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UPPCS Prelims 2015: General Studies Question Paper I as held on 29 March 2015

Apr 1, 2015 15:30 IST

    Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission conducted the Uttar Pradesh Combined State/Upper Subordinate Preliminary Exam 2015, popularly known as UPPCS Prelims Exam, on 29 March 2015. This paper was conducted in the first session (9.30 AM to 11.30 AM) on 29 March but later it was cancelled by the Commission.

    The paper was cancelled by the Commission because it was proved that the paper got leaked just before the commencement of the General Studies Paper I. The General Studies Paper I will be conducted on 10 May 2015 again.

    The General Studies Paper I as held on 29 March 2015 is as follows.


    1. Eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India is related to

    (a) Panchayati Raj
    (b) Municipality
    (c) Centre-State relations
    (d) None of the above

    2. Which one of the following statements is true about right to information?

    (a) It is a Political right.
    (b) It is a Constitutional right.
    (c) It is a Legal right.
    (d) It is a Social right.

    3. While deciding any question relating the disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion of

    (a) Chief Justice of India
    (b) Election Commission of India
    (c) Attorney General of India
    (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    4. Who among the following was the member of Lok Sabha during his Prime Ministership?

    (a) Deve Gowda
    (b) I.K. Gujral
    (c) Chandrashekhar
    (d) Dr. Manmohan Singh


    5. Who among the following was the Chairman of the fourth State Finance Commission of U.P.?

    (a) J.L. Bajaj
    (b) S.A.T. Rizvi
    (c) T.N. Dhar
    (d) Atul Gupta

    6. Which one of the following statements about a State Finance Commission is true?

    (a) It is an Informal body.
    (b) It is a Constitutional body.
    (c) It is an Administrative body.
    (d) None of the above.

    7. Who among the following was the first Tribal Speaker of Lok Sabha?

    (a) G.V. Mavalankar
    (b) G.M.C. Balayogi
    (c) Manohar Joshi
    (d) P.A. Sangma

    8. The appointment of a Governor in a State is made as per the provision in the Constitution under article

    (a) 153
    (b) 154
    (c) 155
    (d) 156

    9. Who amongst the following is considered to be the Father of 'Local Self Government' in India?

    (a) Lord Dalhousie
    (b) Lord Canning
    (c) Lord Curzon
    (d) Lord Ripon

    10. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution.

    Reason (R): The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body elected by the people of India.

    Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

    Codes:

    (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

    11. Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to work for

    (a) Uniform Civil Code.
    (b) Organisation of Village Panchayats.
    (c) Constitution of Municipalities.
    (d) Living wages for workers.

    12. Who among the following constitutes "Finance Commission" to review the financial position of Panchayats?

    (a) Chief Minister of the concerned State.
    (b) Finance Minister of the concerned State.
    (c) The Governor of the concerned State.
    (d) Panchayati Raj Minister of the concerned State.

    13. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the national emergency?

    (a) Articles 14 and 15
    (b) Articles 19 and 20
    (c) Articles 21 and 22
    (d) Articles 20 and 21

    14. Who among the following shall have the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India in performance of his duties?

    (a) Advocate General
    (b) Attorney General
    (c) Additional Advocate General
    (d) None of the above

    15. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India has become the longest one.

    Reason (R): The chapter on Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model of American Constitution.

    Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

    Codes:

    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

    16. Which one of the following is not related to Union-State relations in India?

    (a) Sarkaria Commission
    (b) Rajmannar Committee
    (c) Indrajit Gupta Committee
    (d) Punchhi Commission

    17. The idea of preamble has been borrowed in Indian Constitution from the Constitution of

    (a) Italy
    (b) Canada
    (c) France
    (d) U.S.A.

    18. In which Article of Indian Constitution, provision for `Fundamental Duties' has been made by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

    (a) Article 50
    (b) Article 51A
    (c) Article 52
    (d) Article 53

    19. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that Central Bureau of Investigation is a 'Caged Parrot'?

