CTET 2015 (September): Question Paper II with Answers

Download CTET 2015 Question Paper with answers (September 2015, Paper 2nd) in PDF format and prepare for CTET 2018.

CTET 2015 (September): Question Paper with Answers
CTET 2015 (September): Question Paper with Answers

CTET 2015 Question Paper with answers (September 2015, Paper 2nd) is available here. You can also download this question paper with the help of download link given at the end of this article. This paper is extremely helpful for the preparation of the coming Central Teachers Eligibility Test or CTET 2018. Answers of CTET 2015 Question Paper are given after the question.

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Child Development & Pedagogy

Answers of Child Development & Pedagogy

Mathematics and Science

Answers of Mathematics and Science

Social Studies/ Social Science

Answers of Social Studies/ Social Science

Language I - English

Answers of Language I - English

Language II - हिन्दी

Answers of Language II - हिन्दी

CTET 2015 (September): Complete Question Paper with Answers is given below

Child Development & Pedagogy

Answer the following question by selecting the most appropriate options.

1. Gender bias refers to:

(a) differential treatment of boys and girls based on expectations due to cultural attitude.

(b) genetic differences that exist between boys and girls.

(c) perception of self as relatively feminine and masculine in characteristics.

(d) acknowledgement of differences between boys and girls due to their physiology.

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2. As an upper primary school teacher you have quite a few children who are ‘First generation school goers’ in your classroom. Which one of the following are you most likely to do?

(a) Call the parents and gently ask them to enroll their children for tuition.

(b) Provide scaffolding and other kinds of support during classroom activities and for homework.

(c) Give them homework of memorizing and copying the answers in their notebooks five times.

(d) Tell the children that they do not have the capability to study further and they should now help their parents at work.

CTET Syllabus 2018 with Exam Pattern: Paper I and Paper II

3. Even children of the same age vary greatly in appearance, abilities, temperament, interests, aptitude amongst other things. What is the role of the school in this regard?

(a) Ensure that each child gets opportunities to develop as per her potential.

(b) Lay down normative standards of assessment for children.

(c) Ensure that the teacher uses standardized instruction and textbooks.

(d) Ensure that all children develop in the same manner.

4. A teacher’s most important role in an inclusive classroom is:

(a) to plan for the class so that every child progresses at the same pace.

(b) to ensure that the teacher gives standard instructions to the class.

(c) to find out the occupations of parents of children so that the teacher knows what each child’s future occupation would be.

(d) to ensure that every child gets an opportunity to realize her potential.

CTET Previous Year Papers

5. How would you help children in your class to make changes in their concepts?

(a) By giving children an opportunity to express their own understanding of the concepts.

(b) By dictating the information to the children and then asking them to memorize it.

(c) By punishing children if their concepts are wrong.

(d) By giving factual information.

6. A certificate is given to children when they read a specific number of books. In the long run this strategy might not work since:

(a) reading books would distract children from completing their homework.

(b) this might lead to children reading only for getting the certificates.

(c) the library would need to buy a lot of books.

(d) A large number of certificates would have to be given. when more children start reading.

7. Role of a teacher in a class is to:

(a) transmit knowledge in a straight fashion and prepare students for right answers.

(b) follow the time-table strictly and stick to the course.

(c) provide authentic learning situations and facilitate independent thinking in students.

(d) fill the students with her own knowledge and prepare them for examinations.

8. Which of the following statements is most appropriate about childrens making errors?

(a) Children’s error are a window into how they think.

(b) To avoid making errors, children need to imitate the teacher.

(c) children’s errors need to be taken seriously and they should be punished severely so that they do not repeat the mistakes.

(d) Children commit errors since they do not have the capacity to think.

9. Assesssment is an intergral part of teaching-learning process because:

(a) Children need to be marked so that they know where they stand in comparison to their peers.

(b) assessment helps the teachers to understand children’s learning and serves as a feedback for her own teaching.

(c) assessment is the only way to ensure that teachers have taught and students have learnt.

(d) in today’s time marks are the only important thing in education.

10. “The curriculum must enable children to find their voices, nurture their curiosity – to do things, to ask questions and to pursue investigations, sharing and integrating their experiences with school knowledge – rather than their ability to reproduce textual knowledge.” National Curriculum Framework 2005, p-13.

Againts this backdrop, what should be the primary role of the teacher?

(a) to ensure that the teacher asks good question and the children write the answers in their notebooks.

(b) to give plenty of opportunities to children to share their own understanding and knowledge.

(c) to discard the experiences of the children and focus on the text-book.

(d) to do the chapters of the textbooks sequentially.

11. To encourage children to put in efforts in their studies teachers need to:

(a) scold the child.

(b) control the child.

(c) compare the child with others.

(d) motivate the child.

12. Which one of these statements in the context of emotions, learning and motivation is most appropriate?

(a) Learning something new is dependent on how good we are at that.

(b) Emotions need to be pushed aside to allow for learning to take place.

(c) Emotions are inextricably intertwined with motivation and learning.

(d) Emotions do not play any role in motivating us to learn.

13. Multiple Choice Questions assess the child’s ability to:

(a) recall the correct answer.

(b) construct the correct answer.

(c) explain the correct answer.

(d) recognize the correct answer.

14. Process of socialization does NOT include:

(a) Acquisition of skills

(b) Acquiring value and beliefs

(c) Genetic transmission

(d) Learning the customs and norms of a culture

15. What term/Phrase does Piaget use for ‘mental structures which are the building blocks of thinking’?

(a) Zones of development

(b) Gene

(c) Maturation blocks

(d) Schemas

16. According to Vygotsky why do children speak to themselves?

(a) Children use speech to guide their actions

(b) Children use their speech to attract the attention of adults to them.

(c) Children are very talkative by nature.

(d) Children are egocentric.

17. Children with learning disabilities:

(a) have low IQ

(b) have confusion between letters and alphabets that look alike.

(c) easily recognize and comprehend sight words.

(d) have retarded mental development.

18. What is Creativity?

(a) Creativity is best defined as an IQ of above 200.

(b) A form of intelligence that refers to skills that depend on accumulated knowledge and experience

(c) A form of intelligence that depends heavily on information-processing. Skills including the speed of processing.

(d) Ability to indentify or prepare original and divergent solutions to problems.

19. A lot of children in India, especially girls do household chores before coming to school and after going back from school. What do you think a teacher should do regarding homework in this context?

(a) She should give harsh punishment to the children who do not complete their homework.

(b) The teacher should give homework that connects the learning at school to the children’s lives at home.

(c) The teacher should ensure that the children wake up early in the morning and stay till late to complete their homework.

(d) Ask the parents of the children to get tuition for completing the homework for their children.

20. In an effective classroom:

(a) the children don’t have any regard for the teacher and do as they please.

(b) the children look up to the teacher for guidance and support to facilitate their learning.

(c) the children are always anxious and kept on their toes since the teacher keeps on giving regular tests to assess their ability for recall.

(d) the children fear the teacher since the teacher uses verbal and physical punishment.

21. Presenting disconnected chunks of knowledge would:

(a) make recall easier for the learners.

(b) help learners organize information on their own.

(c) make the task of the teacher difficult and that of the learners easy.

(d) make it difficult for the learners to gain conceptual understanding.

22. Do children acquire language because they are genetically predisposed to do so or because parents intensively teach them from an early age? This question essentially highlights:

(a) the discussion on development as a multi-factor ability.

(b) whether development is continuous process or discontinuous one?

(c) the influence of cognition on development of language.

(d) the nature – nurture debate.

23. Development of the capacity for abstract scientific thinking is a characteristic of:

(a) Pre-operational stage

(b) Concrete operational stage

(c) Formal operational stage

(d) Sensori-motor stage

24. A child reasons - ‘You do this for me and I’ll do that for you.’ In which stage of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning would this child fall?

