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SSC CHSL Tier-1 Exam 2016 complete question paper held on 21 January 2017 (Afternoon Shift)

In this article, we have shared the question paper of SSC CHSL exam held on 21thJan, 2017 in the Afternoon session. Let us take a look of the asked questions-

Mar 30, 2018 19:40 IST
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ssc chsl question paper
ssc chsl question paper

SSC CHSL exam is conducted for recruiting LDC/DEO/ Postal assistants in various government departments and ministries. This exam has three stages namely, Tier-1, 2 and 3. As SSC CHSL 2017-18 has commenced. Therfore, start your preparation from to date onwards. In preparation, Previous year papers plays an important role as it gives you a gist about the type of questions and difficulty level. Besides this, SSC used to put previous year questions in the upcoming exams. Hence, it is very necessary and unavoidable step in SSC exam preparation.

In this article, we have shared the question paper of SSC CHSL exam held on 21thJan, 2017 in the Afternoon session. Let us take a look of the asked questions-

SSC CHSL Tier-1 exam 2016: Previous year questions

Question 1. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

India : Rupee : : ? : Taka

(a) Indonesia

(b) Nepal

(c) Bangladesh

(d) Sri Lanka

Question 2. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

RST : QPO : : MNO : : ?

(a) YZA

(b) GHI

(c) BAC

(d) LKJ

Question 3. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

JOCKER : MRFNHU : : DRAUGHT : ?

(a) GUDXKWJ

(b) GUDXJWK

(c) GUDXJKW

(d) GUDJXKW

Question 4. Select the realted word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

8 : 504 : 11 : ?

(a) 1300

(b) 1310

(c) 1320

(d) 1302

Question 5. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) Horse

(b) Pony

(c) Mare

(d) Cub

Question 6. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) VW

(b) ST

(c) BD

(d) PQ

Question 7. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) 85431

(b) 23870

(c) 99300

(d) 11559

Question 8. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) 9

(b) 729

(c) 81

(d) 243

Question 9. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Egg, ? , Pupa, Adult

(a) Larva

(b) Chicken

(c) Mammal

(d) Insect

Question 10.  A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

? , LKJ, DCB, UTS

(a) SRQ

(b) SPQ

(c) SPO

(d) SRT

Question 11. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

WX, AB, FG, ?

(a) LI

(b) LO

(c) LM

(d) LN

Question 12. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

35, 39, 34, 38, ?

(a) 39

(b) 33

(c) 32

(d) 31

Question 13. In the following question, two statements are given each followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statements:

(I) Ramaa is brilliant.

(II) Ramaa is a woman.

Conclusion:

(I) Women are brilliant.

(II) Ramaa is brilliant as she is a woman.

(a) Conclusion I follows

(b) Conclusion II follows

(c) Neither I nor II follows

(d) Both I and II follows

Question 14. Bumrah, Jaggu, Mahi, Yuvi and Sehwag play cricket. Sehwag scored more runs that Yuvi but lesser runs than Mahi. Bumrah scored more runs than Mahi but lesser runs than Jaggu. Who scored the maximum runs?

(a) Yuvi

(b) Bumrah

(c) Mahi

(d) Jaggu

Question 15. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

i. Parachute

ii. Pacable

iii. Pachometer

iv. Pabloism

(a) iv, ii, I, iii

(b) iv, i, ii, iii

(c) iii, i, iv, ii

(d) iv, ii, iii, i

Question 16. In a certain code language, “DOMINOS” is written as “5981796” and “MONEY” is writtern as “89742” How is “MOMOS” written in that code language?

(a) 89872

(b) 89896

(c) 89895

(d) 89897

Question 17. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

17

8

136

19

?

171

8

13

104

(a) 7

(b) 9

(c) 6

(d) 2

Question 18. If “K” means “minus”, “L” means “divided by”, “M” means “plus” and “D” means “multiplied by”, then

104 L 2 K 25 M 2 D 9 = ?

(a) 15

(b) 25

(c) 35

(d) 45

Question 19. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_q_rpq_r_qq_

(a) pqqpr

(b) prpqr

(c) pqqqr

(d) prrrp

Question 20. Ruta left home for school. She moved 5 km in east direction, then she turned towards south-east to move 10 km, again she turned towards north-east to move for another 10 km. From there, she finally moved 5 km towards east to reach her school. How far is she from her home?