    (a) Rail Board Bribery Case
    (b) Vineet Narayani Vs. Union of India
    (c) 2G Spectrum Scam Case
    (d) Coal Gate Scam Case

    20. The Planning Commission has been abolished by the Prime Minister

    (a) Narendra Modi
    (b) Morarji Desai
    (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    (d) I.K. Gujral

    21. National Voters Day is celebrated on

    (a) 15th January
    (b) 25th January
    (c) 15th February
    (d) 25th February

    22. 'Pivot to Asia' is the strategy of the foreign policy of

    (a) India
    (b) Japan
    (c) China
    (d) U.S.A.

    23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

    (a) Motilal Nehru — Nehru Report
    (b) M.K. Gandhi — Champaran Movement
    (c) S.C. Bose — Forward Block
    (d) M.A. Jinnah — Khilafat - Movement

    24. Which one of the following features of citizenship in India is correct?

    (a) Dual citizenship of the State and Nation.
    (b) Single citizenship of a State.
    (c) Single citizenship of whole of India.
    (d) Dual citizenship of India and another Country.

    25. During his visit to India in September 2014, Chinese President Xi Jinping first went to

    (a) Ahmedabad
    (b) Delhi
    (c) Kolkata
    (d) Bengaluru

    26. Who among the following was conferred the 49th Jnanpith Award by the President in November 2014?

    (a) Dudh Nath Singh
    (b) Ramesh Chandra Shah
    (c) Mamta Kalia
    (d) Kedar Nath Singh

    27. According to a video released in February 2015, the terrorist organization Islamic State burnt alive a kidnapped pilot who belonged to

    (a) Jordan
    (b) Israel
    (c) Japan
    (d) Saudi Arabia

    28. The 18th SAARC Summit was held on November 26-27, 2014 in

    (a) Kabul
    (b) Kathmandu
    (c) Colombo
    (d) New Delhi

    29. Which one of the following States of India was the worst affected one by hailstorm in 2014?

    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Karnataka
    (c) Maharashtra
    (d) Uttar Pradesh

    30. Charlie Hebdo magazine, recently in news, is published from

    (a) Germany
    (b) Denmark
    (c) Australia
    (d) France

    31. Salman Rushdie's latest (2015) novel is

    (a) The Enchantress of Florence
    (b) Two Years At Months and Twenty At Nights
    (c) Shalimar the Clown
    (d) Fury

    32. Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the 69th session of the United Nations General Assembly in Hindi in New York on

    (a) 25th September 2014
    (b) 26th September 2014
    (c) 27th September 2014
    (d) 28th September 2014

    33. Who among the following warned China not to threaten small countries like Vietnam and Philippines on ocean related issues?

    (a) Vladimir Putin
    (b) David Cameroon
    (c) Barack Obama
    (d) Angela Merkel

    34. Who among the following was awarded `Sahitya Academy' Award for Hindi Language for 2014?

    (a) Ramesh Chandra Shah
    (b) Mamta Kalia
    (c) Maitreyi Pushpa
    (d) Dudh Nath Singh

    35. Which one of the following gases was used as Chemical weapon recently in Civil war of Syria?

    (a) Mustard gas
    (b) Chlorine gas
    (c) Methyl isocyanide gas
    (d) Sarin gas

    36. In which of the following countries FIFA World Cup matches were played in 2014?

    (a) Germany
    (b) Netherlands
    (c) Brazil
    (d) Spain

    37. U.S.A. has approved sale of 'Drone' to four countries recently. Which one of the following countries is not among the list of those countries?

    (a) Malayasia
    (b) Japan
    (c) Singapore
    (d) United Arab Emirates

    38. Which one of the following facts about Agni-5 missile is not correct?

    (a) It can be fired from any place.
    (b) It has firing range of upto 5000 km.
    (c) It cannot be captured by Radar of enemies.
    (d) It is not exclusively indigenous.