(a) The punishment and obedience orientation

(b) The ‘good boy-good girl’ orientation

(c) The social-contract orientation

(d) The instrumental purpose orientation

25. Progressive education:

(a) lays strong emphasis on problem solving and critical thinking.

(b) is based on the principles of conditioning and reinforcement.

(c) is centred around textbooks since they are the only valid source of knowledge.

(d) reaffirms the belief that the teacher has to be firm in her approach and in today’s world children cannot be taught without using punishment.

26. Questions encouraging students to voice their individual opinions on issues and reflections while giving reasons for the same, promote:

(a) Recall of information

(b) Standardized assessment of children

(c) Analytical and critical thinking

(d) Convergent thinking

27. Which one of the following statements best sums up the relationship between development and learning?

(a) Learning and development are inter-related in a complex manner.

(b) Development is independent of learning.

(c) Learning trails behind development.

(d) Learning and development are synonymous terms.

28. Which one of these is NOT a principle of development?

(a) Development is influenced by both heredity and environment.

(b) Development is modifiable.

(c) Development is governed and determined by culture alone.

(d) Development is life-long.

29. A key feature of a child-centred classroom is that in which:

(a) the teacher lays down uniform ways of behaviour for children and gives them appropriate rewards when they do the same.

(b) the teacher’s role is to present the knowledge to be learned and to assess the students on standard parameters.

(c) the students with the teacher’s guidance are made responsible for constructing their own understanding.

(d) there’s coercive and psychological control of the teacher who determines the learning trajectory and the behaviour of the children.

30. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate about intelligence?

(a) Intelligence is multi-dimensional having several aspects to it.

(b) Intelligence can be reliably determined only by administering standardised IQ tests.

(c) Intelligence is fundamentally neurological functioning, for example speed of processing, sensory discrimination etc.

(d) Intelligence is the ability to do well in school.

Mathematics and Science

Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options.

31. Natural numbers 4 to 15 are written on different slips (one number on one slip), kept in a box and mixed well. Renu picks up one slip from the box without looking into it. What is the probability that this slip bears a prime number?

(a) 3/11

(b) 1/3

(c) 5/12

(d) 2/5

32. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 4,818 after 3 years and Rs. 7,227 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum is:

(a) Rs. 2,490

(b) Rs. 3,122

(c) Rs. 3,212

(d) Rs. 2,409

33. If the weight of 18 sheets of paper is 50 grams, how many sheets of the same paper will weight 3 3/4 kg?

(a) 1314

(b) 1386

(c) 1836

(d) 1350

34. If (3x-2)/3 + (2x+3)/2 = x + (7/6), then the value of (5x-2)/4 is:

(a) -1/3

(b) 1/4

(c) -1/12

(d) 1/12

35. If 4x2 + 12xy – 8x + 9y2 – 12y = (ax+ by) (ax + by – 4), then the value of a2 + b2 is:

(a) 10

(b) 13

(c) 25

(d) 5

36. In the product of (5x + 2) and (2x2 – 3x + 5), the sum of the coefficients of x2 and x is:

(a) 8

(b) 9

(c) –8

(d) –9

37. The internal base of a rectangular box is 15 cm long and 12 (1/2) cm wide and its height is 7 (1/2) cm. The box is filled with cubes each of side 2(1/2) cm. The number of cubes will be:

(a) 60

(b) 90

(c) 120

(d) 45

38. The perimeter of a trapezium is 58 cm and sum of its nonparallel sides is 20 cm. If its area is 152 cm2, then the distance between the parallel sides, in cms, is:

(a) 8

(b) 9.8

(c) 15.2

(d) 6

39. The measure of each interior angle of a regular convex polygon is 156°. The number of sides of the polygon is:

(a) 12

(b) 10

(c) 8

(d) 15

40. If the number of sides of a regular polygon is ‘n’, then the number of lines of symmetry is equal to:

(a) n2

(b) 2n

(c) n

(d) n/2

41. The sides of a triangle are 6.5 cm, 10 cm and x cm, where x is a positive number. What is the smallest possible value of X among the following?

(a) 2.8

(b) 3.5

(c) 4

(d) 4.5

42. Chhaya simplified the given rational number -25/-30 = - 5/6

This error can be considered as:

(a) conceptual error

(b) procedural error

(c) error due to wrong interpretation of problem

(d) careless error

43. ‘Data Handling’ at upper primary stage focuses on:

(a) data interpretation only

(b) data organization only

(c) techniques of data collection

(d) data collection, organization and interpretation

44. Which one of the following is not a Problem Solving Strategy in Mathematics?

(a) Drawing

(b) Solving backwards

(c) Rote learning

(d) Trial and Error

45. According to Piaget, when the child is at formal operational stage, it is appropriate to introduce:

(a) Data handling

(b) Numbers

(c) Geometry

(d) Ratio and Proportion

46. Read the following problem given in a textbook for class VII: “A map is given with a scale of 2 cm = 1000 km. What is the actual distance between two places, in kms, if the distance on the map is 2.5 cm? This problem is:

(a) Investigatory in nature.

(b) based on higher order thinking skills.

(c) to enhance problem solving skills.

(d) Interdisciplinary in nature.

47. Which one of the following is not a Mathematical process?

(a) Estimation

(b) Memorisation

(c) Measurement

(d) Visualization

48. According to NCF 2005, school Mathematics takes place in a situation where:

(a) children are forced to learn all concepts by daily practice.

(b) children are listeners and the teacher is an active narrator.

(c) children are involved in chorus drill of formulae and pressure of performance in examination.

(d) mathematics is part of children’s life experience.

49. In class VI, teacher gave a topic for debate as Formative Assessment (FA) task.“Hindu-Arabic numerals are more powerful than Roman Numerals.”Objective of this FA activity is to assess:

(a) Analysis

(b) Creativity

(c) Understanding

(d) Knowledge

50. In a Mathematics classroom, emphasis is placed on:

(a) mathematical content, process and reasoning

(b) problem solving strategies

(c) mathematical algorithms and processes

(d) mathematical content

51. A teacher gives the following problem related to ‘discount’ to the students for solving. “The Marked Prices (M.P.) of a shirt and sweater are Rs. 200 and Rs. 300 respectively, and the discounts on the marked prices of shirt and sweater are 20% and 12% respectively. While preparing the bill, the shopkeeper interchanged the discounts on these items by mistake. On getting the bill, Hamida noticed the mistake and paid the actual amount to the shopkeeper. How much money did Hamida pay to the shopkeeper?” What value does the teacher try to promote through this problem?

(a) Honesty

(b) Co-operation

(c) Sympathy

(d) Compassion

52. The difference between the greatest and smallest fraction amongst 6/7, 8/9, 9/10, 7/8 is:

(a) 1/56

(b) 1/72

(c) 2/63

(d) 3/70

53. The additive inverse of S, where S = l – 2 + 3 – 4 + 5 – 6 + 7 – 8 + ........... + 49 – 50, is:

(a) 25

(b) –25

(c) 1

(d) 0

54. If a = 3129 × 5128 x 722, b = 3128 × 5129 × 721 c = 3127 × 5129 × 723 and d = 3127 × 5128 × 724, then H.C.F. of a, b, c and d is:

(a) 3128 × 5128 × 721

(b) 3128 × 5129 × 721

(c) 3127 × 5128 × 721

(d) 3127 × 5128 × 722

55. The value of 3√-2300 × 3√5290 is:

(a) – 529

(b) – 270

(c) 230

(d) – 230

56. The value of (2a)bc /(5b)bc  where a = 2, b = 3 and c = 0, is:

(a) 0

(b) –1

(c) 2/5

(d) 1

57. The value of 4 + (44/10) + (404/100) + (444/1000) + 4/10,000 is:

(a) 12.8944

(b) 12.8844

(c) 12.8804

(d) 12.8224

58. The smallest value of ‘y’ in the number 9y8071 so that it is divisible by 11 is:

(a) 0

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 1

59. (14.96 × 1010) – (3.84 × 108) is expressed in standard form as:

(a) 14.9216 × 1010

(b) 1492.16 × 108

(c) 1.49216 × 1011

(d) 14921.6 × 109

60. The sum of mean, mode and median of the data 6,3,9, 5,1,2,3,6,5,1,3 is:

(a) 11

(b) 12

(c) 13

(d) 10

61. Match the organisms in Column - A with their actions in Column - B:

Column - A                                          Column - B

i. Lactobacillus                                   a. Nitrogen Fixation

ii. Protozoan                                      b. AIDS

iii. Rhizobium                                     c. Malaria

iv. Virus                                             d. Curd formation

The correct matching is:

                i               ii              iii             iv

(a)          d             a             b              c

(b)          a             b             c              d

(c)          a             d              c              b

(d)         d             c              a             b

62. Select the correct statement from among the following.

(a) Plants can carry out photosynthesis even without chlorophyll.