(a) 10+10√2

(b) 10+20√2

(c) 20+10√2

(d) 15+20√2

Question 21. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-Il are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, 'D’ can be represented by 01, 10, etc., and ‘R’ can be represented by 34, 22, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word 'GREEN’.

Matrix – I

 

0

1

2

3

4

0

A

D

N

M

R

1

D

T

W

R

W

2

S

H

R

B

E

3

F

R

E

V

R

4

R

E

G

C

F

 Matrix – II

 

5

6

7

8

9

5

H

E

Z

A

T

6

E

G

A

D

Y

7

K

A

X

G

M

8

A

B

C

M

W

9

K

V

M

H

N

 

(a) 98, 40, 85, 19, 20

(b) 01, 04, 42, 76, 98

(c) 78, 34, 65, 24, 99

(d) 42, 04, 24, 41, 88

Question 22. Pointing towards a lady in a picture, Jatin says, “She is the only daughter-in-law of my paternal grandfather’s wife.” How is the lady related to Jatin?

(a) Cousin

(b) Mother

(c) Sister

(d) Niece

Question 23. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

(a)

(b)

(c)

 

(d)

Question 24. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Furniture, Sofa, Tables

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 25. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 26. Which World Heritage Monument has been acclaimed as the “Necropolis of the Mughal dynasty”?

(a) Humayun’s Tomb

(b) Mahabodhi Temple Complex

(c) Qutub Minar

(d) Red For Complex

Question 27. Highest Civilian Honour received by Priyanka Chopra is

(a) Padma Shri

(b) Padma Bhushan

(c) Padma Vibhushan

(d) Bharat Ratna

Question 28. Which drug is used to cure Osteoporosis?

(a) Risedronate

(b) Tramadol

(c) Promethazine

(d) Levothyroxine

Question 29. A ______ is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus.

(a) aloe vera

(b) coral

(c) cactus

(d) mushroom

Question 30. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

(a) Dermatitis

(b) Cholera

(c) Jaundice

(d) Indigofera

Question 31. Which of the following is present in Nail polish remover?

(a) Citric acid

(b) Acetone

(c) Ethylene

(d) Benzene

Question 32. What is the formula of potassium ion in the noble gas state?

(a) K+

(b) K2+

(c) K2-

(d) K-

Question 33. Unix operating system was developed in 1970s by

(a) Moto Labs

(b) Microsoft Labs

(c) IBM Labs

(d) Bell Labs

Question 34. Malayalam is the official language of ________.

(a) Haryana

(b) Jharkhand

(c) Kerala

(d) Uttarakhand

Question 35. If pirce of an article decreases from Rs 18 to Rs 16, quantity demanded increases from 1250 units to 1400 units. What is the point elasticity of demand?

(a) -2.04

(b) -1.08

(c) 1.08

(d) 2.04

Question 36. If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will

(a) decrase demand for good B

(b) decrease demand for both the goods

(c) increase demand for both the goods

(d) decrease demand for good A

Question 37. Qatar is the highest per capita emitter of which of the following gases?

(a) Carbon Dioxide

(b) Carbon Monoxide

(c) Ammonia

(d) Hydrogen Sulphide

Question 38. Where is Dachigam National Park located?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Mizoram

(c) Jammu & Kashmir

(d) Himachal Pradesh

Question 39. Name the first satellite of India dedicated exclusively for educational purposes.

(a) KNOWSAT

(b) TEJSAT

(c) EDUSAT

(d) GSAT

Question 40. In terms of size, Uranus ranks no. ____ in our Solar System.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Question 41. Hyderabad is the Capital City of ______.

(a) Assam

(b) Chhasttisgarh

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Telangana

Question 42. Who was first Viceroy and Governor-General of pre-independence era?

(a) Warren Hastings

(b) Lord William Bentinck

(c) Lord Mountbatten

(d) Lord Canning

Question 43. Jahangir was the son of?

(a) Babur

(b) Humayun

(c) Akbar

(d) Shah Jahan

Question 44. Isaac Newton invented ______.

(a) Thermometer

(b) Reflecting Telescope

(c) Hydraulic Accumulator

(d) Transistor

Question 45. Which among the following is false about work?

(a) If displacement is zero, work is zero

(b) Work done can be negative

(c) It is a vector quantity

(d) Its is unit is Joule

Question 46. What is intertia?

(a) Tendency to resist change in the current state

(b) Tendency to impart acceleration to a body

(c) Tenedency to bring a body to rest

(d) Tenedency to change its current state

Question 47. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is about

(a) Directive Principles of state policy

(b) Imposition of President’s Rule in states

(c) Hindi as official language

(d) Special status to Kashmir

Question 48. The number of paraliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Maharashtra is

(a) 10

(b) 26

(c) 28

(d) 48

Question 49. Which cricketer scored 400 runs in an innings in Test Cricket?