    39. In which of the following cities India's second 'Forensic University' is proposed to be established?

    (a) Lucknow
    (b) Varanasi
    (c) Agra
    (d) Rampur

    40. The "Andhra Pradesh Re-orgnization Bill' was approved and signed by the President in

    (a) March, 2014
    (b) February, 2014
    (c) January, 2014
    (d) April, 2014

    41. The "Unorganized Workers Social Security Act" was passed in

    (a) 2006
    (b) 2007
    (c) 2008
    (d) 2011

    42. Which one of the following is not a part of the demographic feature of a population?

    (a) Density of population
    (b) Standard of living
    (c) Sex-ratio
    (d) Rural-urban population

    43. Increasing investment in human capital leads towards

    (a) Proper utilization of resources
    (b) Increase in productivity
    (c) Development of skill
    (d) All of the above

    44. Which among the following has been selected as the cultural capital of SAARC region for 2015?

    (a) Lumbini (Nepal)
    (b) Bamiyan (Afghanistan)
    (c) Sarnath (India)
    (d) Dhaka (Bangladesh)

    45. Which one of the following states has launched M.L.A. Adarsh Village Scheme taking the clue from Sansad Adarsh Village Scheme?

    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Haryana
    (c) Madhya Pradesh
    (d) Rajasthan

    46. Which one of the following is not a part of land reforms in India?

    (a) Abolition of Zamindari System
    (b) Ceiling on Land Holdings
    (c) Tenancy Reforms
    (d) Multiple Cropping Schemes

    47. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Industrial Finance — SIDBI
    (b) Social Security Measures — Bharat Nirman
    (c) Rural Credit — NABARD
    (d) Rural Employment — SJSRY

    48. Which one of the following refers to occupational structure of population?

    (a) Number of persons living in the country.
    (b) Size of working population.
    (c) Distribution of working population among different occupations.
    (d) Nature of different occupations.

    49. Which one of the following does not implement the Self-Help Groups (SHGs) — Bank Linkage programme?

    (a) NABARD
    (b) Commercial Banks
    (c) RRBs
    (d) Co-operative Banks

    50. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Janshree Bima Yojana — 2000
    (b) National Rural Health Mission — 2005
    (c) MGNREGA – 2003
    (d) Aam Admi Bima Yojana — 2007

    51. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of population growth in an economy?

    (a) Increase in the size of working population.
    (b) Reduced size of holdings.
    (c) Increasing unemployment.
    (d) Reduced percapita availability of food grains.

    52. Green Revolution was the result of adoption of New Agricultural Strategy which was introduced in 20th Century during decades of

    (a) Fifties
    (b) Sixties
    (c) Seventies
    (d) Eighties

    53. At present India's population growth is passing through the phase of which one of the following?

    (a) Stagnant population
    (b) Steady growth
    (c) Rapid high growth
    (d) High growth rate with definite signs of showing down

    54. The share of women in employment during 2013-14 under Mahatma Gandhi NREGA was

    (a) 40.6%
    (b) 45.2%
    (c) 52.9%
    d) 57.3%

    55. Which one of the following is the primary sector of India's economy?

    (a) Agriculture
    (b) Industry
    (c) Cooperative
    (d) None of the above

    56. Which one of the following is the major feature of the Indian economy?

    (a) A capitalist economy
    (b) A socialist economy
    (c) A mixed economy
    (d) None of the above

    57. Which one of the following was not included in the National Food Security Mission's objective of increasing production?

    (a) Oil seeds
    (b) Rice
    (c) Wheat
    (d) Pulses

    58. Which one of the following age groups is eligible for enrolment under "Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan"?

    (a) 6 - 14 Years
    (b) 6 - 15 Year
    (c) 5 - 14 Years
    (d) 5 - 15 Years

    59. The expansion of Urban India is a platform for

    (a) Industrial growth
    (b) Modern Service Sector growth
    (c) Creation of improved income opportunities
    (d) All of the above

    60. National Rural Drinking Water Programme is one of the components of

    (a) Social Protection Program
    (b) Bharat Nirman
    (c) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
    (d) Poverty Alleviation Programmes

    61. Consider the following statements about positive results of MGNREGA:

    1. Substantial increase in purchasing power of rural poor.
    2. Reduction in bargaining power of labourers.
    3. Reduction in migration to cities.

    Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) Only 1 and 3 are correct.
    (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
    (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    62. Which one of the following is not a component of 'Bharat Nirman' launched in 2005 - 2006?

