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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2016 Question paper held on 18 Jan 2017 (Evening Session)

Mar 9, 2018 18:29 IST
    ssc chsl question paper
    ssc chsl question paper

    SSC has lately announced for its CHSL entry for the session 2017-18. The exam will be conducted in the month of March 2018 for its tier-1 exam. The tentative dates for this exam is scheduled from 4th March, 2018 to 26th March, 2018. Previous year papers are going to play a very important role because SSC used to frame prospective questions from the previous ones. However, we have managed to arrange the last year papers from SSCs website and other sources.

    Banking & SSC eBook

    In this article, we are sharing the previous year paper of SSC CHSL tier-1 2016 exam held on 18thJan 2017 in the Evening shift. Go through each one of them and match your responses with the answer key given in the last.

    SSC CHSL 2016 Tier-1 exam: Previous year question paper

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    Question 1. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

    RESISTANCE : OHM :: CURRENT : ?

    (a) Faraday

    (b) Radian

    (c) Ampere

    (d) Volt

    Question 2. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

    UHCDN : VIDEO : : OKZXDQ : ?

    (a) REPLAY

    (b) REPOSE

    (c) PLAYER

    (d) OPPOSE

    Question 3. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

    64 : 8 : : 289 : ?

    (a) 17

    (b) 27

    (c) 26

    (d) 19

    Question 4. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

    13 : 156 : : 17 : ?

    (a) 135

    (b) 270

    (c) 272

    (d) 130

    Question 5. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

    (a) Islamabad

    (b) Kabul

    (c) Canberra

    (d) Sydney

    Question 6. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

    (a) EG

    (b) EB

    (c) BY

    (d) GD

    Question 7. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

    (a) 2378

    (b) 7562

    (c) 6662

    (d) 1155

    Question 8. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

    (a) 149

    (b) 157

    (c) 199

    (d) 121

    Question 9. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

    Lieutenant, Captain, ? , Lieutenant Colonel

    (a) Brigadier

    (b) Major

    (c) Sub lieutenant

    (d) Major general

    Question 10. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

    ? , LMN, RST, WXY

    (a) EGF

    (b) DFE

    (c) DEF

    (d) EFG

    Question 11. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

    TU, ? , NO, XY

    (a) IJ

    (b) FG

    (c) DF

    (d) DE

    Question 12. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

    3, 12, 48, ?

    (a) 96

    (b) 184

    (c) 192

    (d) 384

    Question 13. In the following question, two statements are given each followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conlusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

    Statements:

    (I) Some camels are ships.

    (II) No ship is a boat.

    Conclusion:

    (I) Some ships are camels.

    (II) Some camels are not boats.

    (a) Conclusion I follows

    (b) Conclusion II follows

    (c) Neither I nor II follows

    (d) Both I and II follows

    Question 14. Q, R, S and T are sitting together. T is at one extreme end. P is the neighbour of T and is third to the left of Q. Who is fourth to the right of T? 

    (a) P

    (b) T

    (c) Q

    (d) S

    Question 15. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

    I. Joke

    ii. Jockey

    iii. Jocular

    iv. Jocund

    (a) iv, ii, i, iii

    (b) ii, iii, iv, i

    (c) ii, iii, i, iv

    (d) iv, ii, iii, i

    Question 16. In a certain code language, “DANGER" is written as “145237” and “RANCOR” is written as “745967”. How is “RAGE” written in that code language?

    (a) 7231

    (b) 7234

    (c) 7423

    (d) 7441

    Question 17. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

    5

    6

    7

    4

    5

    6

    9

    11

    ?

