CTET Exam 2016 Paper-I: Answer Key
Find the solved question paper of CTET exam 2016 here. Read full article to get glimpse of the difficulty level of the asked questions-
CTET 2016 Exam Answer key: The answer key of CTET 2016 paper-1 exam is given here. The candidates, who wish to attempt the previous year question papers, can find the full solved paper of 2016 session here. These questions will definitely help you in preparing the upcoming CTET exams. In this article, 150 questions are solved. Please go through all of them-
PART-I: CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the Correct/most appropriate options.
1. Most classrooms in India are multilingual and this needs to be seen as by the teacher?
a. a problem
b. a resource
c. an obstacle
d. a bother
2. Mistakes and errors made by students
a. are indicative of the failure of the teacher and the students.
b. should be seen as opportunities to understand their thinking.
c. should be severely dealt with.
d. are a wonderful opportunity to label children as ‘weak’ or ‘outstanding’.
3. _____ views children as active builders of knowledge and little scientists, who construct their own theories of the world.
4. Child-centered pedagogy means
a. asking the children to follow and imitate the teacher
b. giving primacy to children’s voices and their active participation
c. letting the children be totally free
d. giving moral education to the children
5. A teacher can help the children to process a complex situation by
a. not offering any help at all so that children learn to help on their own.
b. giving a lecture on it.
c. breaking the task into smaller parts and writing down instructions.
d. encouraging competition and offering a high a reward to the child who completes the task first.
6. Expecting students to reproduce knowledge in the same way as it is received
a. is an effective assessment strategy.
b. is problematic, because individuals interpret experiences and do not reproduce knowledge as it is received.
c. is good, since we record everything as it is in our brains.
d. is good, since it is easy for the teacher to assess.
7. When students are given an opportunity to discuss a problem in groups, their learning curve
a. remains stable
c. remains the same
d. becomes better
8. The pace of development varies from one individual to another, but it follows ____ pattern.
(I) a haphazard
b. an unpredictable
c. a sequential and orderly
d. a toe-to-head
9. Which one of the following is correct about development?
a. ‘Sociocultural context’ plays an important role in development.
b. Development is unidimensional.
c. Development is discrete.
d. Development begins and ends at birth.
10. Why do individuals differ from one another?
a. Due to the inborn characteristics.
b. Due to the interplay between heredity and environment.
c. Because each individual has received a different gene set from his/her parents.
d. Because of the impact of the environment.
11. Family plays ____ role in socialization of the child.
a. an exciting
b. a primary
c. a secondary
d. a not-so-important
12. Which one of the following is a correctly matched pair?
a. Formal operational child—imitation begins, imaginary play
b. Infancy—Applies logic and is able to infer
c. Pre-operational child—Deductive thought
d. Concrete operational child—is able to conserve and classify
13. A child says, ‘Clothes dry faster in the sun.” She is showing an understanding of
a. egocentric thinking
b. cause and effect
c. reversible thinking
d. symbolic thought
14. According to Piaget, children’s thinking differs in ____ from adults than in _______.
a. size; correctness
b. kind; amount
c. size; type
d. amount; kind
15. Which one of the following is an example of scaffolding?
a. Giving motivational lectures to students
b. Offering explanations without encouraging questioning
c. Offering both material and non-material rewards
d. Giving prompts and cues, and asking questions at critical junctures
16. According to Vygotsky, Children learn
a. by maturation
b. by imitation
c. by interacting with adults and peers
d. when reinforcement is offered
17. Kohlberg has given
a. the stages of physical development
b. the stages of emotional development
c. the stages of moral development
d. the stages of cognitive development
18. Which one of the following situations is illustrative of a child-centered classroom?
(I) A class in which the textbook is the only resource the teacher refers to
b. A class in which the students are sitting in groups and the teacher takes turns to go to each group
c. A class in which the behavior of students is governed by the rewards and punishments the teacher would give them
d. A class in which the teacher dictates and the students are asked to memorize the notes
19. Intelligence is
a. a singular and generic concept
b. the ability to imitate others
c. a specific ability
d. a set of capabilities
20. Early childhood is ____ period for language development.
a. an unimportant
b. a sensitive
c. a neutral
d. a not-so-significant
21. A teacher remarks in a co-education class to boys, “Be boys and don’t behave like girls.” This remark
a. is a good example of dealing with boys and girls
b. reflects stereotypical behavior of discrimination between boys and girls
c. highlights the biological superiority of boys over girls
d. reflects caste discrimination
a. should actively promote competitive spirit among children
b. should generate tension and stress to ensure learning
c. is a way to improve learning
d. is a good strategy to label and categorize children
23. Which one of the following statements best describes ‘Inclusion’?
a. It is the belief that some children cannot learn at all.
b. It is the philosophy that all children have a right to get equal education in a regular school system.
c. It is the philosophy that special children are ‘a special gift of God’.
d. It is the belief that children need to be segregated according to their abilities.