(a) Sachin Tendulkar

(b) Don Bradman

(c) Brian Lara

(d) Vivian Richards

Question 50. Name the author of the book “Discovery of India”.

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) Kiran Desai

(c) K Natwar Singh

(d) Indira Gandhi

Question 51. Triangle ABC is right angled at B. BD is the altitude. AD is 8cm and DC is 18 cm. Find length of BD?

(a) 6 cm

(b) 9 cm

(c) 12 cm

(d) 15 cm

Question 52. Painter ‘A’ can paint a house in 50 days and ‘B’ can do it in 25 days. With help of ‘C’, they did the job in 10 days only. Then, ‘C’ alone can do the job in

(a) 8 days

(b) 16 days

(c) 25 days

(d) 15 days

Question 53. If 4 + 2x ≤ 6 + x and 2x + 5 < 2 + 4x; then x can take which of the following values?

(a) 3

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) 2

Question 54. What are the roots of the quadratic equation 4x2 + 6x – 18 = 0?

(a) 3, -3

(b) 3, 6

(c) 3/2, -3

(d) 3, 3

Question 55. The price of an article is cut by 21%, to restore to its original value, the new price must be increased by

(a) 21 percent

(b) 26.58 percent

(c) 17.36 perent

(d) 26.25 percent

Question 56. If Gafur’s salary is 4/3 times of Haashim’s and Satish’s is 5/4 times of Haashim’s, what is the ratio of Gafur’s salary to Satish’s?

(a) 16 : 15

(b) 3 : 5

(c) 5 : 3

(d) 15 : 16

Question 57. If cosecA/(cosecA – 1) + cosecA/(cosecA + 1) = x, then x is

(a) 2cosec2A

(b) 2cosecA

(c) 2secA

(d) 2sec2A

Question 58. Which of the following is correct?

(a) (2x – y)2 = 4x2 – 4xy + y2

(b) (2x – y)2 = x2 – 4xy + 4y2

(c) (2x + y)2 = x2 – 4xy + 4y2

(d) (2x + y)2 = 4x2 – 4xy + y2

Question 59. Of the 3 numbers whose average is 77, the first is 3/4 times the sum of other 2. The first number is

(a) 148

(b) 66

(c) 99

(d) 198

Question 60. If the amount received at the end of 2nd and 3rd year at Compound Interest on a certain Principal is Rs 34992, and Rs 37791.36 respectively, what is the rate of interest?

(a) 4 percent

(b) 16 percent

(c) 8 percent

(d) 13 percent

Question 61. Slope of the side DA of the rectangle ABCD is -3/4. What is the slope of the side AB?

(a) -4/3

(b) 3/4

(c) -3/4

(d) 4/3

Question 62. If cot 300 – cos 450 = x, then x is

(a) √3 + 2

(b) (√6-1)/√2

(c) (√3-2√2)/√6

(d) (1+√2)/2

Question 63. The length of the diagonal of a rectangle is 10 cm and that of one side is 8 cm. What is the area of this rectangle?

(a) 80 sq cm

(b) 48 sq cm

(c) 60 sq cm

(d) 32 sq cm

Question 64. The two numbers are 55 and 99, HCF is 11, What is their LCM?

(a) 486

(b) 479

(c) 476

(d) 495

Question 65. A dishonest milkman buys milk at Rs 25 per litre and adds 1/5 of water to it and sells the mixture at Rs 29 per litre. His gain is

(a) 16 percent

(b) 39.2 percent

(c) 24 percent

(d) 32 percent

Question 66. If 9x – 6y = 15 and x + 6y = 15, then the value of x,y.

(a) 3, 4

(b) 3, 2

(c) 4, 5

(d) 5, 6

Question 67. A cone of height 25 cm and diameter 21 cm is mounted on a hemisphere of the same diameter. Find the volume of the solid thus formed? (Take π = 22/7)

(a) 3155 sq cms

(b) 1533 sq cms

(c) 3315 sq cms

(d) 5313 sq cms

Question 68. To cover a distance of 297 km in 4.4 hours what should be the average speed of the car in meters/second?

(a) 67.5 m/s

(b) 33.75 m/s

(c) 37.5 m/s

(d) 18.75 m/s

Question 69. The diameter of a circle is equal to the side of the square. What is the are of the square if the area of the circle is 36π sq cm?