     

    (a) 19

    (b) 1

    (c) 21

    (d) 13

    Question 18. If “K" means “minus", “L" means “divided by", “M” means “plus" and “D” means “multiplied by”, then

    117 L 3 K 5 M 12 D 8 = ?

    (a) 150

    (b) 125

    (c) 130

    (d) 145

    Question 19. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

    P_R_S_QRR_

    (a) QPRS

    (b) QRPS

    (c) QRPP

    (d) QPSR

    Question 20. Kajal left home for a hospital. She travelled 5 km towards east, then turned towards south-east to travel another 10 km, then again she turned towards north-east to travel 10 km and rinally, she reached the hospital. In which direction is hospital with respect to her house?

    (a) South

    (b) North

    (c) West

    (d) East

    Question 21. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, 'D’ can be represented by 68, 10, etc., and ‘R’ can be represented by 34, 22, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘PIZZA'.

    Matrix – I

     

    1

    2

    3

    4

    I

    P

    I

    M

    R

    1

    D

    I

    W

    R

    W

    2

    S

    H

    R

    B

    E

    3

    F

    R

    E

    P

    R

    4

    R

    E

    P

    C

    F

    Matrix – II

     

    5

    6

    7

    8

    9

    5

    A

    E

    Z

    A

    Z

    6

    E

    G

    A

    D

    Y

    7

    K

    A

    X

    G

    M

    8

    A

    B

    C

    A

    W

    9

    Z

    V

    M

    H

    N

    (a) 33, 40, 85, 19, 20

    (b) 01, 02, 95, 66, 85

    (c) 42, 02, 57, 57, 10

    (d) 33, 11, 57, 95, 58

    Question 22. Deepak has a brother named Aditya. Deepak is the son of Kuldeep. Bunty is Kuldeep's father. How is Aditya related to Bunty?

    (a) Uncle

    (b) Brother

    (c) Grandson

    (d) Grandfather

    Question 23. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

     

    (a)

     

    (b)

    (c)

     

    (d)

     

    Question 24. Identify the dlagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

    Males, Doctors, Brothers

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

    Question 25. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

    Question 26. The Indian Parliament House was designed by _______.

    (a) Alvar Aalto

    (b) Michael Graves

    (c) Edwin Lutyens

    (d) Renzo Piano

    Question 27. Raghuveer Chaudhari won Jnanpith Award for work in which language?

    (a) Gujarati

    (b) Marathi

    (c) Hindi

    (d) Telugu

    Question 28. Which drug is used as an Antidepresant?

    (a) Oxybutynin

    (b) Tramadol

    (c) Sumatripta

    (d) Bupropion

    Question  29. The orange colour of carrot is because of

    (a) it grows in the soil.

    (b) Carotene

    (c) it is not exposed to sunlight.

    (d) the entire plant is orange in colour.

    Question 30. Snake venom is highly modified saliva containing ___________.

    (a) prototoxins

    (b) neutrotoxins

    (c) zootoxins

    (d) electrotoxins

    Question 31. Heavy water is _________.

    (a) Monoterium oxide

    (b) Polyterium oxide

    (c) Deuterium oxide

    (d) Trisium oxide

    Question 32. Which among the following elements has highest electronegativity?

    (a) Gallium

    (b) Sodium

    (c) Arsenic

    (d) Caesium

    Question 33. How many GB is equal to 1 TB?

    (a) 128

    (b) 256

    (c) 512

    (d) 1024

    Question 34. Most airports in India are named after _______

    (a) Places

    (b) Festivals

    (c) Politicains

    (d) Animals

    Question 35. Find arc elasticity of demand, if quantity demanded falls from 1050 to 950 when price of the item is increased from Rs 250 to Rs 290?

    (a) -0.67

    (b) -0.6

    (c) 0.68

    (d) 0.6

    Question 36. Suppos the equilibrium price for sugar is Rs 50/kg. If the government sets a price floor of Rs 70/kg then ______.

    (a) quantity of sugar demanded will be greater than the quatity demanded at equilibrium price

    (b) there will be a shortage of sugar in the market

    (c) there will be a surplus of sugar in the market.

    (d) quantity of sugar supplied will be less than what was supplied at the equilibrium price

    Question 37. Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of reserves of which of the following animals?

