IBPS PO 2018 Prelims (Quantitative Aptitude): 35 Most Important Questions with Solutions

Most important questions of quantitative aptitude for IBPS PO Prelims 2018 are available here the form of a mock test (35 Questions). These questions are based on important topics of IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude syllabus and there is a high that these questions are being asked in the preliminary exam of IBPS PO.

Important topics for preliminary exam of IBPS PO are: Permutation & Combination, Probability, Simplification, Profit and Loss, Mixture and Alligations, Simple Interest & Compound Interest & Surds & Indices, Work & Time, Time & Distance, Mensuration – Cylinder, Cone, Sphere, Data Interpretation, Ratio & Proportion, Percentage, Number Systems, Sequence & Series. Multiple choice questions from these topics have been frequently asked in IBPS PO exams.

As per latest exam pattern of IBPS PO Prelims exam, there will be three sections (English Language, Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude). You can learn about the complete exam pattern from this article.

35 questions will be asked in Quantitative Aptitude section and candidates need to solve 35 questions in 20 minutes. But candidates need to solve these questions in less than 20 minutes, as this will enhance their speed. Detailed explanations for all the questions all questions are given at the end.

Important questions on Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS PO Prelims 2018 are given below:

Direction (1-5): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

a) 230

b) 240

c) 235

d) 220

e) None of these

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a) 8.83

b) 1.54

c) 9.32

d) 1.89

e) None of these

a) 2.1

b) 3.8

c) 5.9

d) 4.7

e) None of these

a) 21/105 

b) 8/105     

c) 25/105 

d) 1313/105     

e) 35/105

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a) 41/5

b) 20/3

c) 23/7

d) 81/4

e) None of these

Directions (6 – 10): In the following given number series, what will come in place of question mark?

6. 402, 1115, 2541, 4680,?

a) 6666

b) 7532

c) 7436

d) 7246

e) None of these

7. 18900, 4200, 1200, 480,?

a) 180

b) 220

c) 320

d) 310

e) None of these

8. 65536, 256, ?, 4, 2

a) 24

b) 32

c) 64

d) 16

e) None of these

9. 24, 100, 404, 1620,  ?

a) 6484

b) 6845

c) 6248

d) 5890

e) None of these

10. 1, 27,125, 343,? , 1331

a) 512

b) 729

c) 1000

d) 1045

e) None of these

11. Two candidates participate in election. 10% votes did not cast their vote and 20% votes found invalid. Winner candidate got 75% of the valid votes and won by 10800 votes. Find the total number of votes?

a) 27750

b) 26500

c) 30,000

d) 29000

e) None of these

12. A trader uses a weighing balance that shows 1250 gram for a kilogram. He further marks-up his cost price by 30%. What is the profit percentage?

a) 5%

b) 50%

c) 45%

d) 30%

e) None of these

13. A bag contains Rs 1800 in the form of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio 3: 4: 12. Find the number of 50 paise coins?

a) 1000

b) 900

c) 1200

d) 1400

e) None of these

14. Taxi start from a metro station with a speed of 20 km/hr at intervals of 10 minutes. What is the speed of a man coming from the opposite direction towards the metro station if he meets the taxis at intervals of 8 minutes?

a) 3 km/hr

b) 4 km/hr

c) 5 km/hr

d) 7 km/hr

e) None of these

15. A boat speeds 1 and a half hours down the stream and 2 and a half hours up the stream of 30 km. What is the speed of the water current in kmph?

a) 5 kmph

b) 20 kmph

c) 12 kmph

d) 4 kmph

16. A tap can fill an empty tank in 12 hours and another tap can empty half the tank in 10 hours. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, how long would it take for empty tank to be filled to its capacity?

a) 30 hours

b) 20 hours

c) 15 hours

d) 12 hours

e) None of these

17. P is twice as fast runner as Q and Q is thrice as fast runner as R, If R travelled a distance in 1 hour 54 minutes, the time taken in 1 hour 54 minutes, the time taken by Q to cover the same distance is

a) 19 minutes

b) 38 minutes

c) 51 minutes

d) 57 minutes

e) None of these

18.  If we draw 2 cards from a pack of 52 cards then what will be the probability that one of them is a king and other a queen?

