CBSE Term 1 Sample Paper of Class 10 Social Science is available here for download in PDF. This sample paper along with its marking scheme has been released by the board to reveal the format of the paper that will be followed in the upcoming Term 1 Board Exam 2021-2022. This is for the first time that the board is going to conduct a totally MCQ-based exam for Class 10. The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Sample Paper will help to know the type and level of questions so that you may plan your exam preparations accordingly.
New* CBSE Class 10 Social Science Best 5 Tips for Last Minute Preparation for Tomorrow's Paper
CBSE Class 10 Social Science (087) Term 1 Sample Question Paper 2021-2022
Time - 90 Minutes
Maximum Marks – 40 Marks
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Paper Pattern with Important Details for Term 1 Exam 2021-22
Important Assertion Reason Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Exam 2021-22
SECTION – A (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society in Berne?
A. Giuseppe Garibaldi
B. Giuseppe Mazzini
C. Count Cavour
D. Otto von Bismark
Check: CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Sample Papers 2021-2022 (All Subjects)
2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
A. Unification of Germany
B. Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
C. Unification of Italy
D. Unification of Vietnam
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options:
A. It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
B. Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
C. It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia.
D. It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.
4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended with victory and unification of Germany?
A. Austria, Poland and France
B. Austria, Denmark and France
C. Austria, Turkey and France
D. Austria, England and France
5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early nineteenth-century Europe.
Check: CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Syllabus 2021-2022
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
A. Groundnut- Assam
B. Tea- Gujarat
C. Coffee- Karnataka
D. Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh
7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called _________.
Choose the correct option:
A. Barren land
B. Forest land
C. Grazing land
D. Fallow land
8. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
A. Kyoto Protocol
B. Montreal Protocol
C. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
D. World Summit on Sustainable Development
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land degradation?
B. Crop rotation
C. Shelter belts
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
C. Sri Lanka
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
A. Reduces socio-economic conflicts
B. Provides ethnic -cultural development
C. Allows people to enjoy specific rights
D. Restricts supremacy of one party
13. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
A. Democratic Government
B. Socialist Government
C. Community Government
D. Liberal Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?
B. Sri Lanka
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
A. It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
B. It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
C. It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
D. It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
A. Union list
B. State list
C. Concurrent list
D. Residuary subjects
17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371A of the Constitution of India?
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
11. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above age group?
A. Net Attendance Ratio
B. Enrolment Rate
C. Literacy Rate
D. Drop out Ratio
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
A. The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
B. The total income of the country divided by its total population.
C. The total income of all the residents of the country.
D. The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.
21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
A. Improvement in science, information and technology
B. Improvement in health, education and income
C. Improvement in information and communication
D. Improvement in investment, finance and technology
22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
A. Economic development
B. Human Development
C. Sustainable Development
D. National Development
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?
A. A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
B. An engineer getting all employment benefits.
C. A cleaning staff in a private school
D. A tailor stitching clothes at his home.
24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days of an employment, the government would have to-----------------------------------
Choose the correct option:
A. Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
B. Provide another scheme for the same
C. Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance D. Provide health care as compensation.
Download the full sample paper from the link mentioned below:
CBSE Class 10 Social Science
Also Check CBSE Class 10 Best Resources for Maximum Marks in Term 1 Board Exam 2021-22