UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Management Previous Year Paper with Answers

Dec 14, 2018 16:02 IST
    UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Management Previous Year Paper with Answers
    UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Management Previous Year Paper with Answers

    For cracking NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Management Previous Year Paper held on 8th July, 2018 alongwith their answers.

    UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Management Previous Year Paper with Answers

    1. From the following determinants of the price elasticity of demand, indicate the correct code for the determinants having a positive relationship with the degree of the price elasticity of demand:

    (a) Range of substitutes of the commodity

    (b) Extent of the different uses of the commodity

    (c) Portion of the income of the buyer spent on the commodity

    (d) Income group of buyers purchasing the commodity

    Code:

    (1) (a) and (b) only

    (2) (c) and (d) only

    (3) (a), (b) and (c) only

    (4) (b), (c) and (d) only

    2. Match the items given in List - I with those given in the List - II and suggest the correct code:

    List - I

    List - II

    (a) Marginal Productivity/Average Productivity

    (b) Substitutability of inputs

    (c) Constant Negative Slope

    (d) Convex to origin

    (i) Isoquant curve

    (ii) Isocost line

    (iii) Production Function

    (iv) Elasticity of Production

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (2) (ii)    (i)            (iv)         (iii)

    (3) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)           (i)

    (4) (iii)   (iv)         (i)            (ii)

    3. From the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) suggest the correct code:

    Assertion (A): The equilibrium price is decided at the level where the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

    Reasoning (R): At this level excess of demand and excess of supply both remain zero.

    Code:

    (1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    (2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

    (3) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

    (4) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

    4. Despite differences in cost of production the oligopolists will not vary the prices of their products as per which combination of the following models?

    (a) Collusion model

    (b) Cournot’s model

    (c) Kinked Demand model

    (d) Price Leadership model

    Select the correct code.

    (1) (a) and (b) only

    (2) (c) and (d) only

    (3) (a) and (d) only

    (4) (a), (b) and (c) only

    5. For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) suggest the correct code:

    Assertion (A): Low initial price regarded as the principal means for entering into mass market for some new products.

    Reasoning (R): Firms generally enter into production of new products with excess capacity of the plant initially.

    Code:

    (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

    (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

    (3) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

    (4) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

    6. The firm may go for defensive advertising as per which one of the following approaches?

    (1) Percentage to sales approach

    (2) Return on investment approach

    (3) Competitive parity approach

    (4) Objective and task approach

    7. Indicate the correct code from the following that does not represent the Profitability Index for an investment proposal of a firm:

    (a) Average annual net income earned divided by the investment

    (b) Equating annual net cash inflows to investment

    (c) Ratio of present value of future cash inflows to investment making it equal to zero

    (d) Ratio of present value of future cash inflows to present cash outflows

    Code:

    (1) (a), (b) and (c) only

    (2) (a) and (c) only

    (3) (b) and (d) only

    (4) (a), (b) and (d) only

    8. Match the items of List II with the items of List I and indicate the code of correct matching.

    List I

    List II

    (a) Organisation Man

    (b) Self-actualising Man

    (c) Complex Man

    (d) Rational-Economic Man

    (i) Maximising self interest.

    (ii) Using capabilities to develop a sense of creating certain things.

    (iii) Sacrificing individuality for the sake of group.

    (iv) Understanding human needs may not be the final step in understanding human behaviour.

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (i)            (iii)          (ii)

    (2) (iii)   (ii)           (iv)         (i)

    (3) (i)     (iv)         (ii)           (iii)

    (4) (ii)    (i)            (iv)         (iii)

    9. Who proposed the Balance Theory of attitude formation?

    (1) Festinger

    (2) Fritz Heider

    (3) Charles Osgood and Percy Tannenbaum

    (4) Rosenberg

    10. Which one of the following is an element of motivation according to Vroom’s Vector Valence theory?

    (1) Involvement

    (2) Equity

    (3) Instrumentality

    (4) Existence

    11. Which one of the following is not a component of Bass’ Theory of Transformational Leadership?

    (1) Idealized influence

    (2) Inspirational motivation

    (3) Intellectual stimulation

    (4) Team consideration

    12. Assertion (A): Under stressful situations, a person is unable to listen to and understand the message correctly.

    Reasoning (R): During stressful situations, the psychological frame of mind changes and the message gets distorted due to the beliefs, experiences, goals and values held by the receiver of the message.

    Code:

    (1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    (2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is correct whereas (R) is incorrect.

    (4) (R) is correct whereas (A) is incorrect.