(b) Plants with green leaves only carry out photosynthesis.

(c) Photosynthesis takes place only in leaves.

(d) Irrespective of colour, all leaves carry out photosynthesis.

63. Reema tells her friend that Ladyfinger is a fruit. Her friend Shahana disagrees with her. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) Ladyfinger is eaten in cooked form, hence it is a vegetable.

(b) Ladyfinger has seeds, thus it is a fruit.

(c) Ladyfinger has seeds, thus it is a vegetable.

(d) Ladyfinger is a vegetable, hence it cannot be a fruit.

64. Which hormone in our body helps us to adjust to stress when we are angry, embarrassed or worried?

(a) Adrenaline

(b) Insulin

(c) Estrogen

(d) Thyroxine

65. Match the edible parts of Plants in Column - I with those in Column - II

Column - I                           Column – II

i. Root                                   a. Groundnut

ii. Stem                                                 b. Apple

iii. Seed                                c. Sugarcane

iv. Fruit                                 d. Carrot

The given choices are:

                i               ii              iii             iv

(a)          b             a              d             c

(b)          a              d             c              b

(c)           c              a              d             a

(d)          d             c              a              b

66. Which one of the following represents a group of human diseases caused by virus?

(a) Chickenpox, Malaria, Hepatitis-A

(b) Measles, Polio, Typhoid

(c) Measles, Typhoid, Tuberculosis

(d) Measles, Chickenpox, Hepatitis-A

67. Which one of the following represents a group of autotrophs?

(a) Algae, Cuscuta (Dodder), Banana, Mango

(b) Spinach, Mushroom, Tomato, Yeast

(c) Tulsi, Algae, Cuscuta (Dodder), Mushroom

(d) Algae, Spinach, Tomato, Banana

68. Human Nutrition includes nutrient requirement, mode of intake of food and its utilization in the body occuring in various steps which are:

A. Absorption

B. Egestion

C. Assimilation

D. Ingestion

E. Digestion

Arrange these steps in sequence as they occur inside the body.

(a) D, E, A, C, B

(b) E, D, C, A, B

(c) D, A, B, C, E

(d) A, B, C, D, E

69. Which one of the following is not a conductor of electricity?

(a) Lime juice

(b) Salt water

(c) Distilled water

(d) Vinegar

70. Medium A is optically denser than Medium B. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) Speed of light is more in medium B than in medium A.

(b) Speed of light is same in both A and B.

(c) Cannot be compared.

(d) Speed of light is more in medium A than in medium B.

71. We are not crushed under the weight of atmosphere, because:

(a) the pressure inside our body is more than atmospheric pressure and cancels the pressure from outside.

(b) the pressure inside our body is less than atmospheric pressure.

(c) the pressure inside our body is equal to the atmospheric pressure and cancels the pressure from outside.

(d) the pressure inside our body is more than atmospheric pressure.

72. A block of iron dropped in a vessel of water, sinks to the bottom. This is because:

(a) the weight of the water displaced by the block is less than the weight of the block.

(b) the weight of the block is less than the weight of the water displaced by the block.

(c) the density of water is more than the density of the block.

(d) the vessel is not deep enough to allow the block to float.

73. Which one of following statements is incorrect?

(a) A whistle has a high frequency and therefore it produces a sound of higher pitch.

(b) Generally the voice of a man is shriller than that of a woman.

(c) A bird makes a high pitched sound whereas a lion makes a low-pitched roar.

(d) A drum vibrates with a low frequency, therefore it produces a low pitched sound.

74. There are two planets in our solar system which rotate from east to west. These planets are:

(a) Venus and Uranus

(b) Mercury and Venus

(c) Uranus and Neptune

(d) Mercury and Uranus

75. The major excretory product in human beings is:

(a) Ammonia

(b) Uric acid

(c) Ammonium chloride

(d) Urea

76. Which of the following process processes/ destroy/ destroys the magnetic properties of a bar magnet?

A. Cutting into two pieces

B. Heating

C. Beating

D. Sealing

(a) B and C

(b) A, B and C

(c) A and D

(d) Only A

77. An eighth class student makes the statement: "Heavy objects sink in water and light objects float." How is the science teacher of the VIII class best advised to react?

(a) Explain to the child that it is not the weight but the density of an object that determines whether it is going to sink or float.

(b) Present counter examples and arrange materials of different shapes, sizes and weights for the child to investigate.

(c) Explain that heavy and light are relative terms.

(d) Accept the statement as it indicates child's ideas and needs to be respected.

78. Which one among the following situations gives the students, the best opportunity of 'discovery learning'?

(a) Elaborated and detailed session of programmed instruction on the topic of "germination of seed".

(b) Encouraging students to investigate factors affecting germination through experimentation.

(c) Instructing students through team teaching on the topic of 'components of food'.

(d) Students being first shown the demonstration of germination of seed followed by a detailed explanation.

79. A teacher places a lighted candle on the table in the classroom. He later covers it with a jar.

A. The candle stops burning after some time.

B. Air is required for keeping the candle burning.

C. Oxygen is required for keeping the candle burning.

Of the above three statements:

(a) Statements A and B are observations.

(b) All the statements are observations.

(c) All the statements are inferences.

(d) Only statement A is an observation.

80. Which one among the following questions would be an 'open ended' question?

(a) What would happen if force of friction ceased to exist?

(b) Why is it easier to roll a barrel than to slide it on a flat surface?

(c) How do banked curves on roads prevent skidding?

(d) Why do we slip on a banana peel?

81. Which one of the following statements is true about the 'laws' and 'theories' in science?

(a) Theories become laws when validated.

(b) 'Theories' are found in biological sciences only and 'Laws' are found in physical sciences only.

(c) Theories and laws are the same and perform the same function except that laws are briefer form of theories.

(d) Laws are generalized descriptions of the relationships among observable phenomena and theories are explanations for the observable phenomena.

82. A science teacher wishes to assess her students on different process skills. Which one among the following tools would be the most appropriate for her purpose?

(a) Questionnaire

(b) Observation schedule

(c) Paper-pencil test

(d) Interview

83. Which one of the following should not be an aim of science education at upper primary level?

(a) Nurturing the curiosity and cultivation of scientific temper.

(b) Inculcating values.

(c) Presenting facts of science to the learners.

(d) Relating science education to everyday experiences of learners.

84. How could learning be made more meaningful for students of class VII by the teacher while teaching the topic 'Save Water'?

(a) Asking students to write an essay.

(b) Asking students to interview people in their colony about water consumption and carry out 'Water Audit'.

(c) Conducting a quiz competition.

(d) Asking students to design posters.

85. A teacher before beginning to teach 'digestion' to class VI students provides them with the outline diagram of a human body and asks them to draw all parts, through which they think the food would travel from mouth when they eat. What could be the teacher's purpose of asking this question?

(a) To judge students' understading of the digestive system and grade them accordingly.