24. In catering to the children from ‘disadvantaged’ background, a teacher should
a. try to find out more about them and involve them in class discussions
b. make them sit separately in the class
c. ignore them as they cannot interact with other students
d. give them a lot of written work
25. Which one of the following behaviors is an identifier of a child with learning disability?
a. Abusive behavior
b. Writing ‘b’ as ‘d’, ‘was’ as ‘saw’,‘21’ as ‘12’
c. Low attention span and high physical activity
d. Frequent mood swings
26. A child, who can see partially
a. should not be given education, since it is not of any use to him
b. needs to be put in a separate institution
c. should be put in a ‘regular’ school while making special provisions
d. should be put in a ‘regular’ school with no special provisions
a. has very little connection with emotions
b. is independent of a learner’s emotions
c. is influenced by a learner’s emotions
d. is not affected by a learner’s emotions
28. To enable students to make conceptual changes in their thinking, a teacher should
a. discourage children from thinking on their own and ask them to just listen to her and follow that
b. offer an explanation in a lecture mode
c. make clear and convincing explanations and have discussions with the students
d. offer rewards for children who change their thinking.
29. In the context of a primary school classroom, what does active engagement mean?
a. Imitating and copying the teacher
b. Enquiry, Questioning and Debate
c. Copying answers given by the teacher
d. Memorizing, Recall and Reciting
30. Children are most creative when they participate in an activity
a. under stress to do well in front of others
b. out of interest
c. for rewards
d. to escape their teacher’s scolding
31. According to the NCP, 2005, which one of the following is not a major aim of Mathematics education in primarily schools?
a. To relate Mathematics to the child’s context
b. To enhance problem-solving skills
c. To prepare for higher education in Mathematics
d. To mathematize the child’s thought process
32. Which one of the following should be the most important feature of Mathematics textbooks at primary level?
a. Concepts should be presented from complex to simple
b. Concepts should be presented in a strict hierarchical manner
c. Concepts should be presented from concrete to abstract
d. Concepts should be linked to higher classes
33. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of development of geometrical understanding?
a. Visualization, analysis, informal deduction, formal deduction
b. Formal deduction, informal deduction, visualization, analysis
c. Visualization, analysis, formal deduction, informal deduction
d. Visualization, formal deduction, analysis, informal deduction
34. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Zero should be introduced at the time of teaching place value
b. Zero should be the first numeral to be taught
c. Zero should be introduced after children develop number sense
d. Zero should be introduced after number 9
35. A teacher plans the following activities to introduce the concept of half’ to Class III students
A. Shows pictures representing ‘half’
B. Writes symbol for ‘half’
C. Divides many types of concrete materials into ‘halves’
D. Uses story or words to represent ‘half’
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the activities that the teacher needs to follow?
a. C, D, A, B
b. A, B, C, D
c. B, A, C, D
d. C, A, D, B
36. Which one of the following is true about teaching arid learning of Mathematics in Class I and II?
a. Only oral Mathematics problems should be done in Class I and II
b. Mathematics should be integrated with other subjects like language, art, etc.
c. Mathematics should not be taught in Class I and II
d. Lots of opportunities for practice should be provided.