    (a) Tiger

    (b) Lion

    (c) Peacock

    (d) Langur

    Question 38. Which type of pathogen causes the water-borne disease Schistosomiasis?

    (a) Parasitic

    (b) Protozoan

    (c) Bacterial

    (d) Viral

    Question 39. The highest airport in India is

    (a) Dharamshala airport

    (b) Pithoragarh airport

    (c) Leh airport

    (d) Dehradun airport

    Question 40. World’s longest land border is between which two contries?

    (a) Australia and New Zealand

    (b) India and China

    (c) Switzerland and Italy

    (d) Canada and USA

    Question 41. Baghdad is the Capital City of _______.

    (a) Iraq

    (b) Thailand

    (c) China

    (d) Russia

    Question 42. The Bibi ka Maqbara is a tomb located in _________. It was build by Azam Shah, son of Aurangzeb, in 1678.

    (a) Hyderabad

    (b) Aurangabad

    (c) Lucknow

    (d) Allahabad

    Question 43. Battle of Kanauj was fought in the year _______?

    (a) 1764

    (b) 1526

    (c) 1540

    (d) 1857

    Question 44. Which company developed Java?

    (a) Microsoft

    (b) Sun

    (c) Novell

    (d) Oracle

    Question 45. Who established the foundations of the Quantum theory?

    (a) Max Planck

    (b) Mark Nicholas

    (c) Albert Einstein

    (d) Alfred Hitchcock

    Question 46. If in a motion, the axis of the rotation passes through an object, then the motion is called ______.

    (a) orbital motion

    (b) Circulatory motion

    (c) Spin motion

    (d) Oscillatory motion

    Question 47. Call sign of any aircraft carrying the Indian President is

    (a) Air India One

    (b) Airforce One

    (c) Code Eagle

    (d) Flight 101

    Question 48. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution “Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part” deals with?

    (a) the Union Government

    (b) the State Government

    (c) the fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen

    (d) the directive principles of state policy

    Question 49. First Indian sportsperson to win an individual Olympics silver for India is

    (a) Sushil Kumar

    (b) Rajyavardhan Singh

    (c) Abhinav Bindra

    (d) Dhyanchand

    Question 50. Who wrote the Harry Potter series?

    (a) J.R.R. Tolkins

    (b) George R. R. Martin

    (c) J.K. Rowling

    (d) Stephen King

    Question 51. If 3x + 5(4 – 3x) > 2 – 4x < 3x – x/3; then the value of x is

    (a) 3

    (b) 0

    (c) 2

    (d) -1

    Question 52. At 9% discount the selling price of a washing machine is rs 14000, what is the selling price if the discount is 22%?

    (a) Rs. 12000

    (b) Rs. 9360

    (c) Rs. 10202.4

    (d) Rs. 13322.4

    Question 53. A rice trader buys 22 quintals of rice for Rs 3,344.24% rice is lost in transportation. At what rate should he sell to earn 30% profit?

    (a) Rs 88.86 per quintal

    (b) Rs 197.6 per quintal

    (c) Rs 267.2 per quintal

    (d) Rs 260 per quintal

    Question 54. Which of the following is correct?

    (a) (4x – 3y)2 = 16x2 – 12xy + 9y2

    (b) (4x + 3y)2 = 16x2 – 24xy + 9y2

    (c) (4x – 3y)2 = 16x2 + 12xy – 9y2

    (d) (4x – 3y)2 = 16x2 – 24xy – 9y2

    Question 55. The point P(a, b) is first reflected in origin to P1, and P1 is reflected in y-axis to (5, -4). The co-ordinates of point P are

    (a) (-5, -4)

    (b) (-5, 4)

    (c) (5, 4)

    (d) (5, -4)

    Question 56. A missile travels at 1350 km/h. How many metres does it travel in one second?

