To crack the KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the KVS TGT Math Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.
| KVS TGT Math 2014 Previous Year Paper with Answers |
1. If 2x + 13 = 4x + 2 then x is equal to
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 4
2. How many real solutions are there of the equation x4 - 2 = 0 ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
3. The value of the expression 0.7 X 0.08/0.004 is equal to
(A) 14
(B) 0.14
(C) 140
(D) 0.56
4. The sum of two numbers is 50. The fraction obtained by dividing the larger number by the smaller number is 3/2. The numbers are.
(A) 25, 25
(B) 10, 40
(C) 15, 35
(D) 20, 30
5. Father’s age is 5 times the age of his son. After 15 years the father will be 2 ½ times older than his son. What is the present age of the father?
(A) 35 years
(B) 45 years
(C) 55 years
(D) 30 years
6. The Sup. {sinx + cosx} is equal to.
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) √2
(D) 1/√2
7. A bag contains 6 red and 4 green balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability that it is either a red ball or a green ball.
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) ½
(D) 5
8. For any event E, if P(E) = 0.99, find the value of P(not E)
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.0001
(D) none of these
9. The sum of the series 5 + 9 + 13 + … + 49 is
(A) 351
(B) 535
(C) 324
(D) 435
10. What will be the remainder if (x97 – 1) is divided by x +1 ?
(A) 96
(B) 0
(C) 2
(D) - 2
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11. What will be the remainder if (16 ! + 1) is divided by 17 ?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 2
(D) none of these
12. An odd degree polynomial equation has
(A) at least one real root
(B) no real root
(C) only one real root
(D) none of these
13. Decimal expansion of an irrational number is
(A) non-terminating, recurring
(B) terminating
(C) non-terminating, non-recurring
(D) none of these
14. The equation |x+2| = - 2 has
(A) unique solution
(B) two solutions
(C) many solutions
(D) No solution
15. The value of Sin (13π/4) is same as the value of
(A) Sin (3π/4)
(B) Sin (5π/4)
(C) Sin (π/4)
(D) Sin (9π / 4)
16. If ax + by = c is tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 16 then
(A) 16 (a2 + b2) = c2
(B) 16 (a2 - b2) = c2
(C) 16 (a2 +b2) = - c2
(D) 16 (a2 - b2) = - c2
19. Every homogeneous equation f(x, y, z) = 0 represents
(A) A Sphere
(B) A Cone with vertex at origin
(C) A Cylinder
(D) None of these
20. The equation x2 –y2 = 0 represents
(A) a circle
(B) an ellipse
(C) pair of straight lines
(D) a hyperbola
21. Two angles of an isosceles triangle are always
(A) equal
(B) equal to 450
(C) equal to 600
(D) none of these
22. The function y = f(x) has a relative minima where
(A) f(x) = 0 and f '(x) < 0
(B) f '(x) = 0 and f ''(x) > 0
(C) f(x) = 0 and f '(x) > 0
(D) f '(x) = 0 and f ''(x) < 0
23. If volume of a sphere is 36π then its surface area will be
(A) 18π
(B) 6π
(C) 12π
(D) 36π
24. Let average of three numbers be16. If two the numbers are 8 and 10, what is the remaining number?
(A) - 30
(B) 18
(C) 12
(D) 30
25. A bag contains 7 red and 4 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random with replacement. The probability of getting the balls of different colours is
(A) 28/121
(B) 56/121
(C) 1/2
(D) None of these
26. The distance of the point (2, 3, 4) from the plane 3x - 6y + 2z + 11 = 0 is
(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) none of these
27. If g = {(1, 1), (2, 3), (3, 5), (4, 7)} is a function described by g(x) = ax + b, then what values should be assigned to a and b?
(A) 1, 1
(B) 1, -2
(C) 2, -1
(D) -2, -1
28. Three resistances of value 2Ω each are arranged in a triangle form. The total resistances between any two corners will be
(A) 4 Ω
(B) 2 Ω
(C) 3/4 Ω
(D) 4/3 Ω
29. A copper wire and a steel wire of equal length and equal thickness are connected in series with a battery. Which of them will get more heated ?