19. A certain sum yields Rs 10110 in 6 years and Rs 6740 in 3 years on compound interest. What is the sum?

a) Rs 4500

b) Rs 4493

c) Rs 4490

d) Rs 4498

e) None of these

20. Find SI on Rs. 3000 at 18% p.a. for the period 5 February 2013 to 18 April 2013, both days inclusive.

a) Rs. 108

b) Rs. 439

c) Rs. 180

d) Rs. 240

e) None of these

Directions (21 -25): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

Directions (26-30): Study the following graph and answer the following questions:

26. If the investment of Company A is 200 Crores, then the investment of C and E together is:

a) 205 Crores

b) 195 Crores

c) 206 Crores

d) 210 Crores

e) None of these

27. What percentage of investment is coming from either Companies E or F?

a) 3%

b) 7%

c) 10%

d) 4%

e) None of these

28. If the total investment other than Companies A and C is Rs 2750 Crores, what is the investment of Companies D and E?

a) 77 Crores

b) 154 Crores

c) 1375 Crores

d) 995 Crores

e) None of these

29. What is the ratio of the investments of companies E to D?

a) 5:1

b) 3:5

c) 7:3

d) 1:5

e) None of these

30. How much degrees are the central angle of Companies B and D together?

a) 90

b) 36

c) 64

d) 12

e) None of these

Directions (31-35): Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow. 

Number of candidates (in thousands) qualified in the written test for promotion to two different Companies

31. What was the respective ratio between the number of candidates qualified in the written test in the year 2002 for promotion in ITC group and the number of candidates qualified in the written test in the year 2006 for promotion to Tata group?

a) 8 : 7 

b) 7 : 9

c) 7 : 8

d) 7 : 10

e) 8 : 3 

32. What was the approximate average number of candidates qualified in the written test for promotion to ITC group over all the year? 

a) 4567

b) 4267

c) 4167

d) 4867

e) 4667

33. In which year, the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for promotion to both the companies together was the highest? 

a) 2003

b) 2004

c) 2005

d) 2006

e) None of these

34. What is the difference between the total number of candidates qualified in written test in the year 2006 for promotion to both companies together and the number of candidates qualified in written test in the year 2003 for promotion to ITC group?

a) 5000

b) 3000

c) 2500

d) 5500

e) None of the above 

35. What was the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for promotion to Tata group over all the years together except 2007?

a) 22500

b) 26500

c) 26500

d) 27500

e) None of the above

Solution1.

Answer (b)

Explanation:

Solution2.

Answer (d)

Explanation:

21^5.36–3.47 = 21(?)

21^1.89 = 21?

∴    ? = 1.89

Solution3.

Answer (c)

Explanation:

8^1.3 × 4^0.6 × 16^0.2

= 2^3(1.3) × 2^2(0.6) × 2^4(0.2)

= 2^{(3.9+1.2+0.8)} =  2^5.9

= ? = 5.9

Solution4.

Answer (d)

Explanation:

11/7 + 22/3 + 18/5 = 1313/105

Solution5.

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Solution6.

Answer (b) Explanation: 402 + 713 =1115

1115 + (2 × 713) = 2541

2541 + (3 × 713) = 4680

4680 + (4 × 713) = 7532

Solution7.

Answer (c)

Explanation: Each previous term is divided in the series (4.5, 3.5, 2.5.1.5) to get next term.

Solution8.

Answer (d)

Explanation: From the right hand side, each next term is square of the first term.

Solution9.

Answer (a)

Explanation: 5 × 4 + 4 = 24

24 × 4 + 4 = 100

100 × 4 + 4 = 404

404 × 4 + 4 = 1620

1620 × 4 + 4 = 6484

Solution10.

Answer (b)

Explanation: Each next term, is the cube of consecutive odd numbers starting from 1. The term in place of question mark is 729.

Solution11.

Answer (C)

Explanation: Total no. of votes = 100%

Votes not cast = 10%

Invalid votes = 20%

Valid votes = 90/100 × 80 = 72%

Votes received by winner = 72 × 75/100 = 54%

Votes received by Loser = 72 – 54 = 18%

So, difference = 36% votes =  10800

100% = 10800/36 × 100 = 30,000 votes.

Solution12.

Answer (b)

Explanation:  Let the cost price of one gram be Re. 1, then the mark up price be Rs. 1.3 per gram.

Now he sells 1000 gram  which seems to be 1250 g which seems to be 1250 g so he charges to a customer 1250 × 1.3 = Rs. 1625 for 1000 g (or Rs. 1000)

Solution13.