    (a) 369 metres

    (b) 375 metres

    (c) 356 metres

    (d) 337 metres

    Question 57. If tan 330 = x, then the value of x is

    (a) -1/√3

    (b) -√3

    (c) -1/2

    (d) -1/√2

    Question 58. What is the value of 3/4 + 8/9?

    (a) 57/27

    (b) 11/13

    (c) 59/36

    (d) 11/9

    Question 59. If sinA/√(1 – sin2A) = x, then the value of x is

    (a) tan A

    (b) cot A

    (c) cosec A

    (d) cos A

    Question 60. What is the value of √[1 – cosA)/(1 + cosA)]?

    (a) sinA/(1 – cosA)

    (b) sinA/(1 + cosA)

    (c) tanA/(1 + cosA)

    (d) tanA/(1 – cosA)

    Question 61. The slopes of two lines are 1 and 1/√3. What is the angle between these two lines?

    (a) 15

    (b) 30

    (c) 45

    (d) 60

    Question 62. What are the roots of the quadratic equation 21x2 – 37x – 28 = 0?

    (a) -7/3, 4/7

    (b) 3/7, -7/4

    (c) 7/3, -4/7

    (d) -3/7, 7/4

    Question 63. A rectangular swimming pool of length 25 m and breadth 12 m has a uniformly sloping floor. It is 2 m in depth on one end of its length and 3 m at the other. How much water is needed to completely fill this pool?

    (a) 1500 cubic mts

    (b) 2250 cubic mts

    (c) 3000 cubic mts

    (d) 750 cubic mts

    Question 64. Peeyush has done 1/3rd of a job in 30 days, Sanjiv completes the rest of the job in 60 days. In  how many days can they together do the job?

    (a) 15 days

    (b) 45 days

    (c) 30 days

    (d) 10 days

    Question 65. An angle is twice its completmentary angle. What is the measure of the angle?

    (a) 30

    (b) 90

    (c) 60

    (d) 120

    Question 66. The first and last terms of an arithmetic progression are 33 and -57. What is the sum of the series if it has 16 terms?

    (a) -135

    (b) -192

    (c) -207

    (d) -165

    Question 67. -27 is 3.6% of?

    (a) 750

    (b) 75

    (c) 1500

    (d) 1875

    Question 68. In a Kite _______.

    (a) Two pairs of consecutive sides are congruent

    (b) Diagonals are perpendicular bisectors of each other

    (c) Both diagonals from the two congruent triangles

    (d) Adjacent angles are supplementary

    Question 69. The average weight of Sopan, Guruprasad and Rima is 65 kg. If the average weight of Sopan and Guruprasad be 67 kg and that of Guruprasad and Rima be 57 kg, then the weight of Guruprasad is

    (a) 60

    (b) 53

    (c) 58

    (d) 63

    Question 70. A bank offers 5% compound interest per half year. A customer deposits Rs. 9600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest Is:

    (a) Rs 2928

    (b) Rs 1464

    (c) Rs 732

    (d) Rs 366

    Question 71. By increasing the price of entry ticket to a fair in the ratio 3:5, the number of visitors to the fair has decreased in the ratio 7:2. In what ratio has the total collection increased or decreased?

    (a) increased in the ratio 10:21

    (b) increased in the ratio 6:35

    (c) decreased in the ratio 21:10

    (d) decreased in the ratio 35:6

    Question 72. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

    Division / STd

    Boys

    Girls

    Division A / Standard 5

    30

    30

    Division B / Standard 5

    20

    35

    Division C / Standard 5

    40

    35

    Division A / Standard 6

    35

    15

    Division B / Standard 6

    10

    10

    Division C / Standard 6

    35

    40

    What is the ratio of boys to girls?

    (a) 36 : 35

    (b) 33 : 34

    (c) 34 : 33

    (d) 35 : 36

    Question Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

    Marks

    Number of students

    40 and above

    21

    30 and above

    39

    20 and above

    67

    10 and above

    92

    0 and above

    108

    How many students have scored marks 20 or more but less than 40?