    13. Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and suggest the correct code:

    List-I (Source of resistance)

    List-II (Coping mechanisms)

    (a) Perceived peripherality of change

    (b) Fear of loss of power

    (c) Fear of obsolescence

    (d) Fear of imposition

    (i) Role redefinition and re-orientation

    (ii) Participation and involvement

    (iii) Participation in diagnosis

    (iv) Development of skills

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (i)            (iii)          (ii)

    (2) (ii)    (i)            (iv)         (iii)

    (3) (iii)   (i)            (iv)         (ii)

    (4) (i)     (iii)          (iv)         (ii)

    14. Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and indicate the code of correct matching.

    List-I (Model of Organisational Behaviour)

    List-II (Employee Orientation)

    (a) Autocratic

    (b) Custodial

    (c) Supportive

    (d) Collegial

    (i) Responsible behaviour

    (ii) Security and benefits

    (iii) Job performance

    (iv) Obedience

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (ii)           (iii)          (i)

    (2) (iv)   (iii)          (i)            (ii)

    (3) (i)     (iv)         (iii)          (ii)

    (4) (iv)   (i)            (ii)           (iii)

    15. Which one of the following types of strike is without the consent of official of union?

    (1) Jurisdictional strike

    (2) Wild cat strike

    (3) Sympathy strike

    (4) Slow down strike

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    16. Which one of the following describes the metamorphosis stage of employee socialisation?

    (1) Employee joins organisation with his values, attitudes and expectations.

    (2) Employee studies the organisation culture.

    (3) Employee evaluates the dichotomy between expectations and reality.

    (4) Employee becomes comfortable with organisation and internalises its norms.

    17. When employees work longer days in exchange for longer weekends or other days off, it is called:

    (1) Flexy time

    (2) Job sharing

    (3) Compressed work week

    (4) Extended timing

    18. ‘Employee relations’ include which of the following?

    (a) Organisation’s efforts to manage relationships between employer and employees.

    (b) The programs to prevent and resolve problems arising from work situations.

    (c) Relations between management and trade unions.

    (d) Organisation’s structure of managing rapport between boss and staff.

    Code:

    (1) (a) and (c)

    (2) (a), (b) and (d)

    (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) only

    19. In which of the following, the payment of bonus is linked to performance of specific employees or group of employees?

    (a) Profit sharing

    (b) Gain sharing plans

    (c) Social system plans

    Code:

    (1) (a) only

    (2) (b) only

    (3) Both (a) and (b)

    (4) (a), (b) and (c)

    20. Which one of the following is a contract made through collusion between management and labour representatives and contains terms beneficial to management and unfavourable to union workers?

    (1) Unilateral contract

    (2) Aleatory contract

    (3) Sweetheart contract

    (4) Invalid contract

    21. When an employee is willing to go above and beyond what is typically expected in his or her role, it is known as:

    (1) Employee Empowerment

    (2) Employee Engagement

    (3) Employee Enhancement

    (4) Employee Encouragement

    22. Indicate the correct code for the following types of decisions to be incorporated within financial decisions.

    (a) Investment decisions

    (b) Financing decisions

    (c) Pricing decisions

    (d) Profit distribution decisions

    Code:

    (1) (a) and (b) only

    (2) (a), (b) and (c) only

    (3) (a), (b) and (d) only

    (4) (b), (c) and (d) only

    23. In case the profitability index of an investment is equal to one(=1), the net present value of the investment will be:

    (1) More than one (>1)

    (2) Equal to one (=1)

    (3) Less than one (<1)

    (4) Equal to zero (=0)

    24. For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) select the correct code:

    Assertion (A): Risk analysis of capital investment is the most complex and controversial area in finance.

    Reasoning (R): Capital investment decisions are based on estimates of future cash inflows.

    Code:

    (1) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

    (2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    (3) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

    (4) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

    25. Acquisition of firms is the same as:

    (a) a merger

    (b) an amalgamation

    (c) a takeover

    (d) an absorption

    Select the correct code.

    (1) (a), (b) and (c) only

    (2) (b), (c) and (d) only

    (3) (a) and (b) only

    (4) (c) and (d) only

    26. M-M Hypothesis for capital structure is based on which code of the following assumptions?

    (a) Capital markets are perfect

    (b) Firms belong to equal risk class

    (c) There is 100% dividend payout ratio

    (d) There are nominal corporate taxes

    Select the correct code.

    (1) (a) and (b) only

    (2) (a), (b) and (c) only

    (3) (b), (c) and (d) only

    (4) (a), (b) and (d) only

    27. The formula   (Where P0 is market price of shares, E is earning per share, D is dividend per share, R is rate of Return and K is cost of equity) for determining the dividend of the firm has been given by:

    (1) Myron Gordon

    (2) James E Walter

    (3) Modigliani - Miller

    (4) David Durrand

    28. Indicate the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion (A) and

    Reasoning (R):

    Assertion (A): Invertors in capital market now have higher inclination for investment in debentures.