(a) 72 sq cm

(b) 144 sq cm

(c) 36 sq cm

(d) 18 sq cm

Question 70. Marked price of an item is Rs 100. On purchase of 2 items discount is 25%, on purchase of 4 items discount is 43%. Rajasi buys 6 items, what is the effective discount?

(a) 37 percent

(b) 26.25 percent

(c) 9.6 percent

(d) 24.6 percent

Question 71. If tan2A = x, then x is

(a) 2tanA/(1 – tan2A)

(b) (1 – tan2A)/2tanA

(c) 2tanA/(1 + tan2A)

(d) (tan2A – 1)/2tanA

Question 72. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

 

Quantity of stock

Average Cost (Rs)

Mobile Phones

40

10000

Cameras

93

20000

TVs

97

52000

Refrigerators

21

22000

ACs

39

23000

What is the value of the total stock (in lakh rupees)?

(a) 866.3

(b) 127

(c) 290

(d) 86.63

Question 73. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

Year

Ratio Import/Export

2011

0.8

2012

1.2

2013

0.8

2014

1.4

2015

0.8

If the imports in 2012 was Rs. 1000 crores and the total exports in the years 2012 and 2013 together was Rs. 3600 crores, then the imports in 2013 was?

(a) 2767

(b) 2213

(c) 833

(d) 3458

Question 74. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

Measured on Birthday

Height of the child (in cms)

4

100

5

110

6

115

7

120

8

125

9

135

10

140

11

150

12

160

13

170

14

175

15

185

16

195

What was the increase in the height of the child from the 7th Birthday to the 15th Birthday?

(a) 75 cms

(b) 70 cms

(c) 65 cms

(d) 60 cms

Question 75. Refer the below data table and answer the following Question.

Deep Sleep

5

Dreaming

10

Light sleep

10

Extremely light sleep

20

Awake

55

Between 10 pm to 6am, a fitness band records the following data. How long was the user Dreaming or was Awake?

(a) 3.7 hours

(b) 4.7 hours

(c) 5.2 hours

(d) 5.7 hours

Question 76. Select the word with the correct spelling.

(a) enarvate

(b) liggament

(c) accesses

(d) dweling

Question 77 - In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

The dog is being fed by us.

(a) We fed the dog.

(b) We have had been feeding the dog.

(c) We are feeding the dog.

(d) We had been feeding the dog.

Question 78 - Select the word with the correct spelling.

(a) autarchie

(b) inately

(c) choossers

(d) gimmicks

Question 79 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

to be indecisive

(a) to vex

(b) to dither

(c) tiff

(d) to stew

Question 80 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

The last Mughal emperor was(A)/send into exile(B)/by the British.(C)/No error(D)

(a) The last Mughal emperor was

(b) send into exile

(c) by the British.

(d) No error

Question 81 - Select the antonym of

elf

(a) pixie

(b) nisse

(c) fay

(d) giant

Question 82 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. Bunty did not just throw the toy, he (has broken it).

(a) had broken it

(b) broke it too

(c) breaks it

(d) no improvement

Question 83 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Being a sunny day(A)/I decided to stay at home(B)/and take a nap.(C)/No error(D)

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Question 84 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

to pull or twist out of shape

(a) to distort

(b) to gnarl

(c) pervert

(d) to repudiate

Question 85 - Select the synonym of batter

(a) insulate

(b) assure

(c) bash

(d) bulwark

Question 86 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

You ought not to (go) there but you did.

(a) have gone

(b) be going

(c) going

(d) no improvement

Question 87 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Keynesian economic theory differs from Marxian.

(a) variably

(b) markedly

(c) literally

(d) usually

Question 88 - Select the antonym of

Imminent

(a) friendly

(b) nigh

(c) escapable

(d) dangerous

Question 89 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

No horse in this race

(a) A rigged contest

(b) A very easily won contest where there are no strong contestants

(c) To have no vested interest in the outcome of a contest

(d) To have no chance of winning

Question 90 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The management should have put up a notice the dates of the event

(a) illustrating

(b) implying

(c) indicating

(d) expressing

Question 91 - Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order:

Therefore, perhaps

P-on ensuring learning standards

Q-there is a case

R-to introduce some clauses

(a) RQP

(b) QRP

(c) PRQ

(d) PQR

Question 92 - Select the synonym of

jeer

(a) compliment

(b) hoot

(c) flatter

(d) praise

Question 93 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To be pushing up daisies

(a) To get up feeling fresh

(b) To be dead and buried

(c) To smell like flowers

(d) Once beautiful but now ugly

Question 94 - Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Public interest litigation,

P-presently serves a role distinctly opposed

Q-therefore,

R-to the rationale behind its fashioning

(a) QPR

(b) RQP

(c) PQR

(d) PRQ

Question 95 - In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best express the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The professor said to the students, 'Work hard if you want to pass the test'

(a) The professor said to the students work hard if they wanted to pass the test.