    (a) Rural housing
    (b) Drinking water
    (c) Rural sanitation
    (d) Rural roads

    63. Amongst the following states of the country, the literacy rate in 2011 was lowest in

    (a) Odisha
    (b) Bihar
    (c) Jharkhand
    (d) Chhattisgarh

    64. The Right to Education Act, 2009 aims at making a free and compulsory education a right for children upto

    (a) Elementary level
    (b) Secondary level
    (c) Higher Secondary level
    (d) Graduation level

    65. Which one of the following solutions of electrolytes is used in the car battery?

    (a) Sodium sulphate
    (b) Nitric acid
    (c) Sulphuric acid
    (d) Potassium nitrate

    66. The function of haemoglobin in the human body is

    (a) to transport oxygen
    (b) to destroy microbes
    (c) to prevent blood deficiency
    (d) to make iron useful

    67. The 'Black Hole' was first made known by

    (a) Herman Bandy
    (b) Megh Nath Saha
    (c) S. Chandrashekhar
    (d) J.V. Narlikar

    68. CNG is

    (a) Compressed Natural Gas
    (b) Cynogen Natural Gas
    (c) Condensed Nitrogen Gas
    (d) Controlled Natural Gas

    69. Which one of the following types of mirror is used to see the traffic behind the car?

    (a) Convex mirror
    (b) Concave mirror
    (c) Plane mirror
    (d) Spherical mirror

    70. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    (a) Sulphur dioxide — Teeth
    (b) Fluoride pollution — Bhopal gas tragedy
    (c) Methyl isocyanate — Acid rain
    (d) Ozone depletion — Skin cancer

    71. Full form of C.F.L. is

    (a) Compact Fluorescent Lamp
    (b) Centrally Fixed Lamp
    (c) Chemical Fluorescent Lamp
    (d) Condensed Fluorescent Lamp

    72. Which one of the following polymers is used for the production of non-sticky pans?

    (a) Teflon
    (b) Neoprene
    (c) P.V.C.
    (d) Gutta-Percha

    73. India launched its Mars orbiter mission successfully from Sri Harikota on

    (a) 23rd September, 2013
    (b) 24th October, 2013
    (c) 25th October, 2013
    (d) 5th November, 2013

    74. The full form of www is

    (a) Web Working Window
    (b) Window World Wide
    (c) World Wide Web
    (d) World Working Web

    75. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
     
    List – I

    A. Vitamin C
    B. Folic acid
    C. Vitamin A
    D. Vitamin B

    List – II

    1. Night blindness
    2. Beri-beri
    3. Anaemia
    4. Scurvy

    Codes:
          A    B    C    D
    (a)  4    3    1    2
    (b)  2    3    1    4
    (c)  4    3    2    1
    (d)  1    2    4    3

    76. The 102nd Indian Science Congress, 2015 was held in

    (a) Jammu
    (b) Jaipur
    (c) Mumbai
    (d) Lucknow

    77. Peeling of onions causes tears as onions release

    (a) Sulphonic acid
    (b) Sulfenic acid
    (c) Amino acid
    (d) Carbolic acid

    78. Einstein was awarded Nobel Prize for

    (a) Theory of relativity
    (b) Brownian motion
    (c) Photo-electric effect
    (d) Specific heat of solids

    79. White revolution is related to

    (a) Egg production
    (b) Milk production
    (c) Wheat production
    (d) Fish production

    80. In a pressure cooker food is cooked in shorter time because

    (a) the boiling point of water increases.
    (b) the boiling point of water decreases.
    (c) the food takes less heat.
    (d) None of the above.

    81. How many images will be formed if a point light source is placed between two parallel plane mirrors?

    (a) Two
    (b) Four
    (c) Eight
    (d) Infinite

    82. Green revolution is related to

    (a) Millet production
    (b) Pulse production
    (c) Wheat production
    (d) Oilseed production

    83. The most commonly used material for making transistors is

    (a) Aluminium
    (b) Silicon
    (c) Copper
    (d) Silver

    84. Green house effect is enhanced in the environment due to

    (a) Carbon monoxide
    (b) Carbon dioxide
    (c) Oxygen
    (d) None of the above

    85. Which one of the following nutritional elements is not essential for the formation and strengthening of bones and teeth?