    Reasoning (R): Debentures have active secondary markets now.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

    29. Which one of the following expresses the tendency of consumers to interpret information in a way that fits one’s preconceptions in the consumer buying behaviour?

    (1) Selective Attention

    (2) Selective Distortion

    (3) Selective Retention

    (4) Subliminal Perception

    30. Which one of the following is not a factor that reduces price sensitivity of a product?

    (1) The product is more distinctive.

    (2) Buyers are fully aware of substitutes.

    (3) Buyers cannot store the product.

    (4) The product is assumed to have more quality, prestige, or exclusiveness.

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    31. Attributes or benefits that consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand is known as:

    (1) Competitive points-of-parity

    (2) Relational points-of-parity

    (3) Correlational points-of-parity

    (4) Points-of-difference

    32. Which one of the following represents ‘Penetrated market’?

    (1) The part of the qualified available market the company decides to pursue.

    (2) The set of consumers who are buying the company’s product.

    (3) The set of consumers who have interest, income, and access to a particular offer.

    (4) The set of consumers with a sufficient level of interest in a market offer.

    33. Match the items of List - II with the items of List - I and suggest the correct code:

    List - I (Components of holistic marketing)

    List - II (Key constituent / Dimension)

    (a) Internal marketing

    (b) Performance marketing

    (c) Integrated marketing

    (d) Relationship marketing

    (i) Brand and customer equity

    (ii) Stakeholder

    (iii) Marketing department

    (iv) Communications

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iii)   (i)            (iv)          (ii)

    (2) (iii)   (ii)           (i)            (iv)

    (3) (ii)    (i)            (iii)          (iv)

    (4) (i)     (iii)          (iv)          (ii)

    34. Match the items of List - II with the items of List - I and suggest the correct code:

    List - I

    List – II

    (a) Style

    (b) Fashion

    (c) Fad

    (i) That comes quickly into public view, are adopted with great zeal, peak early, and decline very fast.

    (ii) Basic and distinctive mode of expression appearing in a field of human endeavour.

    (iii) Currently accepted or popular style in a given field.

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)

    (1) (ii)    (iii)          (i)

    (2) (iii)   (i)            (ii)

    (3) (i)     (ii)           (iii)

    (4) (ii)    (i)            (iii)

    35. The following are the statements relating to the new product development. Indicate the statements being correct or incorrect.

    Statement (I): Most established companies do not focus on incremental innovation for new product development.

    Statement (II): Most established companies enter new markets by tweaking products for new customers.

    Code:

    (1) Both the statements are correct.

    (2) Both the statements are incorrect.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

    (4) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

    36. Match the items of List II with List I and select the correct code:

    List I

    List II

    (a) H.M.L. classification

    (b) V.E.D. classification

    (c) SDE classification

    (d) FSN classification

    (i) To determine the criticality of an item and its effect on production and other services. It is specially used for classification of spare parts.

    (ii) Based on the pattern of issues from stores and is useful in controlling obsolescence and helpful in identifying active items and surplus items.

    (iii) The classification unit value is the criterion and not the annual consumption.

    (iv) Based on problems faced in procurements, availability of items and useful in the context of scarcity of supply.

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (ii)    (iii)          (iv)           (i)

    (2) (iv)   (i)            (ii)           (iii)

    (3) (ii)    (iv)          (i)            (iii)

    (4) (iii)   (i)            (iv)          (ii)

    37. Statement (I): The critical path has been defined as the longest duration path between the first and the last nodes of a project.

    Statement (II): The duration of a project is not always the same as the duration of its critical path.

    Statement (III): The Earliest start and finish times of an activity are based on the condition that every activity will not be started and finished as early as possible.

    Find the correct code for given statements being correct or incorrect.

    (1) Statement (I) and (II) are correct but (III) is not correct.

    (2) Statement (I) and (III) are correct but (II) is not correct.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct but (II) and (III) are not correct.

    (4) Statement (II) is correct but (I) and (III) are not correct.

    38. Statement (I): Internal failure costs are generated after the product is dispatched as a result of non-performance to requirements.

    Statement (II): External failure costs are generated before the product is dispatched as a result of non-conformance to requirements.

    Which of the following code is correct related to above statements being correct or incorrect?

    (1) Both Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

    (2) Both Statements (I) and (II) are not correct.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

    (4) Statement (II) is correct but (I) is not correct.

    39. Which of the following code is correct for the given statements being correct or incorrect?

    Statement (I): Method analysis is a technique in job design in which job is considered as a whole.

    Statement (II): Principles of motion economy aim at minimizing the fatigue of workers due to repetitive motion of the different parts of body.

    Statement (III): Work sampling is a method used to determine the idle time of machine or workers as a whole during the day.

    Code:

    (1) Statement (I) and (III) are not correct but Statement (II) is correct.

