425 kg IRNSS-1D in the orbit.
      (ii) IRNSS will have civilian and military application of SAARC nations.
      (iii) The satellite is one among the seven of the IRNSS constellation of satellites slated to be launched to provide navigational services to the region.
      (iv)Mr. A. S. Kiran Kumar is the new chairman of ISRO succeeding G. Madhavan Nair.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

        (a) (i) and (iii) only
        (b) (ii) only
        (c) (i),(ii) and (iii) only
        (d) (ii) and (iii) only

    94. With reference to the “Mission Indradhanush”, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

        (a) The Mission Indradhanush, depicting seven colours of the rainbow, aims to cover all those children by 2020 who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against seven vaccine preventable diseases which include diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B.
       (b) The Mission was launched on Good Governance Day to mark the birth anniversary of Bharat Ratna Shri Madan Mohan Malaviya and Bharat Ratna Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
      (c)Both (a) and (b)
      (d) (b) only

    95. With reference to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) the hereditary material in humans, consider the following statements:

      (i) The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people.
      (ii) DNA bases pair up with each other, A with G and C with T, to form units called base pairs. Each base is also attached to a sugar molecule and a phosphate molecule. Together, a base, sugar, and phosphate are called a nucleotide. Nucleotides are arranged in two long strands that form a spiral called a double helix. The structure of the double helix is somewhat like a ladder.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     (a) (i) only
    (b) (ii) only
    (c) Both (i) and (ii)
    (d)Neither (i) nor (ii)

    96. The total amount of energy assimilated by plant during photosynthesis is called as:

    (a) Gross primary production
    (b)Gross tropic energy
    (c) Biomass
    (d)Net primary production

    97. With reference to the Uranium consider the following statements:

      (i) Natural uranium as found in the Earth's crust is a mixture largely of two isotopes: uranium-238 (U-238), accounting for 99.3% and uranium-235 (U-235) about 0.7%.
      (ii) Uranium U-235 is 'fissile', that of U-238 is said to be 'fertile'.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

       (a) (i) Only
       (b) (ii) Only
       (c) Both (i) and (ii)
       (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

    98. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for the formation of Rainbow when sunlight falls on drops of rain?

     (a) Refraction
     (b) Dispersion
     (c) Internal Reflection
     (d) All of the Above

    99. With reference to Sound waves consider the following statements:

         (i) Human ear is capable of detecting sound waves ranging between approximately 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz.
         (ii) Sound waves in air are Transverse waves, where displacement of the medium is parallel to the propagation of the wave.
         (iii)Sound generally travels faster in gases and liquids than in Solid.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

        (a) (i) only
        (b) (i) and (ii) only
        (c) (i),(ii) and (iii)
        (d) (ii) only

    100. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has revised the broadband speed in consonance of the National Telecom Policy 2012 and Trai recommendations. The earlier minimum broadband speed of 256kbps was as per the Broadband Policy 2004.What is the new minimum broadband speed?

      (a) 2mbps
      (b) 1mbps
      (c) 512kbps
      (d) 128kbps

     

    For more IAS Prelims Questions Click here

    Latest Videos

    Register to get FREE updates

      All Fields Mandatory
    • (Ex:9123456789)
    • Please Select Your Interest
    • Please specify

    • ajax-loader
    • A verifcation code has been sent to
      your mobile number

      Please enter the verification code below

    This website uses cookie or similar technologies, to enhance your browsing experience and provide personalised recommendations. By continuing to use our website, you agree to our Privacy Policy and Cookie Policy. OK
    X

    Register to view Complete PDF