(A) steel
(B) copper
(C) equally heated
(D) insufficient data to reply
30. A current in a coil of inductance 5H decreases at a rate of 2 Amp/sec. The induced emf is
(A) 2 V
(B) 5 V
(C) 10 V
(D) - 10 V
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31. The application of an electric motor is to
(A) convert voltage into current
(B) transfer charge into current
(C) transfer electrical energy into kinetic energy
(D) convert current into voltage
32. Charge flowing per unit area per second through a conductor is known as
(A) potential difference
(B) emf of the battery
(C) Ohm’s law
(D) current
33. The final image formed by simple microscope is
(A) real and inverted
(B) imaginary and inverted
(C) imaginary and erect
(D) real and erect
34. Which of the following phenomenon is responsible for the twinkling of stars?
(A) atmosphere reflection
(B) atmosphere refraction
(C) reflection
(D) total internal reflection
35. The refraction index of a rare medium with respect to a denser medium is
(A) 1
(B) greater than 1
(C) smaller than 1
(D) negative
36. Objects at different distances are seen by the eye. In this process which one of the following remain constant ?
(A) The object distance from the eye lens
(B) The focal length of the eye lens
(C) The image distance from the eye lens
(D) The radii of curvature of the eye lens
37. The sine of angle of incidence divided by the sine of angle of refraction equals refractive index is called
(A) Snell’s law
(B) Newton’s law
(C) Brewster’s law
(D) Bernoulli’s principle
38. The power generated in a windmill
(A) is more in rainy season since damped air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(B) depends on the height of the tower
(C) depends on wind velocity
(D) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
39. The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they
(A) were originally formed in marine environment
(B) contain carbon
(C) have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation
(D) represent the remains of living organisms
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40. A particle moves in a straight line such that s = √t (where s is distance and t is time) then the acceleration of the particle is always
(A) negative
(B) positive
(C) zero
(D) can not be found
41. A person covers half of his journey at a speed of 40 m/sec and the other half at a speed of 50 m/sec. His average speed during the whole journey is about
(A) 15 m/sec
(B) 45 m/sec
(C) 75 m/sec
(D) 90 m/sec
42. Two particles move in concentric circles of radii r1 and r2 such that they maintain a straight line with the centre. The ratio of their angular velocities is
(A) 1
(B) r1 + r2
(C) r1/r2
(D) r2/r1
43. When we kick a stone, we get hurt. Due to which one of the following properties does it happen?
(A) inertia
(B) momentum
(C) reaction
(D) velocity
44. The slope of the velocity – time graph for retarded motion is
(A) zero
(B) positive
(C) negative
(D) neutral
45. If the kinetic energy of a particle increases by 44%, then the increase in its momentum will be
(A) 12%
(B) 20%
(C) 33%
(D) 44%
46. Newton’s law of gravitation is valid
(A) only for charged bodies
(B) all bodies
(C) only heavenly bodies
(D) only for small bodies
47. When two bodies collide elastically then the quantity conserved is
(A) kinetic energy
(B) momentum
(C) potential energy
(D) both kinetic energy and momentum
48. The heart of a man pumps 4000 cc blood per minute at 120 mm of Hg. The power of the pump (heart) is
(A) 0.98 W
(B) 1.08 W
(C) 1.18 W
(D) 1.28 W
49. The gravitational force on earth on a ball of mass one kilogram is 9.8 N. The attraction of ball on the earth is
(A) more than 9.8 N
(B) negligible
(C) 9.8 N
(D) slightly less than 9.8 N
50. Which one of the following instruments is used to measure the pressure ?
(A) Ammeter
(B) Manometer
(C) Lactometer
(D) Picometer
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51. Which has a greater buoyant force acting on it, a floating 100 lb piece of wood, or a floating 50 lb piece of wood?
(A) the 100 lb piece of wood.
(B) the 50 lb piece of wood.
(C) since both pieces of wood are floating, they experience the same buoyant force.
(D) there is not enough information.
52. A stationary wave is produced in a string of length 1.25 meters. If three nodes and two antinodes are produced in the string, then the wavelength of the wave is
(A) 2.50 meters
(B) 3.75 meters
(C) 5.00 meters
(D) 1.25 meters
53. An echo will be heard if the
(A) time interval between original sound and reflected sound is more than 1/10 s
(B) time interval between original sound and reflected sound is less than 1/10 s
(C) time interval between original sound and reflected sound is more than 1/120 s
(D) time interval between original sound and reflected sound is less than 1/120 s
54. The method of detecting the presence, position and direction of motion of distant objects by reflecting a beam of sound waves is known as