    (a) 67

    (b) 39

    (c) 106

    (d) 46

    Question 74. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

    Year

    GDP growth rate for the year (in %)

    2011

    7

    2012

    6

    2013

    -6

    2014

    -8

    2015

    6

    If the GDP of the country was $8 trillion at the end of 2013, what was it at the beinning of 2015?

    (a) $7.36 trillion

    (b) $8.48 trillion

    (c) $7.52 trillion

    (d) $7.84 trillion

    Question 75. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

    Subjects

    Marks scored

    English

    80

    Hindi

    45

    Math

    55

    Science

    60

    Arts

    65

    Five points are to be deducted from this students average of marks scored because of poor attendance. What will be this student’s net average marks scored?

    (a) 51

    (b) 46

    (c) 61

    (d) 56

    Question 76. Select the antonym of

    To entrust

    (a) to confer

    (b) to allot

    (c) to rely

    (d) to deny

    Question 77. Select the word with the correct spelling.

    (a) chasstity

    (b) collapse

    (c) radialy

    (d) scansione

    Question 78. Select the synonym of

    subsidy

    (a) endowment

    (b) forfeit

    (c) mulct

    (d) reward

    Question 79. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the pharse.

    liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together

    (a) irascible

    (b) crucible

    (c) miscible

    (d) risible

    Question 80. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

    It is wishful thinking that you can improve the situation by doing (with) such people.

    (a) away of

    (b) away with

    (c) from

    (d) no improvement

    Question 81. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

    It is not uncommon

    P-to push for public expenditure

    Q-at a time

    R-when private investment sentiment is weak

    (a) QRP

    (b) PQR

    (c) RPQ

    (d) QPR

    Question 82. Select the synonym of

    digress

    (a) sojourn

    (b) meander

    (c) tarriance

    (d) regress

    Question 83. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

    Can we send this container by ship?

    (a) Can this container be sent by ship?

    (b) Could this container be sent by ship by us?

    (c) Could have we sent this container by ship?

    (d) This container can be sent by ship. Can we?

    Question 84. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

    Shooting fish in a barrel

    (a) To do random acts of stupidity

    (b) To behave in a cruel manner

    (c) Ridiculously easy

    (d) To escape through a narrow opening

    Question 85. Select the word with the correct spelling.

    (a) brunette

    (b) neuronic

    (c) abhorred

    (d) carammels

    Question 86. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best express the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

    "How often do you go to the gym?" said Deepak to Juned.

    (a) Deepak asked Juned that how often he goes to the gym.

    (b) Deepak asked Juned that how often he has been going to the gym.

    (c) Deepak asked Juned how often he went to the gym.

    (d) Deepak asked Juned that how often he went to the gym.

    Question 87. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

    Although of good(A)/rains the production(B)/of food grains fell.(C)/No error(D)

    (a) A

    (b) B

    (c) C

    (d) D

    Question 88. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

    District judges

    P-in far-flung districts

    Q-and gag orders

    R-have been authorising mass blocking of online content

    (a) PRQ

    (b) PQR

    (c) QPR

    (d) RPQ

    Question 89. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

    State laws the sale of alcoholic beverages inside the stadium.

    (a) freeze

    (b) inhibit

    (c) prohibit

    (d) impede

    Question 90. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

    to free someone or something from a constraint or difficulty

    (a) to exterminate

    (b) to expurgate

    (c) to intricate

    (d) to extricate

     

     

     

     

    Question 91. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

    The security for the Prime Minister has been _________up following the shoot out.