    (a) Calcium
    (b) Phosphorus
    (c) Fluorine
    (d) Iodine

    86. The common name of the chemical compound ‘Cholecalciferol' is

    (a) Bone Calcium
    (b) Vitamin D
    (c) Vitainin B
    (d) Vitamin C

    87. The first President of Indian National Congress was

    (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
    (b) Surendra Nath Banerjee
    (c) Omesh Chandra Banerjee
    (d) A.O. Hume

    88. Who among the following was the founder of Vikramshila University?

    (a) Gopal
    (b) Dharmapala
    (c) Devapala
    (d) Mahipal

    89. Who among the following established "Indian Society of Oriental Art"?

    (a) Nihar Ranjan Ray
    (b) Nirendra Mohan Mukherjee
    (c) Abanindra Nath Tagore
    (d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

    90. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Howrah Conspiracy Case — 1910
    (b) Victoria Conspiracy Case — 1914
    (c) Lahore Conspiracy Case — 1916 & 1930
    (d) Kakori Conspiracy Case — 1924

    91. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Asiatic Society of Bengal — 1784 A.D.
    (b) Asiatic Society of Bombay — 1804 A.D.
    (c) Royal Asiatic Society of Great Britain — 1813 A.D.
    (d) Land Holders Society of Bengal — 1844 A.D.

    92. Which one of the following polymers is used for making bullet-proof windows?

    (a) Polycarbonates
    (b) Polyurethanes
    (c) Polystyrene
    (d) Polyamides

    93. Who among the following invented `Gobar Gas' system?

    (a) C.V. Raman
    (b) J.C. Bose
    (c) C.B. Desi
    (d) H. Khorana

    94. Famous medieval saint Shankardev belonged to

    (a) Shaiva Cult
    (b) Vaishnava Cult
    (c) Advaita Cult
    (d) Dvaita-advaita Cult

    95. Vivekanand attended the 'Parliament of World's Religions' held at Chicago in

    (a) 1872
    (b) 1890
    (c) 1893
    (d) 1901

    96. The revolutionary association "Abhinav Bharat' was setup in 1905 in

    (a) Odisha
    (b) Bengal
    (c) Uttar Pradesh
    (d) Maharashtra

    97. Who among the following introduced gold coins for regular use in India?

    (a) Vim Kadphises
    (b) Kujul Kadphises
    (c) Kanishka
    (d) Hermwes

    98. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    (a) W.C. Smith — The Muslims of British India
    (b) Khalid B. Sayeed — Pakistan: The Formative Phase
    (c) Peter Hardy — Khilafat to Partition
    (d) Moin Shakir — Modern Islam in India

    99. Which one of the following inscriptions contains the name of Ashoka?

    (a) Gujarra
    (b) Ahraura
    (c) Brahmagiri
    (d) Sarnath

    100. British East India Company lost the monopoly of Tea trade by

    (a) The Charter Act of 1793
    (b) The Charter Act of 1813
    (c) The Charter Act of 1833
    (d) The Charter Act of 1853

    101. `Hali System' concerned

    (a) bonded labour
    (b) exploitation of peasants
    (c) untouchability
    (d) illiteracy

    102. Who among the following is the author of the book 'The Problems of the Far East'?

    (a) Lawrence
    (b) Curzon
    (c) Churchill
    (d) Lytton

    103. The original name of Changez (Genghis) Khan was

    (a) Khasul Khan
    (b) Yesugai
    (c) Temuchin (Tenurjin)
    (d) Ogadi

    104. Who among the following was not a part of tripartite struggle?

    (a) Pratiharas
    (b) Palas
    (c) Rastrakutas
    (d) Cholas

    105. At which one of the following Round Table Conferences held in London was Mahatma Gandhi present?

    (a) First
    (b) Second
    (c) Third
    (d) None of the above

    106. In which one of the following sessions the congress declared its policy towards Indian states for the first time?

    (a) Nagpur session
    (b) Gaya session
    (c) Calcutta session
    (d) Lucknow session

    107. "Kings are made for Public; Public is not made for the King." Who among the following made this statement during the national movement?