37. 1001 X 111= 110000 + 11 x _____; then the number in the blank space is
38. If (the place value of 5 in 15201) + (the place value of 6 in 2659) – 7 x ____; then the number in the blank space is
39. If (the product of the common positive factors of 36 and 48) = 999 + 9 x _____. Then, the number which will come in the blank apace is
40. If the difference of remainders, obtained on dividing 26679 by 39 and 29405 by 34, is divided by 18. Then, the remainder will be
41. (The smallest common multiple of 36, 54 and 60) + 90 is equal to
42. Sonu has five dozen toffees. He gave 1/3 of these to Amita, 2/5 of these to Anil and 1/12 of these to Hamida. The number of toffees left with Sonu is-
43. If 112 Ones + 12 thousands = 11012 +_____Tens. Then, the number in the blank space is
44. 51 litre and 750 mililitre of milk is filled in 23 bottles, each of the same size. The quantity of milk in 16 such bottles is
a. 37 litre and 600 millilitre
b. 34 litre and 400 millilitre
c. 35 litre
d. 36 litre
45. A distance of ½ centimetre on a map represents 200 kilometre on the ground. If two cities are 1800 kilometre apart on the ground, then their distance on the map will be
a. nine centimetre
b. three and a half centimetre
c. four and a half centimetre
d. six centimeter
46. Which one of the following is not correct?
a. One millilitre is one-hundredth of one litre
b. One lakh is equal to one hundred thousand
c. One crore is equal to one hundred Iakh
d. One centimetre is one hundredth of one metre
47. A cuboidal box is 13cm long, 11 cm broad and 9 cm high. A cubical box has side 12 cm. Tanu wants to pack 3060 cubes of side 1 cm in these boxes. The number of the cubes left unpacked in these boxes is
48. The length and breadth of a rectangle are 48 cm and 21 cm respectively. The side of a square is two-thirds the length of the rectangle. The sum of their areas (in square cm) is
49. The product 672 x 36 x 25 equals
a. the number of seconds in 1 week
b. the number of minutes in 7 weeks
c. the number of hours in 60 days
d. the number of seconds in 5 days
50. When fresh fish is dried, it becomes one-third its weight. Savi bought 2709 kg of fresh fish at the rate of Rs. 27 per kg and when dried, she sold them at Rs. 97.5 per kg. She earned in all
a. Rs. 15874.5
b. Rs. 14709.5
c. Rs. 14789.5
d. Rs. 14899.5
51. Juhi travelled a distance of 16 km by bicycle at the speed of 15 km per hour, 20 km by scooter at the speed of 50 km per hour and 50km by car at the speed of 60 km per hour. The total time (in minutes) to travel these distances was
52. Which one of the following is prerequisite to understand decimal representation of a number?
b. Place value
53. The four fundamental operations in arithmetic are
a. calculation, computation, construction and forming equation
b. addition, multiplication, converting fractions into decimals and construction of regular shapes
c. addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
d. addition, division, finding perimeter and area
54. A teacher is teaching ‘addition’ to Class II students. Which one of the following is the most suitable
strategy to follow?
a. Word problems should be used only for the purpose of assessment
b. Addition should be introduced through word problems
c. Word problems should be done at the end of the chapter
d. Word problems should not be done in Class II
55. A teacher of Class II gives the following word problem on ‘addition’ to students to solve:
“A basket contains 5 apples and 7 more apples are added to it. How many apples are now there in the basket?”
This type of word problem belongs to which of the following models/ categories?
b. Repeated addition
56. “Errors play an important role in Mathematics.” This statement is
a. false as errors indicate carelessness
b. true, as they give ideas about how children construct Mathematics concepts
c. true, as they give feedback to students about their marks
d. false, as there is no scope of errors in Mathematics
57. Which one of the following teaching learning material (TLM) is best suited to explain ‘1/10 is greater than 1/100 to Class IV students?
(I) Number chart
c. 10 x 10 Square grid
d. Dienes block
58. Which one of the blowing is best suited for comparison of sizes (areas) of two or more two dimensional objects?
d. Using non-standard units
59. ‘Mathematics puzzles’ at primary level help in
a. providing fun to students
b. testing problem-solving skills
c. promoting problem-solving skills
d. identifying brilliant students of the class
60. Mathematical communication refers to
a. ability to solve problems
b. skills to participate in Mathematics quiz
c. ability to speak in Mathematics classroom
d. ability to consolidate and organize mathematical thinking
PART-III: Environmental Studies
61. A Class V teacher takes an aluminum foil and puts it in water and shows that it floats. She then crumples and squeezes the foil tightly arid puts it in water again and shows to the students that it sinks. She then asks the students to think and give reasons why they think this has happened. Which one of the following process skills will be used in answering this question?