(b) To investigate students' prior ideas related to human body and digestion so that future teaching learning sessions can be accordingly planned.

(c) To find out which students have read the topic in advance and come prepared for the class and grade them accordingly.

(d) To evaluate students' drawing skills as drawing diagrams is an important skill in life sciences.

86. For an effective discussion in class VII on the topic, "Why smoke rises up?" a science teacher should:

A. discourage questions during discussion.

B. provide a common platform to the learners.

C. acknowledge learners' responses to sustain their interest.

D. summarise and assess the learner's ideas at the end of discussion.

(a) B, C and D

(b) D only

(c) C and D

(d) A and B

87. You have two test tubes 'A' and 'B'. Test tube 'A' contains paste of turmeric whereas test tube 'B" contains aqueous solution of phenolphthalein. On adding a few drops of dilute hydrochloric acid to these test tubes the contents of:

(a) 'A' would remain yellow while those of 'B' would remain colourless.

(b) 'A' and 'B' both would appear red.

(c) 'A' would appear red while those of 'B' would remain colourless.

(d) 'A' would remain yellow while those of 'B' would appear pink.

88. Anita prepared a fresh solution of sodium hydroxide in a test tube. She dropped a small piece of aluminium foil into it and then brought a burning matchstick near the mouth of the test tube. She hears a pop sound. The pop sound indicates the presence of:

(a) Oxygen gas

(b) Hydrogen gas

(c) Aluminium gas

(d) Water gas

89. Which one of the following takes place when water transforms from liquid to gaseous phase?

(a) Structure of the particles change.

(b) Distance between the particles change.

(c) The colour of the particles change.

(d) Size of the particles change.

90. Which fuel has the highest calorific value from among the following?

(a) Petrol

(b) Diesel

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Coal

Social Studies/ Social Science

DIRECTIONS: Answser the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options.

31. Choose an appropriate and meaningful written assignment in Social Science from the following:

(a) A summary of the chapter.

(b) Searching for an exact answer from the text book.

(c) The previous year's assignments.

(d) An original assignment that tests concepts.

32. To prevent cynicism among students about democratic institutions, which of the two given options would be most appropriate?

A. Emphasise ideal functioning and principles.

B. Indicate impossiblity of changing institutions.

C. Emphasise that social inequality is inevitable.

D. Indicate the role of informed public.

(a) Both A and D

(b) Both C and D

(c) Both C and B

(d) Both A and B

33. Choose the best method from among the following to encourage students to talk about gender roles in a Social Science class at the upper primary level.

(a) Lecture by an expert.

(b) Visit to an exhibition.

(c) Internet search by students.

(d) Guided discussion on experiences.

34. Portfolio is an important tool of continuous and comprehensive evaluation because

(a) it provides minimal information.

(b) it indicates skills developed in the students.

(c) it is compulsory.

(d) it is easy to implement.

35. Which type of learning source are you encouraging your students to use, when you show them a historical monument?

(a) Textual source

(b) Graphic resource

(c) Folk resource

(d) Primary source

36. "Imagine that you have come across two old newspapers reporting on the Battle of Shrirangapattanam and the death of Tipu Sultan. One is a British paper and the other is from Mysore. Write the headline for each of the two newspapers."  What is the reason for including this activity in the history textbook of class VIII?

(a) Develop the concept of diversity of views in students.

(b) Create a record of annexation by the British.

(c) Communicate British policies to the masses.

(d) Develop writing skills in students.

37. The National Curriculum Framework (2005) suggests that Social Science must link a child's life at school with:

(a) life outside the classroom

(b) bookish knowledge

(c) teachers' expectation

(d) life inside the classroom

38. Choose the most appropriate option: Students at upper primary level can be asked to go for a field visit as part of Social Science projects so that:

(a) it enables comparison of realities with the ideas and concepts.

(b) it frees the teacher to do other activities while students are busy.

(c) it fulfils the mandatory requirement of project completion.

(d) it is participative and fun for students.

39. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for teaching of Geography at the upper primary level?

(a) Field visit

(b) Story telling

(c) Debate

(d) Discussion

40. The teaching of social and political life textbooks at the upper primary level focusses on which one of the following approaches?

(a) Learning through definitions

(b) Rote learning

(c) Learning through synthesis of concepts

(d) Learning through real life situations

41. To teach the topic, 'Different types of Markets', which one of the following projects would be most appropriate?

(a) Visiting a shopping mall for seeing products sold there.

(b) Comparing prices at which shopkeepers buy and sell products.

(c) Exhibit products bought from the market in the classroom.

(d) Making collage on markets from newspapers and magazines.

42. In which one of the following scripts were most of the Ashokan inscriptions written?

(a) Brahmi

(b) Tamil

(c) Olchiki

(d) Devnagari

43. Some of the earliest Hindu temples had a hall where people could assemble. This place was known as:

(a) Mandapa

(b) Gramabhojaka

(c) Garbhagriha

(d) Pradakshina patha

44. Vinaya Pitaka is a book related to:

(a) Preachings of Mahavira

(b) Thoughts of Zoroaster

(c) Rules of the Buddhist Sangha

(d) Sanskrit Grammar

45. King Harshavardhana's court poet, Banabhatta wrote his biography, the 'Harshacharita' in:

(a) Sanskrit

(b) Prakrita

(c) Hindi

(d) Urdu

46. The earliest 'Viharas' for both Jains and Buddhist monks were made of:

(a) brick

(b) soil

(c) stone

(d) wood

47. Among which of the three dynasties was fought the 'Tripartite struggle', the long-drawn-out conflict over Kanauj?

(a) Rashtrakuta, Chola and Pala

(b) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Chola

(c) Pala, Rashtrakuta and Gurjara- Pratihara

(d) Gurjara-Pratihara, Pala and Chola

48. Khanqahs in Sufism refer to:

(a) discussion of parables

(b) places where SufiMasters held their assemblies

(c) a special kind of song

(d) chanting of a name

49. Which one of the following statements is correct about Chola temples?

(a) Chola temples were endowed with land by common people.

(b) Chola temples were the hub of economic, social and cultural life.

(c) The making of iron images was the most distinctive feature of Chola temples.

(d) Chola temples often became the nuclei of rural settlements only.

50. Which one of the following statements is correct about Tawarikh written for the Sultans of Delhi Sultanate?

(a) Tawarikh were written by those who hardly ever resided in cities.

(b) The authors of Tawarikh advised rulers on the need for good governance and just rule.

(c) Tawarikh were not written by the authors to get rich rewards from the Sultans.

(d) These were written in Urdu, the language of administration of the Delhi Sultanate.

51. Who among the following reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women's education in the nineteenth century?

(a) Ziyauddin Barani

(b) Rukeya Sakhawat Hussain

(c) Mumtaz Ali

(d) Sayyid Ahmed Khan

52. Choose an appropriate reason for providing students an open book exercise in a classroom.

(a) Reading a text with specific questions.

(b) Evaluation of unprepared students.

(c) Encouraging use of textual langauge.

(d) Memorising details of a lesson.

53. Study of Social Science subjects is vital as it enables children to

(a) conserve natural resources.

(b) learn details about democracy.

(c) understand society and its environment.

(d) evaluate events from the past.

54. What is the most important reason for the use of storyboards in Social Science Teaching?

(a) Producing attractive textbooks.

(b) Providing simplistic information.

(c) Encouraging discussion on the given narrative.

(d) Narrating incidents.

55. Which one of the following activities is most appropriate for developing an understanding of the Indian Parliament's role and functions?

(a) Discussion on newspaper report on Parliament discruption.

(b) Holding a youth Parliament.

(c) Reading from the text.

(d) Flow diagram of functions and responsibilities.

56. A teacher suggests that students make a table recording the number of buckets of water used by a student in a week. After this activity, she initiates a discussion on water usage and conservation. Which method of learning is the teacher encouraging in the class?