Answer (b)

Explanation: Ratio of values of 1 rupee , 50 paise and 25 paise coin is 3/1:4/2:12/4 i. e , 3: 2 : 3 Therefore 3x+2x+3x= 1800

8x = 1800

X= 225.

Value of 50 paise coin = 2 × 225 = 450.

And the number of 50 paise coin s = 450 × 2 = 900.

Solution14.

Answer (c) Explanation: Distance covered in 10 minutes at 20 kmph = distance covered in 8 minutes at (20+x) kmph

20× 10/60 = 8/60(20 + x)

200 = 160 + 8x

8x = 40

x = 40/8 = 5 kmph

Solution15.

Answer (d) Explanation:

Speed upstream= 30* 2/5 (Distance/Time) =12 kmph

Speed downstream= 30* 2/3  =20 kmph

Speed of water current= 1/2*(Downstream speed - Upstream Speed)

=1/2*(20 - 12)  = 4 kmph

Solution16.

Answer (C) Explanation: Post of the tank filled in 1 hour

Tank will be filled in 15 hrs.

Solution17.

Answer (b) Explanation:  Ratio of the speeds of P and Q.

= P : Q = 2 : 1 = 6 : 3

Q : R = 3 : 1

P : Q : R = 6 : 3 : 1

Ratio of their time taken

1/6 : 1/3 : 1

∴ Time taken by Q

6/2 × 114 minutes

= 38 minutes.

Solution18.

Answer (d)

Explanation: Total number of ways of drawing 2 cards from a pack of 52 cards = 52C₂ = 52×51 / 1×2 = 26×51

As there are 4 king so number of ways of drawing 1 king from 4 = 4C₁= 4

Also there are 4 queens so number of ways of drawing 1 queen from 4 = 4C₁ = 4

Now the required probability that one of them is king and other a queen = 4×4 / 26×51 = 8/663

Solution19.

Answer (b)

Explanation:

Let P be the sum to be found.

In 3 years, P(1 + r/100)³= 6740 ------ (1)

And, In 6 years, P(1 + r/100)⁶= 10110------ (2)

Dividing both, we get,

(1 + r/100)³ = 10110/6740 = 3/2

Substituting this value in – (1)

P×(3/2) = 6740

P = 4493.33

Solution20.

Answer (a)

Explanation:

Solution21.

Answer (b)

Explanation:

Solution22.

Answer (c)

Explanation:

Solution23.

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Solution24.

Answer (a)

Explanation:

Solution25.

Answer (b)

Explanation:

Solution26.

Answer (c)

Explanation: Investments of C and E = 34 × (200/33) = 206 Crores

Solution27.

Answer (c)

Explanation:  Investment from Companies E and F is 3% + 7%= 10%

Solution28.

Answer (c)

Explanation: Investments other than A and C= 100-64= 36%

Investments by D and E = 18%

So, Investment by D and E = 18 × (2750/36)=1375 Crores

Solution29.

Answer (d)

Explanation: Ratio of investments of Companies E to D is 3:15 or 1:5.

Solution30.

Answer (a)

Explanation: Each percentage covers 3.6 degrees (360/100).

Percentage of investment of B and d together is 25

So 25 X 3.6= 90 degrees.

Solution31.

Answer (c)

Explanation: Number of employees qualified in the written test 

In the year 1992 for promotion in ITC group= 3500 

Number of employees qualified in the written test 

In the year 1996 for promotion in Tata group = 4000

Required ratio = 3500/4000=7/8=7∶8

Solution32.

Answer (e)

Explanation: Average number of candidates 

(3500+4000+4000+5500+5000+6000)/6

=28000/6≈4667

Solution33.

Answer (e)

Explanation: Number of employees in 

2002 is 2000 + 3500 = 5500

2003 is 3500 + 4000 = 7500

2004 is 5000 + 4000 = 9000

2005 is 6000 + 5500 = 11500

2006 is 4000 + 5000 = 9000

2007 is 6500 + 6000 = 12500

Hence, 2007 year was the highest amongst all.

Solution34.

Answer (a)

Explanation: Required difference 

= (4000 + 5000) – 4000 = 5000

Solution35.

Answer (e)

Explanation: Required number of candidates 

(2 + 3.5 + 5 + 6 + 4) × 1000   = 20500.