    (a) secured

    (b) fortified

    (c) strengthened

    (d) beefed

    Question 92. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

    In summer, the ponds(A)/just dry down(B)/in the scorching heat(C)/No error(D)

    (a) A

    (b) B

    (c) C

    (d) D

    Question 93. Select the antonym of

    prestige

    (a) eminence

    (b) cachet

    (c) insignificance

    (d) kudos

    Question 94. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

    To sleep with the fishes

    (a) Always be in a dream world

    (b) To make absurd excuses

    (c) To sleep peacefully

    (d) To be dead

    Question 95. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

    Don't step near the cliff's edge, else your life (might be thrown into) great peril.

    (a) will be in

    (b) will face

    (c) would be placed in

    (d) no improvement

    Question 96. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

    This is a question that  ____________ beyond rights and democracy. It plunges ______ into the basics of what constitutes that which is social. Is not the primordialism and the __________ of violence being used to construct a new kind of social? Are the current strategies  of law enough to ponder ______ and ___________about such events?

    This is a question that  ____________ beyond rights and democracy.

    (a) goes

    (b) went

    (c) has gone

    (d) is going

    Question 97. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

    This is a question that  ____________ beyond rights and democracy. It plunges ______ into the basics of what constitutes that which is social. Is not the primordialism and the __________ of violence being used to construct a new kind of social? Are the current strategies  of law enough to ponder ______ and ___________about such events?

    It plunges ______ into the basics of what constitutes that which is social.

    (a) far

    (b) deep

    (c) wide

    (d) low

    Question 98. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

    This is a question that  ____________ beyond rights and democracy. It plunges ______ into the basics of what constitutes that which is social. Is not the primordialism and the __________ of violence being used to construct a new kind of social? Are the current strategies  of law enough to ponder ______ and ___________about such events?

    the _______ of violence being used to construct a new kind of social?

    (a) tact

    (b) finesse

    (c) elegance

    (d) banality

    Question 99. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

    This is a question that  ____________ beyond rights and democracy. It plunges ______ into the basics of what constitutes that which is social. Is not the primordialism and the __________ of violence being used to construct a new kind of social? Are the current strategies  of law enough to ponder ______ and ___________about such events?

    Are the current strategies of law enough to ponder

    (a) over

    (b) on

    (c) upon

    (d) about

    Question 100. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

    This is a question that  ____________ beyond rights and democracy. It plunges ______ into the basics of what constitutes that which is social. Is not the primordialism and the __________ of violence being used to construct a new kind of social? Are the current strategies  of law enough to ponder ______ and ___________about such events?

    _ and ______ about such events?

    (a) strategise

    (b) plan

    (c) philosophise

    (d) brood

    Answer Key

    1

    c

    21

    d

    41

    a

    61

    a

    81

    b

    2

    c

    22

    c

    42

    b

    62

    c

    82

    b

    3

    a

    23

    c

    43

    c

    63

    d

    83

    a

    4

    c

    24

    c

    44

    b

    64

    b

    84

    c

    5

    d

    25

    b

    45

    c

    65

    c

    85

    c

    6

    a

    26

    c

    46

    a

    66

    b

    86

    c

    7

    d

    27

    a

    47

    a

    67

    a

    87

    a

    8

    d

    28

    d

    48

    c

    68

    a

    88

    a

    9

    b

    29

    b

    49

    b

    69

    b

    89

    c

    10

    d

    30

    c

    50

    c

    70

    b

    90

    d

    11

    d

    31

    c

    51

    c

    71

    c

    91

    d

    12

    c

    32

    c

    52

    a

    72

    c

    92

    b

    13

    d

    33

    d

    53

    d

    73

    d

    93

    c

    14

    c

    34

    c

    54

    d

    74

    a

    94

    d

    15

    b

    35

    a

    55

    c

    75

    d

    95

    a

    16

    c

    36

    c

    56

    b

    76

    d

    96

    a

    17

    d

    37

    a

    57

    a

    77

    b

    97

    b

    18

    c

    38

    a

    58

    c

    78

    a

    98

    d

    19

    b

    39

    c

    59

    a

    79

    c

    99

    a

    20

    d

    40

    d

    60

    b

    80

    b

    100

    c

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