(b) The professor said to the students work hard if you want to pass the test

(c) The professor advised the students to work hard if they wanted to pass the test

(d) The professor informed the students to work hard if you want to pass the test

Question 96 - In the following passage, some of the words have been left out Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

In the course ____________ the hearing, the Central government to concede that it had not fulfilled many of its statutory _____________ . The National Disaster Policy required under the Disaster Management Act did not exist The Disaster Mitigation Fund proposed under the same Act _________. The National Disaster Response Force did not have ____________ expertise to deal with the drought. It also admitted that the Centre had delayed releasing assistance to States under the National Disaster Response Fund.

In the course _________ the hearing

(a) of

(b) for

(c) to

(d) with

Question 97 - In the following passage, some of the words have been left out Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

In the course ____________ the hearing, the Central government to concede that it had not fulfilled many of its statutory _____________ . The National Disaster Policy required under the Disaster Management Act did not exist The Disaster Mitigation Fund proposed under the same Act _________. The National Disaster Response Force did not have ____________ expertise to deal with the drought. It also admitted that the Centre had delayed releasing assistance to States under the National Disaster Response Fund.  

the Central government ________ to concede

(a) forced

(b) was forced

(c) was being forced

(d) forces 

Question 98 - In the following passage, some of the words have been left out Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

In the course ____________ the hearing, the Central government to concede that it had not fulfilled many of its statutory _____________ . The National Disaster Policy required under the Disaster Management Act did not exist The Disaster Mitigation Fund proposed under the same Act _________. The National Disaster Response Force did not have ____________ expertise to deal with the drought. It also admitted that the Centre had delayed releasing assistance to States under the National Disaster Response Fund.  

it had not fulfilled many of its statutory ______________.

(a) liabilities

(b) contracts

(c) rights

(d) obligations

Question 99 - In the following passage, some of the words have been left out Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

In the course ___________ the hearing, the Central government to concede that it had not fulfilled many of its statutory ___________. The National Disaster Policy required under the Disaster Management Act did not exist. The Disaster Mitigation Fund proposed under the same Act _______. The National Disaster Response Force did not have ___________expertise to deal with the drought. It also admitted that the Centre had delayed releasing assistance to States under the National Disaster Response Fund.

The Disaster Mitigation Fund proposed under the same Act ________________.

(a) would not be created

(b) was not being created

(c) has not been created

(d) could not be created

Question 100 - In the following passage, some of the words have been left out Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

In the course ___________ the hearing, the Central government to concede that it had not fulfilled many of its statutory ___________. The National Disaster Policy required under the Disaster Management Act did not exist. The Disaster Mitigation Fund proposed under the same Act _______. The National Disaster Response Force did not have ___________expertise to deal with the drought. It also admitted that the Centre had delayed releasing assistance to States under the National Disaster Response Fund.

The National Disaster Response Force did not have expertise to deal with the drought

(a) any

(b) some

(c) all

(d) little

Answer Key

1

c

21

c

41

d

61

d

81

d

2

d

22

b

42

d

62

b

82

b

3

c

23

b

43

c

63

b

83

a

4

c

24

a

44

b

64

d

84

a

5

d

25

b

45

c

65

b

85

c

6

c

26

a

46

a

66

b

86

a

7

b

27

a

47

b

67

d

87

b

8

d

28

a

48

d

68

d

88

c

9

a

29

d

49

c

69

b

89

c

10

a

30

a

50

a

70

a

90

c

11

c

31

b

51

c

71

a

91

b

12

b

32

a

52

c

72

d

92

b

13

c

33

d

53

b

73

b

93

b

14

d

34

c

54

c

74

c

94

a

15

d

35

b

55

b

75

c

95

c

16

b

36

d

56

a

76

c

96

a

17

b

37

a

57

d

77

c

97

b

18

d

38

c

58

a

78

d

98

d

19

a

39

c

59

c

79

b

99

c

20

a

40

c

60

c

80

b

100

a

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