    (2) Statement (I) and (II) are not correct but Statement (III) is correct.

    (3) Statement (II) and (III) are not correct but (I) is correct.

    (4) Statement (I), (II) and (III) all are correct

    40. ‘Just In Time’ originally developed in 1970s by a Japanese company was initially known as:

    (1) Honda Manufacturing system

    (2) Isuzu Manufacturing system

    (3) Mitsubishi Manufacturing system

    (4) Toyota Manufacturing system

    41. Match the items of List - II with List - I to find the correct code:

    List – I

    List - II

    (a) Technological Processes

    (b) Facilities

    (c) Personnel Estimates

    (d) Vertical Integration Studies

    (i) Building Design, Facility Layout

    (ii) Vendor Capabilities, Acquisition Decision

    (iii) Process Design, Process Linkage

    (iv) Skill Requirements, Supervision Requirements

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iii)   (i)            (iv)         (ii)

    (2) (i)     (iii)          (iv)         (ii)

    (3) (ii)    (i)            (iv)         (iii)

    (4) (i)     (iii)          (ii)           (iv)

    42. Following statements are given for plant location strategies:

    Statement (I): White goods manufacturing companies have separate plants for colour TVs, washing machines, microwave ovens, etc.; for avoiding confusion and bringing about economies of scale.

    Statement (II): Pepsi and Coke have bottling plants scattered all over the country which cater to different regions to avoid confusion at the main manufacturing set-up rather than reducing overall transportation costs and the lead time for supplying goods in the markets.

    Find the correct code of the above statements being correct or incorrect.

    (1) Statement (I) is not correct but (II) is correct.

    (2) Statements (I) and (II) both are correct.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

    (4) Statements (I) and (II) both are not correct.

    43. The following are the two statements relating to the theory of probability. Indicate the statements being correct or incorrect.

    Statement (I): The probability of the joint occurrence of independent events A and B is equal to the probability of A multiplied by the probability of B or vice versa.

    Statement (II): The probability of the joint occurrence of independent event A and dependent event B is equal to the probability of event A multiplied by the conditional probability of B when A has occurred or vice versa.

    Code:

    (1) Both the statements are correct.

    (2) Both the statements are incorrect.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

    (4) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

    44. Which one of the following possibilities leads to Type I error in hypothesis testing?

    (1) The hypothesis is true but our test leads to its rejection.

    (2) The hypothesis is false but our test leads to its acceptance.

    (3) The hypothesis is true and our test leads to its acceptance.

    (4) The hypothesis is false and our test leads to its rejection.

    45. Which one among the following relates to the probability-based sampling technique?

    (1) Quota sampling

    (2) Snow-ball sampling

    (3) Stratified sampling

    (4) Judgement sampling

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    46. Which of the following statements relating to Correlation and Regression are true?

    (a) The Coefficient of Correlation is independent of change of origin and scale.

    (b) The Coefficient of Correlation between the two variables is the arithmetic average of the two Regression Coefficients.

    (c) The probable error of the Coefficient Correlation is 0.6745 times of its standard error.

    (d) Coefficient of Correlation multiplied by the ratio between the standard deviations of the two variables denotes the slope of the regression line.

    Code:

    (1) (a), (b) and (c)

    (2) (a), (c) and (d)

    (3) (b) and (d)

    (4) (b), (c) and (d)

    47. In which one of the following probability distributions, the mean value of the distribution is the sole parameter of the distribution?

    (1) Normal distribution

    (2) Binomial distribution

    (3) Exponential distribution

    (4) Poisson distribution

    48. Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and denote the code of correct matching:

    List – I

    List - II

    (a) Testing the goodness of fit of a distribution

    (b) Testing the significance of the differences among the average performance of more than two sample groups

    (c) Testing the significance of the difference between the average performance of two sample groups (Large-sized)

    (i) Z-test

    (ii) Chi-square test

    (iii) F-test

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)

    (1) (iii)   (i)            (ii)

    (2) (ii)    (iii)          (i)

    (3) (ii)    (i)            (iii)

    (4) (i)     (ii)           (iii)

    49. What is “Block Chain” in the field of information technology?

    (1) Motherboard protection device.

    (2) Protection of details of electronic transaction.

    (3) Taking random snaps of electronic transactions.

    (4) Blocking continuous electronic transactions.

    50. When the organizational requirements advocate tight cost control ; frequent, detailed control reports ; structured organization and  responsibilities and incentives based on meeting strict quantitative targets then it is called:

    (1) Differentiation strategy

    (2) Focus strategy

    (3) Diversification strategy

    (4) Overall cost leadership

    51. Statement (I): Strategic turn around is a more serious form of internal retrenchment and leads to divestment or liquidation.