    (a) Surendra Nath Banerjee
    (b) R.C. Dutt
    (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
    (d) Gokhale

    108. The theme of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee's famous novel `Anand Math' is based on

    (a) Chuar revolt
    (b) Rangpur and Dinajpur revolt
    (c) Vishnupur and Veerbhumi revolt
    (d) Sannyasi's revolt

    109. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    (a) Mountain — Most stable ecosystem
    (b) Abiotic Component — Bacteria
    (c) Green Plants — Ecosystem
    (d) Rainfall — Global Warming

    110. Pheromones are generally produced by

    (a) Snakes
    (b) Birds
    (c) Bats
    (d) Insects

    111. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
     
    List - I

    A. Minerals
    B. Solar energy
    C. Biogas
    D. Deforestation

    List - II

    1. Rainfall
    2. Methane and Carbon dioxide
    3. Exhaustible
    4. Inexhaustible

    Codes:

         A    B    C    D
    (a) 3    4    2    1
    (b) 3    4    1    2
    (c) 2    1    3    4
    (d) 1    2    3    4

    112. Which one of the following can provide both power and manures?

    (a) Nuclear plants
    (b) Thermal plants
    (c) Biogas plants
    (d) Hydroelectric plants

    113. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of `Parama Bhagawat' was

    (a) Chandragupta I
    (b) Samudragupta
    (c) Chandragupta II
    (d) Ramgupta

    114. The founder president of All India Kisan Sabha was

    (a) Acharya Narendra Dev
    (b) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
    (c) Bankim Mukherjee
    (d) Jayprakash Narayan

    115. The largest Botanical garden of the world is at

    (a) Kew (England)
    (b) Paris (France)
    (c) Howrah (India)
    (d) Tokyo (Japan)

    116. According to World Health Organisation's report of 2008, the number of diseases due to climate change is

    (a) 6
    (b) 15
    (c) 20
    (d) 25

    117. Which one of the following is a bio-diesel crop?

    (a) Cotton
    (b) Sugarcane
    (c) Jatropha
    (d) Potato

    118. `Chipko' movement is related to

    (a) Plant Preservation
    (b) Project Tiger
    (c) Project Crocodile
    (d) Plant Breeding

    119. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in the year

    (a) 1965
    (b) 1970
    (c) 1972
    (d) 1975

    120. International Ozone day is celebrated on

    (a) 16th September
    (b) 7th December
    (c) 30th March
    (d) 22nd April

    121. Which one of the following is a biodiversity saturated area in India?

    (a) Eastern Ghat
    (b) Western Ghat
    (c) Thar Desert
    (d) Bay of Bengal

    122. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Wool — A protein
    (b) Rayon —  Modified starch
    (c) Rubber — A natural polymer
    (d) Fullerene — An allotrope of Carbon

    123. The main reason for the decrease in biodiversity is

    (a) Habitat pollution
    (b) Introduction of exotic species
    (c) Over-exploitation
    (d) Habitat destruction

    124. Which one of the following energy sources is the best in keeping environment clean?

    (a) Petroleum products
    (b) Forest products
    (c) Nuclear fission
    (4) Solar cells

    125. Which one of the following has evergreen forest?

    (a) Malwa Plateau
    (b) Eastern Ghat
    (c) Western Ghat
    (d) Chhotanagpur Plateau

    126. Which Indian State has the highest area under sugarcane cultivation?

    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Uttar Pradesh
    (c) Andhra Pradesh
    (d) Madhya Pradesh

    127. The sudden burst of which of the following lakes was one of the major factors of flash flood in the Mandakini river in June, 2013?

    (a) Chorabari lake
    (b) Hemkund lake
    (c) Kedar tal
    (d) Vasuki tal

    128. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
     
    List - I

    (National Parks)

    A. Dachigam
    B. Papikonda
    C. Sariska
    D. Bandipur

    List - II

    (States)

    1. Andhra Pradesh
    2. Jammu and Kashmir
    3. Rajasthan
    4. Karnataka
     
    Codes:
         A    B    C    D
    (a) 3     1    2    4
    (b) 2     1    3    4
    (c) 1     2    4    3
    (d) 3     4    2    1

    129. The most significant aspect biodiversity is

    (a) Food
    (b) Drug
    (c) Industrial use
    (d) Maintenance of ecosystem

    130. Which one of the following is a pollution indicator plant?

    (a) Algae
    (b) Fungi
    (c) Lichen
    (d) Fern

    131. Which one of the following coasts of India is located between Krishna delta and Cape Comorin?

    (a) Coromandel Coast
    (b) North Circar
    (c) Malabar Coast
    (d) Konkan Coast

    132. Assertion (A): Yamuna becomes a dead river between Delhi and Agra during most of the year.

    Reason (R): Yamuna is a non-perennial river.