62. In the context of EVS pedagogy, all of the following are desirable practices except
a. nurturing the identity of the child
b. acknowledging the superiority of textbook knowledge over actual observation
c. promoting plurality of texts and contexts
d. building capacity for critical thinking and problem-solving
63. Mahesh, a Class IV teacher, plans to sensitize the students to the concept of ‘conservation of trees’. Which one of the following activities is most suited for this purpose?
a. Motivating each student to adopt and nurture one tree
b. Encouraging students to participate in poster competition
c. Making teams of students for group discussion
d. Conducting a debate competition
64. In EVS, Children Particularly enjoy learning crafts and arts in groups because
A. it promotes Peer learning
B. it improves learning
C. Children become happy and respond with enthusiasm when their creative works are appreciated
D. it promotes discipline in the class
Select the correct option.
a. A, B, and D
b. A, B and C
c. B and C
d. A and D
65. ‘Experimentation’ is one of the indicators of assessment. Which one of the following is the most appropriate way of assessing experimentation indicator?
a. Creative writing
c. Hands-on activity
d. Picture reading
66. Students in primary classes have a lot of alternate conceptions in many topics like living-nonliving, water cycle, plants, etc. The sources of these alternate conceptions can be
A. family and community
B. textbooks and other books
D. stories and poems
Select the correct option.
a. A, B, C and D
b. Only A
c. A and B
d. Á, B and D
67. Glass jars and bottles are dried well in the sun before filling them With Pickles. Why is it so?
a. To remove the dust from them
b. To remove the moisture completely
c. To make pickles tasty
d. To increase their temperature
68. Renu’s grandmother shows her a dried-up well and tells her that 15—20 years ago there was water in the well, but now it has completely dried up. What could be the reason(s) for drying up of water in the well?
A. The soil around the trees well and nearby area is now covered with cement.
B. A lot of boring pumps have come up in the nearby area.
C. Nobody uses the well as there are taps in everybody’s house now.
a. Only C
b. Only A
c. Only B
d. A and B
69. An egret sits on a buffalo, because
a. the egret sits on the buffalo for fun
b. the buffalo helps in the transportation of the egret from one place to another
c. the egret wants to scare the buffalo
d. the egret and the buffalo have symbiotic relationship
70. Which one of the following is not function of roots for the plant?
a. To provide humus
b. To give support to the plant
c. To absorb water and minerals
d. To store food
71. Consider the following statements about Karnam Malleswari:
A. She is a weight lifter of international fame.
B. She is from Karnataka.
C. She has many records to her credit. She could lift weights up to 130 kg.
D. She started lifting weights when she was 12 years old.
The correct statement(s) is/are
a. A, C, and D
b. only A
c. only A and D
d. A, B, and C
72. The following are some statements regarding step wells or Baolis:
A. They are a traditional system of water storage and conservation.
B. They were used as a community resource.
C. They are found / constructed mainly in rain-parched States.
D. They contain only contaminated water.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. A, B, and C
b. Only A
c. Only D
d. A and B
73. ‘Worli’ is a traditional art form. The place ‘Worli’ is in the state of
74. The neighboring states of Tamil Nadu are
a. Kerala, Gujarat and Karnataka
b. Andhra Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka
c. Goa, Karnataka and Kerala
d. Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
75. Which one of the following has the Sense of hearing so sharp that it can make out the difference between the rustling of leaves and the sound of an animal moving on the grass?
76. When one is travelling from Ahmedabad to Kerala by a train, one comes across many tunnels. These tunnels are in the hills of
b. Western Ghats
c. Eastern Ghats
77. The earth is round. There is actually no ‘up’ and ‘down’ on the earth and it is just relative. We, the people of India, actually stand upside down in relation to the people of
d. Alaska (USA)
78. It is advised to put oil on stagnant water to prevent breeding of mosquitoes. This is because
a. mosquitoes are repelled by oil
b. mosquitoes are killed by oil
c. mosquitoes get stuck in the layer of oil
d. oil cuts off oxygen supply, thereby stops the breeding of mosquitoes
79. Which one of the following insects does not live together in a colony like honeybees?
80. The structure of houses in rural area is linked to tile climatic conditions in which they are built. There is a village where houses have following features:
* Houses are made on strong bamboo pillars.
* Inside of houses is also made of wood.
* Houses are made almost 3 m to 35 ni above the ground.
* Roofs are made with a slope.