    Statement (II): Divestment is usually a part of rehabilitation or restructuring plan and is adopted when a turn around has been attempted but has proven to be unsuccessful.

    Statement (III): Combination strategies are the simple solutions that strategists have to offer when faced with the challenges of real life business.

    Select the correct code for above mentioned statements being correct or incorrect.

    (1) Statements (I) and (II) are correct but statement (III) is not correct.

    (2) Statement (II) and (III) are correct but statement (I) is not correct.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct but statements (II) and (III) are not correct.

    (4) Statement (II) is correct but statements (I) and (III) are not correct.

    52. According to Weighted-factor Approach to strategic incentive management, if for any strategic business unit, return on assets is 25%, cash flow is 25%, strategic funds programs (developmental expenses) is 25% and market share increase is also 25%, then this will fall in which category?

    (1) High Growth

    (2) Medium Growth

    (3) Low Growth

    (4) Very High Growth

    53. A concept given for diversified corporations which advocates (a) What businesses should a diversified corporation own and why ; and (b) What organizational structure, management processes, and philosophy will foster superior performance from the corporation’s individual business units, is known as:

    (1) Corporate Portfolio Analysis

    (2) Strategic Alternative Analysis

    (3) Corporate Parenting Analysis

    (4) S.B.U. Analysis

    54. A company in packaged tea business provides special service to its institutional buyers, apart from its consumer sales through market intermediaries, in order to encourage bulk buying and thus improving marketing efficiency, is an example of:

    (1) No change strategy

    (2) Profit strategy

    (3) Stability strategy

    (4) Pause/Proceed-with-caution strategy

    55. Match the items of List II with List I and select the correct code:

    List I

    List II

    (a) Mission

    (b) Vision

    (c) Objectives

    (d) Programs

    (i) Aspiration expressed as strategic intent

    (ii) Activities needed to accomplish plan

    (iii) Accomplishing results at certain time

    (iv) Reason for existence

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (i)            (iii)          (ii)

    (2) (ii)    (iii)          (i)            (iv)

    (3) (iii)   (iv)         (ii)             (i)

    (4) (iv)   (iii)          (i)            (ii)

    56. The willingness to reject unfamiliar as well as negative information is called:

    (1) Marketing Myopia

    (2) Vision Myopia

    (3) Strategic Myopia

    (4) Environmental Myopia

    57. Timely and adequate assistance and rehabilitation efforts to MSEs should begin on a proactive basis when early signs of sickness are detected. This stage is termed as:

    (1) Supporting Stage

    (2) Handholding Stage

    (3) Sustaining Stage

    (4) Recovery Stage

    58. Which one among the following is not a factor external to an entrepreneur?

    (1) Machinery on hire purchase

    (2) Accommodation in industrial estates

    (3) Financial assistance from non-government sources

    (4) Business experience in the same or related line

    59. Assertion (A): When an industrial unit falls sick, those who depend on it have to face an uncertain future.

    Reasoning (R): The sick units continue to operate below the break-even point and are, thus, forced to depend on external sources for funds of their long-term survival.

    Code:

    (1) (A) and (R) both are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

    (3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

    (4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    60. Individuals who are the founders of the business and conceptualize a business plan by putting efforts to make the plan a success are known as:

    (1) Quasi entrepreneurs

    (2) Bold entrepreneurs

    (3) Pure entrepreneurs

    (4) Owner-manager

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    61. Match the items of List (II) with the items of List (I):

    List (I)

    List (II)

    (a) Entrepreneurship is essentially Walker a creative activity.

    (b) An entrepreneur is an organizer and coordinator of various factors of production.

    (c) An entrepreneur is one who always searches for change, responds to it, and exploits it as an opportunity.

    (i) Fransis A.

    (ii) Peter F. Drucker

    (iii) Joseph Schumpeter

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)

    (1) (iii)   (i)            (ii)

    (2) (iii)   (ii)           (i)

    (3) (ii)    (i)           (iii)

    (4) (ii)    (iii)          (i)

    62. In which one of the following years, the Government of India did not bring an Industrial Policy Resolution?

    (1) 1948

    (2) 1956

    (3) 1965

    (4) 1977

    63. Who among the following bridges the gap between inventors and managers?

    (1) Investor

    (2) Entrepreneur

    (3) Industrialist

    (4) Intrapreneur

    64. Which one among the following is not a true statement?

    (1) Accountability and transparency is not visible in less developed countries.

    (2) A disciplined and controlled corporate governance can considerably reduce financial turmoil.

    (3) A good corporate citizenship is a sort of national pride.

    (4) A good corporate governance can considerably reduce corporate frauds.