(a) Enquiry method

(b) Deductive method

(c) Case-study method

(d) Problem solving method

57. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice: To organise knowledge and ideas conceptual resources include timelines, summaries _______ and _______

(a) exploratory software and questions bank.

(b) teacher modelling and bar graphs.

(c) memory cues and review questions.

(d) information maps and concept maps.

58. Activity based questions make Social Science lessons:

(a) comprehensive

(b) joyful

(c) debatable

(d) lengthy

59. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for developing an understanding of social problems?

(a) Case-study

(b) Film screening

(c) Photo essay

(d) Role-play

60. A teacher wants her students to know about government schemes through primary sources. Which one of the following schemes is inappropriate?

(a) An interview with a Block Development Officer.

(b) A survey of schemes in the students' neighbourhood.

(c) A report on expenditure incurred, on various schemes in the students' neighbourhood.

(d) A review of a book on government schemes.

61. Products of which one of the following are known as 'Black Gold'?

(a) Gold

(b) Petroleum

(c) Copper

(d) Coal

62. Which one of the following is NOT a nuclear power station of India?

(a) Tarapur

(b) Narora

(c) Pokhran

(d) Kalpakkam

63. Shifting agriculture is known as Milpa in:

(a) Malaysia (b) Mexico (c) Brazil (d) India

64. Which one of the following industries comes under public sector?

(a) Sudha Dairy

(b) Maruti Udyog Limited

(c) Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited

(d) Hindustan Aeronautic Limited

65. Which one of the following statements about Gram Sabha is correct?

(a) The Secretary of the Gram Sabha is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keeps a record of the proceedings.

(b) The developmental plans of all the Gram Panchayats are reviewed in the Gram Sabha.

(c) The Gram Sabha regulates the money distribution among all Gram Panchayats.

(d) It is the meeting place of the Sarpanchs of all the villages in a district.

66. Consider the following two statements A and B on people's participation in democracy and choose the correct answer: A: Organising social movements is a way to challenge the government and its functioning in a democracy. B: Democracy allows people to participate but all sections of people are not able to do so.

(a) Both A and B are true.

(b) A is false and B is true.

(c) Both A and B are false.

(d) A is true and B is false.

67. Which one of the following is the Tibetan National epic?

(a) Kesar saga

(b) Sidha saga

(c) Nirvana saga

(d) Buddha saga

68. Consider the following two statements about the functions performed by 'Patwari' and choose the correct answer from the following:

A: Patwari maintains and updates land records of a village or a group of villages.

B: Patwari is responsible for providing information to the government about the crops grown in the area under her/his jurisdiction.

(a) Both A and B are true.

(b) A is false and B is true.

(c) Both A and B are false.

(d) A is true and B is false.

69. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about democracy?

(a) In a democracy citizens enjoy certain freedoms.

(b) In a democracy a Ruler has absolute powers to rule the country.

(c) In a democracy people can raise questions about the decisions.

(d) In a democracy the country's citizens are allowed to elect whomever they want.

70. Campaigns have led to new laws for the protection of women. In 2006, a law was framed to protect women from:

(a) Sexual harassment

(b) Child abuse

(c) Unequal wages

(d) Domestic violence

71. Which one of the following statements about media is incorrect?

(a) The technology that mass media uses keeps on changing.

(b) An important function of mass media is to communicate information to the people.

(c) There is regular interference on the part of the government in the functioning of media.

(d) Money is earned through advertisements.

72. The cost to advertise on a news channel depends on:

(a) the demand of the viewers

(b) the big business houses

(c) the corporate sector

(d) the popularity of the channel

73. Consider the following two statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and choose the correct answer:

A: It is a mechanism to seek necessary information about the functioning of the government.

B: It is a mechanism that allows any individual or organisation to file petition to secure justice in the High Court or Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights are violated.

(a) Both A and B are true.

(b) A is false and B is true.

(c) Both A and B are false.

(d) A is true and B is false.

74. Consider the following two statements A and B about the 'Question Hour Session’ of the Parliament and choose the correct answer:

A: The members of Parliament seek information about the working of the government.

B: It is a mechanism through which the executive controls the legislature.

(a) Both A and B are true.

(b) A is false and B is true.

(c) Both A and B are false.

(d) A is true and B is false.

75. Consider the following two statements A and B on Judicial Review and choose the correct answer:

A: The judiciary can strike down particular laws passed by the Parliament if there is a violation of the basic structure of the Constitution.

B: A bill cannot become a law unless it is passed by the Judiciary.

(a) Both A and B are true.

(b) A is false and B is true.

(c) Both A and B are false.

(d) A is true and B is false.

76. According to the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statements is incorrect about Indian Secular State?

(a) The State does not enforce any particular religion nor takes away religious freedom of individuals.

(b) The State allows government institutions to display and promote values specific to a particular religion.

(c) The State is not strictly separate from religion but it does maintain principled distance from religion. (d) Indian State is not ruled by any specific religious group.

77. The Indian State has:

(a) Capitalist form of government

(b) Presidential form of government

(c) Democratic form of government

(d) Communist form of government

78. Who among the following founded 'Satyashodhak Samaj' to propagate caste equality?

(a) Narayan Guru

(b) Haridas

(c) Jyotirao Phule

(d) Ghasidas

79. Who among the following was hanged to death for attacking his officers in Barrackpore, on 29th March, 1857?

(a) Raj Guru

(b) Sukhdev

(c) Mangal Pandey

(d) Bhagat Singh

80. Which one of the following statements about the British policy of ‘paramountcy’ is correct?

(a) It claimed that the authority of the company was supreme, hence its power was greater than that of the Indian states.

(b) It emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European learning as opposed to oriental learning.

(c) It declared that no other trading group in England could compete with East India Company.

(d) It declared that if the Indian ruler died without a male heir, his kingdom would be confiscated.

81. Which one of the following groups of planets has rings around it?

(a) Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus

(b) Saturn, Neptune, Mars

(c) Saturn, Venus, Neptune

(d) Saturn, Venus, Mars

82. Why is the earth described as a 'Geoid'? Choose the correct answer from the following:

(a) Earth is neither too hot nor too cold.

(b) Two-thirds of earth's surface are covered with water.

(c) Favourable conditions are available on earth to support life.

(d) Earth is slightly flattened at the poles.

83. From the Earth, only one side of the moon is visible because it:

(a) takes exactly the same time in moving around the earth as the time to complete one spin.

(b) only moves around the earth, but does not spin.

(c) does not move around the earth, but only spins.

(d) takes more time in moving around the earth than the time to complete one spin.

84. The Ural Mountains separate:

(a) Asia and Europe

(b) Africa and Europe

(c) North America South America

(d) Africa and Asia

85. The place in the crust where the earthquake waves start is called:

(a) Focus

(b) Epicentre

(c) Crater

(d) Centre

86. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is most ideal for flying aeroplanes?

(a) Stratosphere

(b) Mesosphere

(c) Thermosphere

(d) Troposphere

87. Which one of the following is the most important factor that influences the distribution of temperature on the earth?

(a) Solar radiation

(b) Terrestrial radiation

(c) Distance from sea

(d) Insolation

88. Which one of the following statements about the Amazon Basin is correct?

(a) The Amazon river flows through the equatorial region in the western direction.

(b) The Amazon river forms Delta covered with Mangrove forests.

(c) The Amazon river basin drains portions from Brazil, Peru, Bolivia and Argentina.

(d) The Amazon basin falls in the equatorial region.

89. Which one of the following is the highest roadways of India in the world?

(a) Manali - Leh

(b) Shillong - Silcher

(c) Udhampur - Srinagar

(d) Itanagar - Pasighat

90. Which one of the following techniques is NOT a mitigation mechanism to control landslides?

(a) Construction of retention walls to stop land slippage.

(b) Decreasing vegetation cover to arrest landslides.