(A) RADAR
(B) SONAR
(C) MIR
(D) CRO
55. Which state consists of super energetic and super excited particles?
(A) Liquid
(B) Gas
(C) Plasma
(D) Bose-Einstein Condensate
56. According to Henry’s law
(A) doubling the partial pressure doubles the solubility
(B) doubling the partial pressure triples the solubility
(C) doubling the partial pressure decreases the solubility
(D) doubling the partial pressure does not affect the solubility
57. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of
(A) Critical miscelle concentration
(B) Oxidation number
(C) Coagulation value
(D) Gold number
58. Atoms having same number of neutrons but different mass number are called
(A) isotopes
(B) isobars
(C) isotones
(D) isotherms
59. Which of the following has largest negative electron affinity?
(A) F
(B) Cl
(C) Br
(D) I
60. The family of element with the highest ionisation enthalpy:
(A) Alkali metals
(B) Alkaline earth metals
(C) Halogens
(D) Noble gases
61. Which of the following has coordination bond?
(A) N2
(B) CaCl2
(C) O3
(D) H2O
62. What will be the pH at 25oC containing 0.10 M CH3COONa and 0.03 M CH3COOH. pKa for CH3COOH = 4.57.
(A) 4.87
(B) 3.33
(C) 5.09
(D) 4.05
63. The function of alum used for the purification of water is to
(A) coagulate the sol particles
(B) disperse the sol particles
(C) emulsify the sol particles
(D) absorb the sol particles
64. Which one of the following is metal?
(A) C
(B) N
(C) Na
(D) O
65. Which non-metal is found in liquid state at room temperature?
(A) Mercury
(B) Zinc
(C) Iodine
(D) Bromine
66. Oxides of non metals are _______ in nature.
(A) Basic
(B) Acidic
(C) Neutral
(D) Amphoteric
67. Which gas are produced when metal react with acids ?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
68. Which of the following can be shown to be both a Bronsted acid and a Bronsted base?
(A) O-2
(B) HSO4-1
(C) PO4-3
(D) CN-1
69. An example of an emulsifying agent would be_________.
(A) Oil
(B) Soap
(C) Water
(D) Salt
70. Which is not an organic compound ?
(A) methanol
(B) acetonitrile
(C) sodium cyanide
(D) phenol
71. In benzene, each carbon atoms undergoes
(A) sp
(B) sp2
(C) sp3
(D) sp2 and sp3 hybridisation
72. The shortest C-C bond distance is found in:
(A) ethane
(B) ethene
(C) ethyne
(D) diamond
73. Propene reacts with HBr in presence of organic peroxide to form:
(A) 1-Bromopropane
(B) 2-Bromopropane
(C) 3-Bromopropane
(D) 2-Bromopropene
74. The strongest acid among the following is:
(A) C2H6
(B) C3H8
(C) C2H4
(D) C2H2
75. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is
(A) Benzoic acid
(B) Acetophenone
(C) Benzophenone
(D) Benzyl alcohol
76. Which acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic rubber?
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Formic acid
(C) Carbonic acid
(D) Benzoic acid
77. Not a characteristic property of ceramic material
(A) high temperature stability
(B) high mechanical strength
(C) low elongation
(D) low hardness
78. Increasing concentration of CO2 in atmosphere is responsible for:
(A) acid rain
(B) greenhouse effect
(C) lack of photosynthesis
(D) death of aquatic life
79. The coating on modern non- stick cookware and electric iron is of
(A) Terrycot
(B) Rayon
(C) Polyester
(D) Teflon
80. For corrosion of iron to take place
(A) Presence of moisture is sufficient
(B) Presence of moisture and oxygen is essential
(C) Hydrogen is required
(D) A strong acid is necessary
ANSWER KEY |
|||||||
| Q.No. |
Ans. |
Q.No. |
Ans. |
Q.No. |
Ans. |
Q.No. |
Ans. |
| 1 |
C |
21 |
A |
41 |
B |
61 |
C |
| 2 |
B |
22 |
B |
42 |
A |
62 |
C |
| 3 |
A |
23 |
D |
43 |
C |
63 |
A |
| 4 |
D |
24 |
D |
44 |
C |
64 |
C |
| 5 |
B |
25 |
B |
45 |
B |
65 |
D |
| 6 |
C |
26 |
D |
46 |
B |
66 |
B |
| 7 |
A |
27 |
C |
47 |
D |
67 |
C |
| 8 |
B |
28 |
D |
48 |
B |
68 |
B |
| 9 |
C |
29 |
A |
49 |
C |
69 |
B |
| 10 |
D |
30 |
C |
50 |
B |
70 |
C |
| 11 |
B |
31 |
C |
51 |
A |
71 |
B |
| 12 |
A |
32 |
D |
52 |
D |
72 |
C |
| 13 |
C |
33 |
C |
53 |
A |
73 |
A |
| 14 |
D |
34 |
B |
54 |
B |
74 |
D |
| 15 |
B |
35 |
C |
55 |
C |
75 |
A |
| 16 |
A |
36 |
C |
56 |
A |
76 |
A |
| 17 |
C |
37 |
A |
57 |
D |
77 |
D |
| 18 |
D |
38 |
C |
58 |
C |
78 |
B |
| 19 |
B |
39 |
D |
59 |
B |
79 |
D |
| 20 |
C |
40 |
A |
60 |
D |
80 |
B |
Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting the Math Paper of KVS TGT 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT 2018 Exam.