    65. Ethics are moral principles and values which:

    (1) are legally enforceable

    (2) guide a firm’s behaviour

    (3) provide employees with rules on how to behave

    (4) govern the actions of an individual

    66. Match the items of List-(II) with those of List-(I) ; and choose the correct code of combination:

    List-(I)

    List-(II)

    (a) Procedural Justice

    (b) Commutative Justice

    (c) Communitarian

    (d) Distributive Justice

    (i) Justice to a particular community which has been suffering in the past from injustice.

    (ii) Treat equal people equally and unequal people unequally.

    (iii) Justice is ensured at the beginning and all people are treated Justice equally.

    (iv) Actions performed complying to the law.

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)           (i)

    (2) (iv)   (iii)          (i)            (ii)

    (3) (iv)   (i)            (ii)           (iii)

    (4) (iii)   (i)            (ii)           (iv)

    67. Statement (I): According to Plato, a capitalist system is unjust because of many reasons including distributive injustice.

    Statement (II): Capitalism leads to alienation of workers.

    Code:

    (1) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

    (2) Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

    (3) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

    (4) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

    68. The “Polluters must pay” principle is commonly accepted practice that those who produce pollution should bear the cost of managing it to prevent damage to human health or the environment. This principle was adopted in:

    (1) 1996 Manila Declaration

    (2) 2002 Kyoto Declaration

    (3) 1992 Rio Declaration

    (4) 2007 Paris Declaration

    69. Statement (I): For the improvement in the corporate governance, the Department of Company Affairs (DCA) proposed a code of behaviour for the public sector companies in the year 1998.

    Statement (II): The Clause 49 of SEBI was amended on August 2001, which had made it mandatory for every public company listed on Indian stock exchanges to sign it.

    Code:

    (1) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

    (2) Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

    (3) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

    (4) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

    70. Who among the following has not given a model on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

    (1) Walker

    (2) Friedman

    (3) Ackerman

    (4) Carroll

    71. The following statements relate to Badli workman. Indicate the correct code.

    Statement (I): A ‘Badli Workman’ is employed in an industrial establishment in place of another workman whose name is borne on muster rolls of the establishment.

    Statement (II): A ‘Badli workman’ ceases to be regarded as such if he has completed three month’s service in the establishment.

    Code:

    (1) Statement (I) is right, (II) is wrong.

    (2) Statement (I) is wrong, (II) is right.

    (3) Both the statements are right.

    (4) Both the statements are wrong.

    72. Co-determination is used for:

    (1) Collective bargaining

    (2) Industrial democracy

    (3) Industrial action

    (4) Union leadership

    73. Statement (I): Employee leasing is a contractual arrangement in which the leasing company is called Professional Employer Organisation (PEO).

    Statement (II): In employee leasing contract, the leasing company provides employees for non-specialised areas of work.

    Code:

    (1) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

    (2) Statement (I) is incorrect but (II) is correct.

    (3) Both the statements are correct.

    (4) Both the statements are incorrect.

    74. Who among the following relatives of a deceased insured person is not “dependent” under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?

    (1) Widow

    (2) Widowed mother

    (3) Legitimate son who has attained the age of twenty five

    (4) Widowed daughter-in-law

    75. Assertion (A): One of the trends to build a sustainable competitive advantage are innovations and innovations management.

    Reasoning (R): Human Resource Management has to be able to connect innovations with the traditional change management to design a true powerful weapon against competitors in the market.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    (4) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

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    76. Which of the following is not a principle of ‘Hot Stove Rule’?

    (1) Prior Warning

    (2) Immediate Response

    (3) Consistent Action

    (4) Personal Approach

    77. In India, tripartite bodies of industrial relations began on the recommendations of which one of the following commissions?

    (1) Law Commission of India

    (2) Whitley Commission

    (3) National Statistical Commission

    (4) Kothari Commission

    78. The extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers’ psychological or social needs is known as:

    (1) Brand judgments

    (2) Brand resonance

    (3) Brand imagery

    (4) Brand performance

    79. Which one of the following is an example of ‘Real needs’ of a customer?

    (1) The customer wants an inexpensive mobile phone.

    (2) The customer wants a car whose operating cost, not initial price, is low.

    (3) The customer expects good service from the dealer.

    (4) The customer wants friends to see him as a savvy consumer.

    80. The following statements relate to the functions of the marketing channel members. Indicate the statements being correct or incorrect.

    Statement (I): Channel members do not gather information about potential and current customers, competitors and other actors and forces in the marketing environment.

    Statement (II): Channel members acquire the funds to finance inventories at different levels in the marketing channel.

    Code:

    (1) Both the statements are correct.

    (2) Both the statements are incorrect.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

    (4) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

    81. Which one of the following attributes of advertising regarding launching of a new product calls for spending all the advertising budget in a single period?

    (1) Pulsing

    (2) Continuity

    (3) Concentration

    (4) Flighting

    82. Select the correct code of the Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R):

    Assertion (A): Companies should measure the profitability of their products, territories, customer groups, segments, trade channels and order sizes.