(c) Ensuring surface drainage control works to restrict the movement of landslides.

(d) Hazard mapping to identify areas prone to landslides.

Language I - English

DIRECTIONS (Q. 91-99): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the most appropriate options.

One of the unhealthiest emotions is anger. It destroys our ability to think clearly, properly and in totality. Anger also has adverse impact on health. If you ask a selection of people what triggers their anger, you would get a wide range of answers. However, whatever the cause, even a single word spoken in anger can leave a lasting impression on a person's heart and has the ability to ruin the sweetness of any relationship.

A sage once said, "How can there be peace on earth if the hearts of men are like volcanoes?" We can live in harmony with others only when we overcome anger and make room for peace. So how can we set about creating that sense of peace within ourselves? It starts with the realisation that we do have the choice to think and feel the way we want to. If we look at what it is that makes us angry, we might discover there is nothing that has the power to make us feel this way. We can only allow something to trigger our anger - the anger is a way in which we respond to an event or person. But because we are so used to reacting on impulse, we forget to choose how we want to feel, and end up reacting inappropriately, leaving ourselves with angry feelings.

Meditation helps us create personal space within ourselves so that we have the chance to look, weigh the situation, and respond accordingly, remaining in a state of self-control. When we are angry, we have no self-control. At that moment, we are in a state of internal chaos, and anger can be a very destructive force.

Stability that comes from practice of meditation can create a firm foundation, a kind of positive stubbornness. Others can say whatever they want, and it may also be true, but we don't lose our peace or happiness on account of that. This is to respect what is eternal within each of us.

We give ourselves the opportunity to maintain our own peace of mind, because let's face it, no one's going to turn up at our door with a box full of peace and say, "Here, I think you could do with some of this today!" There is a method which could be described as sublimation, or the changing of form. With daily practice and application of spiritual principles in our practical life, experience of inner peace can come naturally.

91. Why should we not get angry with a friend?

(a) It affects over health.

(b) It ruins our relationship.

(c) It damages our intellectual ability.

(d) It may give us a heart attack.

92. The antonym for the word, 'triggers' is:

(a) prolongs

(b) deviates

(c) controls

(d) excites

93. The synonym for the word, 'adverse' is:

(a) successful

(b) unfavourable

(c) similar

(d) angry

94. Which part of speech is the underlined word? ________ can leave a lasting impression on a ________

(a) Pronoun

(b) Verb

(c) Adjective

(d) Noun

95. Meditation helps us create personal space. Voice in the above sentence has been correctly changed in:

(a) Personal space has been created by meditation.

(b) We have been helped to create personal space.

(c) Personal space is helped by meditation.

(d) We are helped by meditation to create personal space.

96. What is anger?

(a) It is our reaction to an event or person.

(b) It is release of our pent up emotions.

(c) It is an effort to avenge ourselves.

(d) It is loss of control over our temper.

97. Getting angry _________.

(a) gives us a feeling of superiority

(b) makes us feel ashamed of ourselves

(c) affects our digestive system

(d) affects the clarity of our mind

98. How can we get peace of mind?

(a) By accepting life as it comes

(b) By enjoying good healthy

(c) By overcoming anger

(d) Through prolonged medication

99. To overcome anger, meditation helps us by.

(a) giving us the choice to think

(b) remaining in a state of self-control

(c) offering us a wide range of answers

(d) removing the trigger

DIRECTIONS (Q. 100-105): Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the most appropriate options:

I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky, And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by, And the wheel's kick and the wind's song and the white sail's shaking, And a gray mist on the sea's face and a gray dawn breaking. I must go down to the seas again, for the call of the running tide Is a wild call and a clear call that may not be denied; And all I ask is a windy day with the white clouds flying, And the flung spray all the blown spume, and the sea-gulls crying. I must go down to the seas again to the vagrant gypsy life. To the gull's way and the whale's way where the wind's like a whetted knife; And all I ask is a merry yarn from a laughing fellow-rover, And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick's over.

100. What does the poet want to listen to?

(a) A happy song of the sea

(b) A sad song of the wailing winds

(c) The sound of flapping sails

(d) A happy tale of adventure

101. What does the poet need to steer the ship?

(a) Wheel, sail and star

(b) Wheel, star and wind

(c) Wheel, wind and sail

(d) Star, sail and wind

102. Which figure of speech is used in 'where the wind is like a whetted knife'?

(a) Simile

(b) Personification

(c) Transferred Epithet

(d) Metaphor

103. The phrase 'a merry yarn' in the poem is an example of:

(a) Metaphor

(b) Assonance

(c) Simile

(d) Transferred Epithet

104. Invitation of the running tide can't be denied because:

(a) it is made on a windy day.

(b) it can turn violent.

(c) it is made very lovingly.

(d) it is wild and clear.

105. The poet likes a windy day because:

(a) the sky gets overcast with white clouds.

(b) sea-gulls enjoy it among the clouds.

(c) it helps the ship sail smoothly.

(d) it brings drops of rain.

DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options.

106. A teacher reads out the text and explains it word-for-word in English. What method/approach does she adopt in her class?

(a) Structural approach

(b) Communicative language teaching

(c) Task based language teaching

(d) Direct method

107. Students are asked to read a short text and make points for discussion. What skills of the learners are assessed?

(a) Listening skills

(b) Speaking skills

(c) Writing skills

(d) Study skills

108. While learning vocabulary, learners connect one word with its related words and the words which can occur before and after it. What is this technique called?

(a) Conversation

(b) Dictation

(c) Note making

(d) Collocation

109. In a constructivist classroom while teaching a poem which of the following is not ideal?

(a) The poem does not need an introduction of the poet in the beginning.

(b) Learners may find out on their own about the poet.

(c) Learners should be able to discover the ideas and meaning of the poem.

(d) While teaching, a teacher should first give an introduction of the poet.

110. Etymology is:

(a) science of Pedagogy.

(b) science of study of language.

(c) science of meaning of words.

(d) science of knowing the origin of words.

111. Teachers in an English medium school use only English to teach Science, Social Science and Mathematics. What approach do they adopt?

(a) Multilingualism

(b) Immersion

(c) Multidisciplinary approach

(d) Bilingualism

112. Which one of the following skills is assessed if 'cloze' is used as a tool?

(a) Writing for language listening skills

(b) Speaking

(c) Listening

(d) Reading for langauge learning

113. Scanning & Skimming are strategies for:

(a) writing

(b) speaking

(c) thinking

(d) reading

114. Continuous comprehensive evaluation is:

(a) continuous assessment

(b) assessment of learners while learning

(c) periodic conduct of exams

(d) continuous testing

115. The first generation learners are those who are:

(a) coming first time to school to seek admission.

(b) learning Hindi for the first time.

(c) learning English for the first time.

(d) the first from their family to come to school.

116. The whole language perspective is:

(a) teaching of LSRW separately.

(b) teaching of language skills in an integrated manner.

(c) teaching for application.

(d) teaching of micro skills first.

117. A good paragraph writing in English involves:

(a) Correct punctuation marks

(b) Ideas, presentation and coherence

(c) Flowery language

(d) Legible handwriting

118. In order to know the correct pronunciation of English words, the learner should

(a) know the spelling.

(b) know how to write the words.

(c) know the spelling, meanings and how they are pronounced.

(d) know the meanings only.

119. A word gets its meaning:

(a) in relation to its context

(b) from dictionary only

(c) spelling

(d) from its origin

120. When we sing a rhyme in an English language classroom, we:

(a) teach them to learn to sing.

(b) familiarise the learner with the English sounds.

(c) teach them to read.

(d) teach learners to understand the words.