    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

    Codes:

    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    133. Which one of the following states has the highest difference between literary rates of male and female according to the Census 2011?

    (a) Kerala
    (b) Uttar Pradesh
    (c) Mizoram
    (d) Gujarat

    134. Which one of the following is a Volcanic Island of India?

    (a) Little Andaman
    (b) Little Nicobar
    (c) Great Nicobar
    (d) Barren Island

    135. In India more than half of the production of Soyabean comes from

    (a) Madhya Pradesh
    (b) Andhra Pradesh
    (c) Maharashtra
    (d) Rajasthan

    136. Which one of the following dams is built across Betwa river?

    (a) Luv Kush Barrage
    (b) Rihand Dam
    (c) Sharda Barrage
    (d) Rajghat Dam

    137. Which one of the following rivers is called the Ganga of South?

    (a) Cauvery
    (b) Krishna
    (c) Godavari
    (d) Narmada

    138. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Boiling lake — Dominica
    (b) Five Flower lake — Mangolia
    (c) Red Lagoon — Bolivia
    (d) Great Slave lake — Canada

    139. Which one of the following is the highest volcanic mountain of the world?

    (a) Mount Pinatubo
    (b) Mount Kilimanjaro
    (c) Mount Taal
    (d) Mount Cotopaxi

    140. Which one of the following is called the 'Pearl of Siberia'?

    (a) Baikal Lake
    (b) Great Bear Lake
    (c) Karda Lake
    (d) Lincanbur Lake

    141. For the location of which one of the following industries, the availability of raw material is not the primary consideration?

    (a) Iron and Steel
    (b) Sugar
    (c) Electronics
    (d) Cement

    142. Which pair amongst the following is not correctly matched?

    (a) The queen of Adriatic sea — Rome
    (b) Lorraine coal fields — France
    (c) West Midlands — Birmingham
    (d) Tula — Russia

    143. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
     
    List - I

    (Volcano)

    A. Sabankaya
    B. Mount Etna
    C. Colima
    D. Merapi

    List - II

    (Country)

    1. Italy
    2. Peru
    3. Indonesia
    4. Mexico

    Codes:
          A    B    C    D
    (a)  3    1    4    2
    (b)  3    2    1    4
    (c)  2    1    4    3
    (d) 4     3    2    1

    144. Which one of the following countries has the longest coastal line?

    (a) India
    (b) Canada
    (c) Australia
    (d) Brazil

    145. World's largest reserve of Uranium is found in

    (a) Australia
    (b) Brazil
    (c) Canada
    (d) South Africa

    146. To which of the following racial groups the natives of North America belong?

    (a) Austric
    (b) Caucasoid
    (c) Mongoloid
    (d) Negroid

    147. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution vests in the President of India the power to issue ordinances?

    (a) Article 74
    (b) Article 78
    (c) Article 123
    (d) Article 124(2)

    148. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

    List - I

    (Provision)
    A. Equality before Law
    B. Right to Work
    C. Just and Humane conditions of work
    D. Free and compulsory education for children

    List - II

    (Article number under the Constitution)
    1. Article 42
    2. Article 45
    3. Article 14
    4. Article 41

    Codes:
         A    B    C    D
    (a) 1    2    3    4
    (b) 3    4    1    2
    (c) 2    1    4    3
    (d) 4    3    1    2

    149. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite?

    (a) Guinea
    (b) Australia
    (c) India
    (d) Jamaica

    150. Which one of the following is called as the 'Land of Morning Calm’?

    (a) Philippines
    (b) Japan
    (c) Taiwan
    (d) Korea

     

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