    Reasoning (R): Measure of profitability helps companies determine whether to expand, reduce, or eliminate any product or marketing activities to ensure profitability control.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    (4) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

    83. In which one of the following types of store retailers, large, low-cost, low margin, high-volume, self-service store attributes are designed to meet total needs for food and household products?

    (1) Supermarket

    (2) Superstore

    (3) Discount store

    (4) Convenience store

    84. Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and suggest the correct code:

    List-I (Marketing and Business Practices)

    List-II (Meaning)

    (a) Customer partnering

    (b) Uncovering

    (c) Broadening

    (d) Benchmarking

    (i) Working more closely with customers to add value to their operations.

    (ii) Using data mining and other analytical methods to develop deep insights into customers and how they behave.

    (iii) Studying “best practice companies” to improve performance.

    (iv) Factoring the interests of customers, employees, shareholders, and other stakeholders into the activities of the enterprice.

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (2) (i)     (ii)           (iv)         (iii)

    (3) (iv)   (ii)           (i)            (iii)

    (4) (iv)   (ii)           (iii)          (i)

    85. A firm earns return on investment at the rate of 20% , earning per share is Rs. 15, payout ratio is 50%, cost of equity is 12%; the market price per share as per Walter’s model is:

    (1) Rs. 300

    (2) Rs. 240

    (3) Rs. 75

    (4) Rs. 166.67

    86. Consider the below mentioned statements and state the correct code of the statements being true or false.

    Statement (I): A debt-equity ratio of 2: 1 indicates that for every 1 unit of equity, the company has raised 2 units of debt.

    Statement (II): The cost of floating an equity issue is lesser than the cost of floating a debt

    Code:

    (1) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are false.

    (2) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are true.

    (3) Statement (I) is false and Statement (II) is true.

    (4) Statement (I) is true and Statement (II) is false.

    87. Debt Service Coverage Ratio indicates which one of the following?

    (1) Effective utilisation of assets.

    (2) Number of times fixed assets cover borrowed funds.

    (3) Excess of Current Assets over Current Liabilities.

    (4) Number of times surplus covers interest and instalments of Term Loans.

    88. Authorised capital of a company is Rs. 5 lacs ; 40% of it is paid up. Loss incurred during the year is Rs. 50,000. Accumulated loss carried from last year is Rs. 2 lac. The company has a Tangible Net Worth of:

    (1) Rs. 2 lacs

    (2) Rs. 2.50 lacs

    (3) Rs. (−)50,000

    (4) Rs. 7,50,000

    89. Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and select the correct matching.

    List-I

    List-II

    (a) Liquidity Risk

    (b) Financial Risk

    (c) Exchange Risk

    (d) Default Risk

    (i) Refers to the chance that the firm will be unable to recover its dues from its debtors.

    (ii) Refers to the possibility of adverse effect on firm’s assets, liabilities and income due to movement of interest rates.

    (iii) Refers to the firm’s inability to pay its dues towards creditors.

    (iv) Refers to the inability of the firm to meet its financial obligations on time owing to non-availability of ready cash.

    Code:

         (a)     (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (i)     (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

    (2) (i)     (iii)          (iv)         (ii)

    (3) (iv)   (iii)          (ii)           (i)

    (4) (iv)   (iii)          (i)            (ii)

    90. Which one of the following is related to control function of the financial manager?

    (1) To negotiate with bankers for a loan.

    (2) To analyse variance between standard costs and actual costs.

    (3) To estimate the future cash flows from a proposed project.

    (4) To advertise the public issue of the firm.

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    91. A firm is currently earning Rs. 50,000 and its one share has a present market value of Rs. 175. It has 5,000 shares outstanding. The earnings of the firm is expected to remain stable and it has a payout ratio of 100%. The cost of equity is:

    (1) 10%

    (2) 5.71%

    (3) 100%

    (4) 23.50%

    92. With project cost of Rs. 300 lacs, profits after depreciation (straight line method) and tax for its lifetime of 5 years are estimated at Rs. 10 lacs, Rs. 10 lacs, Rs. 30 lacs, Rs. 40 lacs and Rs. 50 lacs respectively. The cost of capital is 12% and discount factors @ 12%, for the first five years are 0.89, 0.80, 0.71, 0.64 and 0.57 respectively. The Net present value of project is:

    (1) Rs. 8.90 lacs

    (2) Rs. 140 lacs

    (3) Rs. (−)207.70 lacs

    (4) Rs. 308.90 lacs

    93. Match the items of List (II) with those of List (I) and choose the correct code of combination.

    List (I) (Credit Rating Agency)

    List (II) (Year of Establishment)

    (a) CRISIL

    (b) Moody’s Investors Service

    (c) Standard and Poor

    (d) Fitch Ratings

    (i) 1860

    (ii) 1909

    (iii) 1914

    (iv) 1987

    Code:

          (a)    (b)          (c)           (d)

    (1) (iv)   (iii)          (i)            (ii)

    (2) (i)     (iii)          (ii)           (iv)

    (3) (iv)   (ii)           (i)            (iii)

    (4) (ii)    (i)            (iii)          (iv)

    94. Which of the following statements are true? Select the correct code.

    (a) WTO rules are mainly applied to trade in goods but other areas such as services, intellectual property, etc., are not covered by them.