If in this village it rains heavily, the village should be part of
a. Uttar Pradesh
81. ‘Kuduk’ is a language of the people of
b. Arunachal Pradesh
82. As per the NCP, 2005, which one among the following is the theme of EVS?
a. Solar system
83. Which one among the following is the strongest argument in favor of adopting a theme based approach in EVS?
a. It helps in making teaching more interesting and activity-based.
b. It helps in covering a wide range of concepts, issues and skills.
c. It helps in softening subject boundaries and accessing knowledge holistically.
d. It helps in giving a structure to lesson plans and makes teaching more effective.
84. Stories are an important aspect of teaching-learning EVS in primary classes. Which one of the following is least appropriate reason for including storytelling as pedagogy in EVS classroom?
a. Stories cut across various subject areas.
b. Stories help in class management.
c. Stories provide contexts to relate EVS concepts.
d. Stories include experiences of the people.
85. The content in an EVS textbook should
A. avoid descriptions and definitions
B. discourage rote learning
C. provide opportunities to the child to question and explore
D. give only written information to the child
Select the correct option.
a. B and C
b. Only C
c. A, B, and C
d. A and D
86. Which one of the following statements about assessment procedures is Ieast appropriate?
a. Preparing a list of learning indicators and sub-indicators makes the reporting more detailed.
b. Remarks like ‘fair’, ‘good’ and ‘very good’ give an understanding about a child’s learning.
c. Portfolios of children should not contain only their best work but all kinds of work.
d. Giving personal details and individual feedback to a child is a desirable practice.
87. Read the following question carefully :
“Have you ever seen animals around your house or school that have small babies? Write their names in
the notebook.” Which process skill is assessed through this question?
a. Hypothesis and experimentation
b. Concern for justice
c. Observation and recording
d. Classification and discussion
88. Interdisciplinary nature of EVS addresses environmental issues by using the contents and methods of
a. social science and environmental education
c. science, social science and environmental education
d. science and social science
89. The teacher of Class V-A gave the question:
A. Write five advantages of trees.
While the teacher of Class V-B gave the question:
B. What would happen if there were no trees on the earth?
What is the nature of these questions?
a. A is open-ended, convergent and B is close-ended divergent
b. A is open-ended, divergent and B is close-ended Convergent
c. A is close-ended divergent and B is open-ended convergent
d. A is close-ended Convergent and B is open-ended, divergent
90. Which of the following is/are true about assessing learners in EVS in Class I?
A. Oral tests, as children may not be able to write
B. Drawing, as children enjoy it
C. Teacher& observation and recording
D. There is no need of assessment in view of ‘no detention policy’
a. Only D
b. A and B
c. C and D
d. A, B, and C
PART-IV LANGUAGE-I: ENGLISH
Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q.91-120), if they have opted ENGLISH as language only.
Directions: Answer the following questions (Q. No. 91 to 105) by selecting the correct/ most appropriate option.
91. Which one of the following the most important prerequisite for language learning?
a. List of aims and objectives of the language to be learnt
b. Providing a good textbook to children to learn the language
c. Using Structural situational approach while teaching
d. Children’s motivation to learn the language
92. A teacher ask student of Class III to describe their best friend. She writes the students responses on the blackboard. At last, she states that all these describing words on the blackboard are adjectives. This is
a. Incidental method
b. Inductive method
c. Deductive method
d. Immersion method
93. The rise and fall of tone is
94. Which one of the following is the most important about Storytelling?
a. It enhances graded pattern and structure.
b. It promotes whole language approach.
c. It is an effective way of learning vocabulary.
d. It broadens their knowledge about various authors.
95. Dictation does not help learners,
a. improve their reading skills
b. improve their spelling
c. enhance their listening comprehension
d. increase their concentration
96. An English teacher after completing a chapter from the textbook asks questions based on the text to
a. keep students busy as the chapter is complete
b. attract students’ attention
c. know their comprehension
d. maintain class discipline
97. Shreya, a teacher of Class IV, asked the learners to complete the dialogue in the given boxes and
Then, to role play the same using their dialogues. She is developing
a. all, listening, writing, reading and speaking skill
b. listening and Speaking skills
c. reading and writing skills
d. Speaking and writing skill
98. which one of the following cannot be used in formative assessment?
