Top 50 MCQs for CBSE Class 9 Science Half Yearly Exam 2025 with Answer Key

This collection of 50 multiple-choice questions is specifically designed for students preparing for their CBSE Class 9 Science Half Yearly Examination in 2025. Covering key concepts from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, these MCQs will help reinforce your understanding of important topics and identify areas for further study.

Practice with these questions to familiarize yourself with the exam pattern and boost your confidence. Each question comes with four options, and a detailed answer key is provided at the end to help you check your responses and learn from any mistakes. Good luck with your preparation!

Check| CBSE Class 9 Science Syllabus 2025-2026 PDF

CBSE Class 9 Science Syllabus: Key Features

• The CBSE Class 9 Science syllabus is structured into four primary units, encompassing themes from Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Environmental Science.

• To reduce academic stress while fostering conceptual understanding, certain subtopics are designated for formative assessment only.

• The curriculum incorporates practical and internal assessments for a comprehensive evaluation of students.

• Additionally, CBSE offers enriched reading materials that complement the curriculum, providing expert explanations and real-life applications to help students grasp core concepts.

Top 50 MCQs for CBSE Class 9 Science Half Yearly Exam 2025

1. If the displacement of an object is proportional to the square of time, then the object moves with:
   (a) uniform velocity
   (b) uniform acceleration
   (c) increasing acceleration
   (d) decreasing acceleration

2. The distance time graph of a body coincides with its time axis. The body must be:
   (a) in uniform motion
   (b) at rest
   (c) in uniformly accelerated motion
   (d) in zig-zag motion

3. The velocity time graph of a body is parallel to the time axis. The body is:
   (a) at rest
   (b) having uniform acceleration
   (c) having zero acceleration
   (d) having non-uniform acceleration

4. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
   (a) Zero
   (b) π r
   (c) 2 r
   (d) 2π r

5. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is:
   (a) always less than 1
   (b) always equal to 1
   (c) always more than 1
   (d) equal or less than 1

6. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It implies that the boy is:
   (a) at rest
   (b) moving with no acceleration
   (c) in accelerated motion
   (d) moving with uniform velocity

7. Area under a v – t graph represents a physical quantity which has the unit:
   (a) m²
   (b) m
   (c) m³
   (d) m/s

8. Slope of a velocity – time graph gives:
   (a) the distance
   (b) the displacement
   (c) the acceleration
   (d) the speed

9. Which of the following statement is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
   (a) Its speed keeps changing
   (b) Its velocity always changes
   (c) It always goes away from the earth
   (d) A force is always acting on it

10. The forces of action and reaction are:
    (a) always equal only
    (b) always equal and opposite
    (c) always equal but in the same direction
    (d) always unequal and opposite

11. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goal keeper to:
    (a) exert a larger force on the ball
    (b) reduce the force exerted by the ball on hands
    (c) increase the rate of change of momentum
    (d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

12. What mass of a body can attain an acceleration of 5m/s² under a force of 250 N?
    (a) 5 kg
    (b) 250 kg
    (c) 50 kg
    (d) 10 kg

13. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of:
    (a) mass
    (b) energy
    (c) momentum
    (d) velocity

14. A water tanker filled up to 2/3 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application of the brake, the water in the tank would:
    (a) move backward
    (b) move forward
    (c) be unaffected
    (d) rise upwards

15. Inertia of a body in linear motion is measured by its:
    (a) mass
    (b) momentum
    (c) velocity
    (d) none of the above

16. Which of the following is NOT true about colloids?
    (a) Particles in a colloid can pass through filter paper.
    (b) A colloid is a homogeneous solution.
    (c) Colloidal particles exhibit Brownian motion.
    (d) Colloidal particles exhibit electrophoresis.

17. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
    (a) air
    (b) brass
    (c) sugar dissolved in water
    (d) lime water

18. Removal of the clear layer of the liquid without disturbing the settled solid is known as:
    (a) Sedimentation
    (b) Decantation
    (c) Filtration
    (d) Evaporation

19. A mixture of water and silver chloride can be separated by:
    (a) Centrifugation
    (b) Sedimentation
    (c) Filtration
    (d) Sublimation

20. When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which of the following is the best method to separate these liquids?
    (a) Evaporation
    (b) Distillation
    (c) Chromatography
    (d) Filtration

21. The particles of a suspension will be of size:
    (a) less than 1nm
    (b) between 1nm to 100 nm
    (c) greater than 100nm
    (d) less than 0.1 nm

22. Which of the following is a chemical change?
    (a) Melting of ice
    (b) Dissolving salt in water
    (c) Rusting of iron
    (d) Boiling of water into steam

23. Which one of the following is TRUE for compounds?
    (a) It shows properties of its constituents.
    (b) It may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
    (c) It can be separated by physical methods.
    (d) It has a fixed melting and boiling point.

24. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is:
    (a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
    (b) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
    (c) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
    (d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect

25. Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving:
    (a) iodine in potassium iodide
    (b) iodine in vaseline
    (c) iodine in water
    (d) iodine in alcohol

26. Which of the following are physical changes?
    (i) Melting of iron metal
    (ii) Rusting of iron
    (iii) Bending of an iron rod
    (iv) Drawing a wire of iron metal
    (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
    (c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
    (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

27. The largest cell in the human body is:
    (a) Nerve cell
    (b) Muscle cell
    (c) Liver cell
    (d) Kidney cell

28. The barrier between the protoplasm and the other environment in an animal cell is:
    (a) Cell wall
    (b) Nuclear membrane
    (c) Tonoplast
    (d) Plasma membrane

29. The term ‘Cell’ was given by:
    (a) Leeuwenhoek
    (b) Robert Hooke
    (c) Flemming
    (d) Robert Brown

30. Who proposed the cell theory?
    (a) Schleiden and Schwann
    (b) Watson and Crick
    (c) Darwin and Wallace
    (d) Mendel and Morgan

31. A plant cell differs from an animal cell in the absence of:
    (a) Endoplasmic Reticulum
    (b) Mitochondria
    (c) Ribosome
    (d) Centrioles

32. The power house of a cell is:
    (a) Chloroplast
    (b) Mitochondrion
    (c) Golgi apparatus
    (d) Nucleolus

33. Which is called ‘Suicidal Bag’?
    (a) Centrosome
    (b) Lysosome
    (c) Mesosome
    (d) Chromosome

34. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by:
    (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
    (b) golgi apparatus
    (c) plasma membrane
    (d) mitochondria

35. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes is also known as:
    (a) nucleus
    (b) nucleolus
    (c) nucleic acid
    (d) nucleoid

36. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars is:
    (a) endoplasmic reticulum
    (b) ribosomes
    (c) plastids
    (d) golgi apparatus

37. In plants, which of the following has the capability of cell division?
    (a) Parenchyma
    (b) Sclerenchyma
    (c) Xylem
    (d) Apical Meristem

38. Which animal tissue is usually separated from the underlying tissue by an extracellular fibrous basement membrane?
    (a) Muscular tissues
    (b) Connective tissues
    (c) Epithelial tissues
    (d) Nervous tissues

39. Husk of a coconut is made of which tissues?
    (a) Parenchyma tissue
    (b) Sclerenchymatous tissue
    (c) Collenchyma
    (d) Xylem

40. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of the hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be the possible reason?
    (a) Tendon break
    (b) Break of skeletal muscle
    (c) Ligament break
    (d) Areolar tissue break

41. The muscular tissue which functions continuously throughout life without fatigue is:
    (a) skeletal muscle
    (b) cardiac muscle
    (c) smooth muscle
    (d) voluntary muscle

42. The dead element present in the phloem is:
    (a) companion cells
    (b) phloem fibres
    (c) phloem parenchyma
    (d) sieve tubes

43. Flexibility in plants is due to:
    (a) collenchyma
    (b) sclerenchyma
    (c) parenchyma
    (d) chlorenchyma

44. Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases by the presence of:
    (a) cellulose
    (b) lipids
    (c) suberin
    (d) lignin

45. Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of:
    (a) intercalary meristem
    (b) conducting tissue
    (c) apical meristem
    (d) parenchymatous tissue

46. The history of the cell began in 1665 with the publication of Micrographia in London by -
    (a) Robert Hooke
    (b) Robert Brown
    (c) Strasburger
    (d) Dujardin

47. Which of the following statements are true for pure substances?
    (i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
    (ii) Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
    (iii) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
    (iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
    (a) (i) and (ii)
    (b) (i) and (iii)
    (c) (iii) and (iv)
    (d) (ii) and (iii)

48. Which of the following organelle does not have a membrane?
    (a) Ribosome
    (b) Nucleus
    (c) Chloroplast
    (d) Mitochondria

49. A cell placed in hypertonic solution will -
    (a) Shrink
    (b) Show Plasmolysis
    (c) Swell up
    (d) No change in shape or size

50. What mass of a body can attain an acceleration of 5m/s² under a force of 250 N?
    (a) 5 kg
    (b) 250 kg
    (c) 50 kg
    (d) 10 kg

CBSE Class 9 Science Half Yearly MCQs: Answer Key

We hope this comprehensive collection of 50 Multiple Choice Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Half Yearly Exam 2025 proves to be an invaluable resource in your preparation. By diligently practicing these questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, you will not only strengthen your understanding of core concepts but also enhance your ability to tackle the actual examination with confidence. Remember to utilize the provided answer key for self-assessment and to identify areas that require further attention. Consistent practice is key to success. Good luck with your studies and your upcoming Half Yearly Examination!

Check|CBSE Class 9 Science Assertion-Reason Questions for 2025-2026

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