    (b) GATT had contracting parties, whereas WTO has members.

    (c) The dispute settlement system under WTO is much more efficient, speedy and transparent unlike the GATT system which was highly susceptible to blockages.

    Code:

    (1) (a) and (b)

    (2) (b) and (c)

    (3) (a), (b) and (c)

    (4) (a) and (c)

    95. Which trade group, among the following holds ‘Tamil’ as one of its official language?

    (1) ASEAN

    (2) SAARC

    (3) BRICS

    (4) MINT

    96. Assertion (A): The integration of domestic economy through the twin channels of trade and capital flows has accelerated in the past two decades which in turn led the Indian economy growing from Rs. 32 trillion in 2004 to about Rs. 153 trillion by 2016.

    Reasoning (R): The Government of India is keen to grow exports and provide more jobs for the young, talented, well-educated and even semi-skilled and unskilled workforce in India.

    Code:

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

    (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

    (4) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

    97. Which of the following is a benchmarking tool to measure performance along the logistics supply chain among countries?

    (1) Logistics Preparedness Index

    (2) Supply Chain Performance Index

    (3) Logistics Performance Index

    (4) Supply Chain Preparedness Index

    98. Which of the following is/are not true about linear shipping?

    (a) It is used for cargo with higher unit value and manufactured or semi-manufactured goods.

    (b) Its shipping lines offer slower shipping services.

    (c) It operates regularly on a fixed schedule.

    (d) Its document of transport contract is called ‘Charter Party’.

    Code:

    (1) (a) and (c)

    (2) (a), (b) and (d)

    (3) (d) only

    (4) (b) and (d)

    99. The statements relate to International Financial Environment. Denote the code of the statements being correct or incorrect.

    Statement (I): Foreign exchange risk denotes the variance of domestic currency value of assets, liabilities, or operating income attributable to anticipated changes in exchange rates.

    Statement (II): Foreign exchange exposures denote the sensitivity of the real value of assets, liabilities and operating income to unanticipated changes in exchange rates expressed in its functional currency.

    Code:

    (1) Both the statements are correct.

    (2) Both the statements are incorrect.

    (3) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

    (4) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

    100. Which among the following firms having foreign trade qualifies for financial assistance under the Market Development Assistance (MDA) Scheme?

    (1) Having annual turnover upto Rs. 10 crore.

    (2) Having annual turnover upto Rs. 20 crore.

    (3) Having annual turnover upto Rs. 25 crore.

    (4) Having annual turnover upto Rs. 30 crore.

    Answer Key:-

    Q. No.

    Answer Key

    Q. No.

    Answer Key

    1

    3

    51

    2

    2

    3

    52

    2

    3

    3

    53

    3

    4

    1

    54

    3

    5

    1

    55

    1

    6

    3

    56

    3

    7

    4

    57

    2

    8

    2

    58

    4

    9

    2

    59

    1

    10

    3

    60

    3

    11

    4

    61

    1

    12

    1

    62

    3

    13

    3

    63

    4

    14

    1

    64

    1

    15

    2

    65

    4

    16

    4

    66

    2

    17

    3

    67

    2

    18

    2

    68

    3

    19

    2

    69

    4

    20

    3

    70

    1

    21

    2

    71

    1

    22

    3

    72

    1

    23

    4

    73

    1

    24

    3

    74

    3

    25

    4

    75

    1

    26

    2

    76

    4

    27

    2

    77

    2

    28

    1

    78

    3

    29

    2

    79

    2

    30

    2

    80

    4

    31

    4

    81

    3

    32

    2

    82

    1

    33

    1

    83

    1

    34

    1

    84

    2

    35

    4

    85

    4

    36

    4

    86

    4

    37

    3

    87

    4

    38

    2

    88

    3

    39

    4

    89

    3

    40

    4

    90

    2

    41

    1

    91

    2

    42

    3

    92

    3

    43

    1

    93

    3

    44

    1

    94

    2

    45

    3

    95

    1

    46

    2

    96

    1

    47

    4

    97

    3

    48

    2

    98

    1

    49

    2

    99

    1

    50

    4

    100

    4

    Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam.

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