b. Retelling stories
c. Role play
99. Teaching-Learning Material (TLM) should be used by teachers as It
a. motivates learners to further prepare such material at home
b. Supplements teaching-learning process
c. prepares students mentally to sit in the class
d. is not very expensive
100. While learning English as a second language
a. there is no role of mother tongue in learning L2
b. the use of mother tongue will facilitate learning
c. the use of mother tongue will create interference
d. the mother tongue should not be used by the learners
101. The process of assessment in a language class should be conducted
a. for assessing the textual exercises at the end of the chapter
b. to know the level of students in the class
c. to know the efficiency of teachers in teaching
d. during the teaching-learning process
102. As per the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005, multilingualism in learning a language should be seen as a
a. challenge for teachers to manage such classes
b. hindrance in teaching-Learning English
c. resource In teaching-Learning English
d. challenge for students to learn many languages
103. The most important factor which is responsible for the differentiation between language learning and language acquisition is
a. grammar of language
b. assessment in language
c. textbook of language
d. language environment
104. Which one of the following is an essential characteristic of a good textbook in English?
a. Every lesson should have a proper introduction at the beginning and a conclusion at the end.
b. It should be based on the guiding principles of curriculum and syllabus.
c. No difficult words should be given in the textbook at primary level.
d. The maximum number of textual exercises should be given to practice at the end of the lesson.
105. The maximum participation of students is possible while teaching English by the teacher using authentic tasks through
a. communicative approach
b. grammar translation method
c. direct method
d. structural approach
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 106 to 114) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
As I kept strict watch over my way of living, I could see that it was necessary to economize. Therefore, decided to reduce my expenses by half, my accounts showed numerous items spent on fares. Again, my living with a family meant the payment of a regular weekly bill. It also included the courtesy of occasionally taking members of the family out to dinner, and likewise attending parties with them. All this involved heavy items for conveyances, especially as, if the friend was a lady, custom required that the man should pay all the expenses. Also, dining out meant extra cost, as no deduction could be made
from the regular weekly bill for meals not taken. It seemed to me that all these items could be saved, as likewise the drain on my purse. So I decided to take rooms on my own account, instead of living any longer in a family, and also to remove from place to place according to the work I had to do,
thus gaining experience at the same time. ‘The rooms were so selected as to enable me to reach the place of business on foot in half an hour, and so save fares. Before this, I had always taken some kind
of conveyance whenever I went anywhere, and had to find extra time for walks. The new arrangement combined walks and economy, as it meant a saving of fares and gave me walks of eight or ten miles a day. It was mainly this habit of long walks that kept me practically free from illness throughout my stay in England and gave me a fairly strong body.
Thus I rented a suite of rooms; one for a sitting room and another for a bedroom. This was the second stage. The third was yet to come.
106. The author could reduce expenses by half by
a. renting rooms close to his office
b. travelling in a bus
c. cooking his own meals
d. having only one meal a day
107. __________constituted a major part of the authors expenses.
b. Dining out
108. The author’s choice of his new residence enabled him to
a. work longer and harder
b. save money on fares
c. keep things under control
d. be close to his friends
109. What gave the author a fairly strong body?
b. Nourishing food
c. Long walks
d. Yogic exercises
110. The steps taken by the author to reduce his expenses show that he was
a. always short of money
b. saving money for emergencies
111. The word ‘numerous’ most nearly means
112. The word which is opposite in meaning to ‘courtesy’ is
113. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the sentence given below?
“I decided to reduce my expenses by half.”
114. “The new arrangement combined walks and economy.” The ‘voice’ in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
a. Walks and economy are combined in the new arrangement.
b. Walks and economy were combined in the new arrangement.
c. Walks and economy have been combined by the new arrangement.
d. The new arrangement had combined walks and economy.
Directions: Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 116 to 120) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
How soon hath time, the subtle thief of youth, a.
Stol’n on his wing my three-and twentieth year! b.
My hasting days fly on with full career, But my late spring no bud or blossom shew’th.
Perhaps my semblance might deceive the truth
That I to manhood am arriv’d so near;
And inward ripeness doth much less appear,
That some more timely-happy spirits endu ‘th.
Yet be if less or more, or soon or slow, it shall be still in Strictest measure ev’n
To that same lot, however mean or high, Toward which Time leads me, and the will of Heav’n.