Language II - हिन्दी

निर्देश (प्र.121-129) : नीचे दिए गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए। ‘आदमी की तलाश'- यह स्वर अकसर सुनने को मिलता है। यह भी सुनने को मिलता है कि आज आदमी, आदमी नहीं रहा। इन्हीं स्थितियों के बीच दार्शनिक राधाकृष्णन की इन पंक्तियों का स्मरण हो आया- 'हमने पक्षियों की तरह उड़ना और मछलियों की तरह तैरना तो सीख लिया है, पर मनुष्य की तरह पृथ्वी पर चलना और जीना नहीं सीखा।' |

जिंदगी के सफर में नैतिक और मानवीय उद्देश्यों के प्रति मन में अटूट विश्वास होना जरूरी है। कहा जाता है- आदमी नहीं चलता, उसका विश्वास चलता है। आत्मविश्वास सभी गुणों को एक जगह बाँध देता है, यानी कि विश्वास की रोशनी में मनुष्य का संपूर्ण व्यक्तित्व और आदर्श उजागर होता है। गेटे की प्रसिद्ध उक्ति है कि जब कोई आदमी ठीक काम करता है, तो उसे पता तक नहीं चलता कि वह क्या कर रहा है, पर गलत काम करते समय उसे हर क्षण यह ख्याल रहता है कि वह जो कर रहा है, वह गलत है। गलत को गलत मानते हुए भी इंसान गलत किए जा रहा है। इसी कारण समस्याओं एवं अँधेरों के अंबार लगे हैं। लेकिन ऐसा ही नहीं है। कुछ अच्छे लोग भी हैं, शायद उनकी अच्छाइयों के कारण ही जीवन बचा हुआ है। ऐसे लोगों ने नैतिकता और सच्चरित्रता का खिताब ओढ़ा नहीं, उसे जीकर दिखाया। वे भाग्य और नियति के हाथों खिलौना बनकर नहीं बैठे, स्वयं के पसीने से अपना भाग्य लिखा। महात्मा गांधी ने इसीलिए कहा कि हमें वह परिवर्तन खुद बनना चाहिए, जिसे हम संसार में देखना चाहते हैं। जरूरत है। कि हम दर्पण जैसा जीवन जीना सीखें। उन सभी खिड़कियों को बंद कर दें, जिनसे आने वाली गंदी हवा इंसान को इंसान नहीं रहने देती। मनुष्य के व्यवहार में मनुष्यता को देखा जा सके, यही ‘आदमी की तलाश' है। 121. शेष से भिन्न शब्द को पहचानिए

(a) उछलता

(b) नैतिकता

(c) सच्चरित्रता

(d) मनुष्यता

122 ‘ज़रूरत है कि हम दर्पण-जैसा जीवन जीना सीखें।' रचना की दृष्टि

से उपर्युक्त वाक्य है

(a) कठिन वाक्य |

(b) मिश्र वाक्य

(c) संयुक्त वाक्य

(d) सरल वाक्य

123. 'मन में अटूट विश्वास होना ज़रूरी है।' उपर्युक्त वाक्य में 'अटूट' शब्द

व्याकरण की दृष्टि से है

(a) सर्वनाम

(b) विशेषण

(c) क्रिया-विशेषण

(d) संज्ञा

124. मुख्य भाव के अनुसार गद्यांश का सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक हो सकता है

(a) सच्ची मानवता

(b) जीवन यात्रा

(c) आदमी की तलाश

(d) मानवीय उद्देश्य

125. सभी गुणों को एक स्थान पर जोड़ने की शक्ति किसमें बताई गई है?

(a) नैतिकता में

(b) सच्चरित्रता में

(c) आत्मविश्वास में

(d) मनुष्य में

126. कौन-सा शब्द लिंग की दृष्टि से शेष से भिन्न है?

(a) नदी

(b) मछली

(C) पृथ्वी

(d) पक्षी

127. 'आदमी आदमी नहीं रहा'- कथन का भाव है

(a) मनुष्य राक्षस जैसा बन गया।

(b) मानव प्रगतिशील हो गया।

(C) मनुष्य में मनुष्यता नहीं रही।

(d) आदमी देवता बन गया।

128. अनुचित कार्य करते समय मनुष्य को

(a) मालूम रहता है कि वह ठीक नहीं कर रहा।

(b) विश्वास रहता है कि किसी को पता नहीं चलेगा।

(c) अच्छे मार्ग से कुछ पाने का भरोसा नहीं होता।

(d) पता ही नहीं होता कि वह अनुचित कर रहा है।

129. 'अँधेरों के अंबार लगे हैं'- रेखांकित का भाव है

(a) बुराइयों के

(b) विघ्न-बाधाओं के

(c) दुर्भाग्य के

(d) अंधकार के

निर्देश (प्र.सं. 130-135) : नीचे दिए गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के । सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए। अधिकतर लोगों की यही शिकायत होती है कि उन्हें पनपने के लिए सटीक माहौल व संसाधन नहीं मिल पाए, नहीं तो आज वे काफी आगे होते। और आज भी ऐसे कई लोग हैं, जो संसाधन और स्थितियों के अनुकूल होने के इंतज़ार में खुद को रोके हुए हैं। ऐसे लोगों के लिए ही किसी विद्वान ने कहा है- इंतजार मत कीजिए, समय एकदम अनुकूल कभी नहीं होता। जितने संसाधन आपके पास मौजूद हैं, उन्हीं से शुरुआत कीजिए, और आगे सब बेहतर होता जाएगा। जिनके इरादे दृढ़ होते हैं, वे सीमित संसाधनों में भी सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रदर्शन कर पाते हैं।

नारायण मूर्ति ने महज दस हजार रुपये में अपने छह दोस्तों के साथ इन्फोसिस की शुरुआत की, और आज इन्फोसिस आईटी के क्षेत्र की एक बड़ी कंपनी है। करौली टैकस, पहले अपने दाएँ हाथ से निशानेबाजी करते थे, मगर उनका वह हाथ एक विस्फोट में चला गया। फिर उन्होंने अपने बाएँ हाथ से शुरुआत की और 1948 व 1950 में ओलंपिक स्वर्ण पदक अपने नाम किया। लिओनार्दो द विंची, रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर, टॉमस अल्वा एडिसन, टेलीफोन के आविष्कारक ग्राहम बेल, वॉल्ट डिज्नी- ये सब अपनी शुरुआती उम्र में डिस्लेक्सिया से पीड़ित रह चुके हैं, जिसमें पढ़ने में काफी कठिनाइयों का समना करना पड़ता है, फिर भी ये सभी अपने-अपने क्षेत्र के शीर्ष पर पहुँचे। अगर ये लोग भी इसी तरह माहौल और संसाधनों की शिकायत और इंतजार करते, तो क्या कभी उस मुकाम पर पहुँच पाते, जहाँ वे मौजूद हैं? अगर हमने अपना लक्ष्य तय कर लिया हैं, तो हमें उस तक पहुँचने की शुरुआत अपने सीमित संसाधनों से ही कर देनी चाहिए। किसी इंतज़ार में नहीं रहना चाहिए। ऐसे में इंतज़ार करना यह दर्शाता है कि हम अपने लक्ष्य को पाने के लिए पूरी तरह प्रतिबद्ध नहीं हैं। इसलिए हमें अपनी इच्छाशक्ति को मजबूत कर जुट जाना होगा। इंतज़ार करेंगे, तो करते रह जाएँगे।

130. 'इंतज़ार करेंगे तो करते रह जाएँगे'- कथन का तात्पर्य है

(a) प्रतीक्षा करना ठीक नहीं

(b) स्थिति अनुकूल होने की प्रतीक्षा करना व्यर्थ है

(c) प्रतीक्षा करने के लिए धैर्य होना आवश्यक है।

(d) प्रतीक्षा कभी समाप्त नहीं होती।

131. 'समय एकदम अनुकूल कभी नहीं होता'- यहाँ 'एकदम' का अर्थ है

(a) तत्काल

(b) पूर्णत:

(c) अचानक

(d) तुरंत

132. 'हमें अपनी इच्छाशक्ति को मज़बूत कर जुट जाना होगा।' उपर्युक्त

वाक्य से बना संयुक्त वाक्य होगा

(a) हमें जुट जाना होगा और फिर इच्छाशक्ति को मजबूत करना होगा।

(b) हमें इच्छाशक्ति को मज़बूत करना है इसलिए जुट जाना होगा।

(c) यदि हमें अपनी इच्छाशक्ति को मजबूत करना है तो जुट जाना होगा।

(d) हमें अपनी इच्छाशक्ति को मज़बूत करना होगा और जुट जाना होगा।

133. 'डिस्लेक्सिया' शब्द है

(a) तद्भव

(b) देशज

(c) आगत

(d) तत्सम

134. 'ऐसे लोगों के लिए ही किसी विद्वान ने कहा है'- रेखांकित अंश का संकेत है

(a) अनुकूल परिस्थितियों की प्रतीक्षा कर रहे लोग

(b) प्रतिकूल स्थितियों को अनुकूल बनाते लोग

(c) दृढ़ इरादों वाले लोग।

(d) अनुकूल परिस्थितियों में बढ़े लोग

135. नारायण मूर्ति, ग्राहम बेल आदि के उदाहरण क्यों दिए गए हैं?

(a) प्रतिकूल परिस्थितियों में भी सफलता पाने के कारण

(b) डिस्लेक्सिया से ग्रस्त होने के कारण

(c) सीमित संसाधन होने के कारण

(d) सफल अमीर होने के कारण

निर्देशः नीचे पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए।

136. निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रिक्त स्थानों के लिए उपयुक्त शब्दों वाला

विकल्प चुनिए: ".......... में बोली जाने वाली, ......... के बीच और पड़ोस की भाषाओं तथा .......... में प्रयुक्त की जाने वाली भाषा के बीच के फासले को पाटने का भरपूर प्रयास किया जाना चाहिए।"

(a) घर, दोस्तों, स्कूल

(b) घर, समुदाय, पाठ्य-पुस्तक

(c) समुदाय, दोस्तों, साहित्य

(d) स्कूल, समुदाय, पाठ्य-पुस्तक

137. भाषा का पोर्टफोलियो हो सकता है

(a) प्रपत्रों का संगठित और क्रमबद्ध संग्रह

(b) प्रपत्रों का आकर्षक संग्रह

(c) परियोजना कार्यों का संगठित संग्रह

(d) प्रश्नानुसार लिखित उत्तरों का संग्रह

138. आकलन एक सतत प्रक्रिया है। इसका प्राथमिक उद्देश्य है

(a) विषय-वस्तु, पाठ्य-पुस्तक, शिक्षक और कक्षा में सुधार का समर्थन

(b) प्रविधि, पाठ्य-पुस्तक, शिक्षक और विद्यार्थी में सुधार का अवलोकन

(c) प्रविधि, सामग्री, शिक्षक और कक्षाकार्य निष्पादन में सुधार की प्रतिपुष्टि

(d) विषय-वस्तु, शिक्षण, पाठ्य सामग्री और प्रशिक्षण में सुधार की प्रतिपुष्टि

139. “भाषा सीखने की क्षमता जन्मजात होती है।"- यह विचार किसकी देन है?

(a) पावलोव |

(b) चॉम्स्की

(c) थॉर्नडाइक |

(d) स्किनर

140. बच्चों में सृजनात्मक अभिव्यक्ति का विकास करने के लिए सर्वश्रेष्ठ

विधि है

(a) मेरा आदर्श विद्यालय पर निबंध लिखवाना।

(b) पढ़ी गई कहानी को संक्षेप में लिखना।

(c) भूकंप आने पर जो तबाही हुई उसके बारे में अपने अनुभव लिखना।

(d) दो दिन के अवकाश के लिए पत्र लिखवाना।

141. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर हिंदी सीखने-सिखाने की प्रक्रिया में किसकी

महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका नहीं है?

(a) पाठ्य-पुस्तक

(b) अभ्यास पत्रक

(c) प्रश्न-पत्र

(d) संचारमाध्यम

142. सांस्कृतिक पर्वो के दौरान कक्षा में लोकगीतों की प्रस्तुति का आयोजन

करने का उद्देश्य है

(a) बाहरी अनुभवों को कक्षा के अनुभवों से जोड़ना।

(b) बच्चों की सांस्कृतिक जानकारी को बढ़ना।

(c) बच्चों की गायन क्षमता का विकास करना।

(d) स्थानीय अनुभवों की परख करना।

143, गद्य पाठों के शिक्षण का उद्देश्य नहीं है

(a) विभिन्न प्रकार की भाषिक प्रयुक्तियों का परिचय देना।

(b) समृद्ध भाषा-प्रयोगों के उदाहरण प्रस्तुत करना।

(c) समस्त गद्य-विधाओं का पूर्ण ज्ञान देना।

(d) भाषा-संरचना की समझ बढ़ाना। |

144. भाषा-अर्जन और भाषा-अधिगम में अंतर का आधार नहीं है

(a) सहजता

(b) सांस्कृतिकता

(c) कुशलता

(d) स्वाभाविकता

145. समृद्ध बाल-साहित्य का सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण उद्देश्य है

(a) सृजनात्मक भाषा-प्रयोग का विकास

(b) नैतिक मूल्यों का विकास

(c) भाषा संरचना का विकास

(d) कल्पनाशक्ति का विकास

146. भाषा-शिक्षक की भूमिका में महत्त्वपूर्ण यह है कि वह

(a) पाठ्य-पुस्तक की सीमा से स्वतंत्र होकर विविध संभों में

भाषा-प्रयोग को महत्त्व दे।

(b) पाठ्य-पुस्तक आधारित आकलन के स्थान पर स्वयं बहुविकल्पी

प्रश्न तैयार करे।

(c) पाठ्य-पुस्तक को ही आकलन का एकमात्र आधार माने।

(d) पाठ्य-पुस्तक को समय-सीमा के भीतर पूर्ण करा दे।

147. दो भाषा बोलने वाले बच्चे न केवल अन्य भाषाओं पर अच्छा नियंत्रण रखते हैं, बल्कि शैक्षिक स्तर पर वे

(a) अधिक रचनात्मक होते हैं।

(b) अधिक बुद्धिमान होते हैं।

(C) अधिक परिश्रमी होते हैं।

(d) अधिक अंक प्राप्त करते हैं।

148. आगमन विधि में हम बढ़ते हैं

(a) उदाहरणों से नियम की ओर

(b) भाषा से व्याकरण की ओर

(c) व्याकरण से भाषा की ओर

(d) नियम से उदाहरणों की ओर

149. वाइगोत्स्की के अनुसार किसी शब्द का अर्थ

(a) सामाजिक-सांस्कृतिक संदर्भ से उपजता है।

(b) व्याकरण-आधारित होता है।

(C) वक्ता पर निर्भर होता है।

(d) शब्दकोश के अनुसार होता है।

150. हिंदी भाषा की कक्षा में एक बच्चा बोलते समय अपनी मातृभाषा के शब्दों का प्रयोग करता है। ऐसी स्थिति में आप क्या करेंगे?

(a) उसे टोकेंगे नहीं और उसकी मातृभाषा के शब्दों का ही प्रयोग स्वयं भी करेंगे।

(b) उसे टोने और उसकी मातृभाषा के शब्दों के स्थान पर हिंदी के शब्दों का प्रयोग दृढ़ता से करवाएँगे।

(c) उसकी भाषिक अभिव्यक्ति पर ध्यान नहीं देंगे और पाठ जारी रखेंगे।

(d) उसे टोकेंगे नहीं और उसकी मातृभाषा के शब्दों के स्थान पर हिंदी के शब्दों का प्रयोग कर वाक्य को दोहराएँगे।


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