115. The poet presents ‘Time’ as a/ an
116. The poet regrets that
a. his teachers are not happy with his progress
b. his academic progress has been very slow
c. he ¡s not popular with his peers
d. he has not attained inner maturity
117. The poet envies his friends. Because they
a. are popular with their friends
b. are blessed with robust health
c. have attained inward ripeness
d. have achieved name and fame
118. The inner maturity the poet longs for will come
a. with the help of teachers
b. by the will of God
c. through hard work
d. with the help of peers
119. The poet is __________about his future.
120. The ‘Figure of speech’ used in lines 1 and 2 is
b. an irony
c. a Simile
PART—V (LANGUAGE-II): ENGLISH
Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q.121-150), if they have opted ENGLISH as language only.
Directions: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 121 to 150) by selecting the correct/ most appropriate options.
121. Stephen Krashen’s theory of second language acquisition does not consist of
a. the input Hypothesis
b. the Acquisition Learning Hypothesis
c. the Learnability Hypothesis
d. the Natural Order Hypothesis
133. The use of dictionary does not help learners to
a. be proficient in oral communication
b. find the meaning of words
c. check the part of speech in word
d. find out how to say a word
123. ‘Constructivism’ in language learning focuses on
a. engaging learners in exploring new knowledge
b. the role of imitation
c. memorizing grammar rules
d. the dominant role of the teacher in the Classroom
124. The main objective of teaching English at primary level is
a. speaking English in British accent
b. scoring good marks in the exams
c. knowing the grammar English
d. using English in different situations of life
125. In learning a language, students talking time should be because
a. teachers feel relaxed while students are talking
b. they enjoy spending time talking with their friends
c. they can learn the correct pronunciation from each other
d. they use the target language for various purposes
126. A teacher of Class V is planning to teach grammar. Which one of the following might be a good strategy for teaching grammar?
a. Asking students to carefully note down the rules from the blackboard
b. Giving clear explanations of the rules with examples
c. Asking students to do drill work only to learn rules
d. Giving the practice of grammar in context as a strategy
127. Which one of the following is not true in relation to the use of children literature?
a. Their reading proficiency deteriorates and gets worse.
b. It helps in developing learners’ imagination
c. it broadens their mental horizon.
d. It makes them understand and respect diverse cultures.
128. While assessing a group work. A teacher should not focus on
a. co-operative learning process
b. assessing each child’s work
c. taking initiatives in work
d. showing concern for others
129. A diagnostic test in English will help the language teacher to identify
a. slow learners in her class
b. learning difficulties the learner faces in English
c. the topic which the learner has not learnt by heart
d. intelligent learners in her class
130. While teaching English, a teacher is not able to draw attention of some students sitting at the back. She should
a. stop explaining the concept and start dictating the notes to students
b. scold them for not paying attention
c. ignore them and carry on
d. engage them by asking questions and evaluating her teaching method
131. When a child learns a language naturally, without much practice, it is called
a. language adaptation
b. language learning
c. language acquisition
d. language generalization
132. The communicative approach to teach English focuses on
a. correct pronunciation of words
b. linguistic competence plus an ability to use the language appropriately
c. the practice of selected and graded structure patterns
d. the structural accuracy of the sentences
133. Which one of the following is most important in developing reading skill at primary level?
a. Ability to comprehend the text already read
b. Only knowing the correct order of alphabet
c. Ability to read words correctly
d. Ability to read phrases correctly
134. While reading, a learner needs to
a. translate the written symbols into corresponding sounds to grasp their meaning
b. perceive and decode letters in order to read words
c. understand every word to grasp the meaning of the text
d. guess the contextual meaning of new words to understand the text
135. Diphthongs are
a. double consonant sounds
b. vowel sounds
c. double vowel sounds
d. consonant sounds
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 136 to 143) by selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered the pioneer of modern Indian Renaissance for the remarkable reforms he brought about in the 18th century India fl2OJ1g his efforts, the abolition of the satipratha—a practice in which the widow was compelled to sacrifice herself on the funeral pyre of her husband—was prominent. His efforts were also instrumental in eradicating the Purdah system and child marriage. In 1828, Ram Mohan Roy formed the Brahmo Samaj, a group of people, who had no faith in idol-worship and were against the caste restrictions.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s father was a wealthy Brahmin and strictly performed the duties set by the religion. Ram Mohan himself was also devoted to Lord Vishnu and in his 14th year, he wanted to become a monk but his mother, Tarini Devi objected to his desire.
Ram Mohan viewed education as a medium to implement the social reforms. So, in 1815, Ram Mohan came to Calcutta and the very next year, started an English College by putting in his own savings. He was well aware that the students should learn the English language and scientific subjects and that’s why he criticized the government’s policy of opening only sanskrit schools. According to him, Indians
would lag behind if they do not get to study modern subjects like Mathematics, Geography and Latin. The government accepted this idea of Ram Mohan and also implemented it but not before his death.
Ram Mohan was also the first to give importance to the development of mother tongue. His Gaudiya Byakaran in Bengali is the best of his prose works. Rabindranath Tagore and Bankim chandra also followed in the footsteps of Ram Mohan Roy.
Ram Mohan Roy was a staunch supporter of free speech and expression and fought for the rights of Vernacular Press. He also brought out a newspaper in Persian called Miratul-Akhbar (the Mirror of News) and a Bengali weekly called Sambad Kaumudi (the Moon of Intelligence). In those days, items of news and articles had to be approved by the government before being published. Ram Mohan protested against this control by arguing that newspapers should be free and that the truth should not be suppressed simply because the government did not like it.
136. Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known for his
a. literary reforms
b. political reforms
c. social reforms
d. economic reforms
137. When he was a teenager Raja Ram Mohan Roy expressed his desire to become a
138. Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed that Indians would lag behind if they
a. did not learn traditional skills
b. gave up study of Sanskrit
c. did not study modern subjects
d. forgot their cultural roots
139. Raja Ram Mohan Roy strongly supported
a. physical education
b. freedom of speech and expression
c. moral education
d. rituals and observances
140. The word ‘eliminating’ most nearly means
141. The word which is opposite in meaning to ‘encouraged’ is
142. Which ‘part of speech’ is the underlined word in the sentence given below?
“He was a staunch supporter of free speech and expression.”
143. “Raja Ram Mohan Roy viewed education ....“
The ‘voice’ in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
a. Education is viewed ....
b. Education has been viewed ....
c. Education had been viewed ....
d. Education was viewed ....
Directions: Read the passage below and answers the questions that follow (Q. No. 144 to 150) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Your body is made up of sixty percent water and you lose the essential fluid every minute of every day as you breathe, digest, and hopefully work up a sweat. It is important that you put back every drop.
Starting now, drink eight 230 ml glasses of water every single day that’s the minimum your body needs daily. That is the non-negotiable hydration Mantra. Many times when you think you’re hungry, sleepy, depressed, and/or irritated, you’re actually just dehydrated. Drinking enough water actually helps you combat water retention. Sounds counterintuitive, but think about it. If you are running around in a semi-dehydrated state all the time, your body is going to hang on to every single drop, giving you that puffy, unhealthy appearance. When you are properly hydrating, your body gets the message that all systems are operating smoothly and it continues its work of flushing out your system and ridding itself of the excess fluids.
If your goal is to lose weight, water is a must. When you’re dehydrated, your body sends out signals that you need assistance. Many people mistake those thirsty SOS Signals for hunger and take in hundreds of extra calories. They also don’t solve the real problem—thirst! Drinking water can be a powerful appetite suppressant and allows you to cue into your real hunger. Your body also needs plenty of water for proper digestion, so you can get the most from the foods you eat. You are less susceptible to food cravings when your stomach is full and you’re getting all the nutrients you need. Drink two glasses of water before every meal— you’ll eat less! Your body uses water for fat.
144. _________helps fight water retention.
a. Drinking enough water
b. Exercising regularly
c. A regular morning walk
d. Having a balanced diet
145. Our systems operate satisfactorily
a. when we enjoy a sound sleep
b. when we are properly hydrated
c. if we consume lots of fruits and vegetables
d. if excess fat is reduced
146. The best way to lose weight is to
a. take weight-reducing pills
b. exercise at least twice a day
c. drink plenty of water
d. eat less starchy food
147. When we are dehydrated we think we
a. want to vomit
b. are tired
c. need food
d. are about to collapse
148. The word irritated most nearly means
149. The word which is opposite in meaning to ‘assistance’ is
150. “Your body uses water for fat.” The ‘voice’ in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
a. Water could be used for fat by our body.
b. Water is being used by our body for fat.
c. Water is used for fat by your body.
d. Water was used for fat by our body.