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Practice Question Set on Data Interpretation/Logical reasoning for CMAT 2014

Aug 9, 2018 12:31 IST
    Practice Question Set on Data Interpretation Logical reasoning for CMAT 2014
    Practice Question Set on Data Interpretation Logical reasoning for CMAT 2014

    The Question Bank on Data Interpretation/Logical reasoning prepared for CMAT will help you test your knowledge on the subject matter thoroughly.

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    Data Interpretation/Logical reasoning

    Directions for questions (1 to 4) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below:

    Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies - A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value ofthe stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a halftimes that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.

    Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.

    1. What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?

    (a) 30%

    (b) 31 Y4%

    (c) 32 1/2%

    (d) Cannot be determined

    2. If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?

    I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

    II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

    III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

    Iv. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.

    (a) I and II only

    (b) II and III only

    (c) III and IV only

    (d) II and IV only

    3. If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

    I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

    II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

    III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

    IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

    (a) I and II only    

    (b) II and III only

    (c) III and IV only

    (d) II and IV only

    4. If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

    I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.

    II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.

    III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

    Iv. If' Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.


    (a) I and II only

    (b) II and IV only

    (c) II and III only

    (d) III and IV only

    Directions for questions (5 to 8) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below:

    The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

    States Firm A Firm B
    Firm C
    Firm D
    UP 49 82 80 55
    Bihar 69 72 70 65
    MP 72 63 72 65

    Further, it is known that:

    • In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
    • Aggressive Ltd. 's aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd. 's by Rs. 5 million.


    5. What can be said regarding the following two statements?

    Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.

    Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

    (a) Both statements could be true.

    (b) At least one of the statements must be true.

    (c) At most one of the statements is true.

    (d) None of the above.

    6. What can be said regarding the following two statements?

    Statement 1 : Aggressive Ltd. 's lowest revenues are from MP.

    Statement 2 : Honest Ltd. 's lowest revenues are from Bihar.

    (a) If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false.

    (b) If Statement I is false then Statement 2 is necessarily true.

    (c) If Statement I is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.

    (d) None of the above.

    7. What can be said regarding the following two statements?

    Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.

    Statement 2 : Honest Ltd. 's total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

    (a) If Statement I is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.

    (b) "If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.

    (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

    (d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.

    8. If Profitable Ltd. 's lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?

    (a) Truthful Ltd. 's lowest revenues are from MP.    

    (b) Truthful Ltd. 's lowest revenues are from Bihar.

    (c) Truthful Ltd. 's lowest revenues are from UP.    

    (d) No definite conclusion is possible.

    Directions for questions (9 to 12) : Answer these Questions on the basis ofthe information given below:

    In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In thesecond round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 offirst round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
     

    Seed # Name of Player Seed # Name of Player Seed # Name of Player
    1 Maria Sharapova 12 Mary Pierce 23 Silvia Farina Elia
    2 Lindsay Davenport 13 Anastasia Mvskina 24 Tatiana Golovin
    3 Amelie Mauresmo 14 Alicia Molik 25 Shinobu Asazoe
    4 Kim Cliisters 15 Nathalie Dechv 26 Francesca Schiavone
    5 Svetlana Kuznetsova 16 Elena Bovina 27 Nicole Vaidisova
    6 Elena Dementieva 17 Jelena Jankovic 28 Gisela Dulko
    7 Justine Henin 18 Ana Ivanovic 29 Flavia Pennetta
    8 Serena Williams 19 Vera Zvonareva 30 Anna Chakvetadze
    9 Nadia Petrova 20 Elena Likhovtseva 31 Ai Sugiyama
    10 Venus Williams 21 Daniela Hantuchova 32 Anna-lena Groenefeld
    11 Patty Schnyder 22 Dinara Safina    

    9. If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petro va make it to the semi-finals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?

    (a) Dinara Safina    

    (b) Justine Henin    

    (c) Nadia Petrova    

    (d) Patty Schnyder

    10. If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?

    (a) Amelie Mauresmo

    (b) Elena Dementieva

    (c) Kim Clijsters

    (d) Lindsay Davenport

    11. If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?

    (a) Justine Henin

    (b) Nadia Petrova

    (c) Patty Schnyder

    (d) Venus Williams

    12. If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?

    (a) Anastasia Myskina

    (b) Flavia Pennetta

    (c) Nadia Petrova

    (d) Svetlana Kuznetsova

    Directions for questions (13 to 16) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below:

    Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief(TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief(FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

    • A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

     

    • The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

     

    • 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

     

    • The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

     

    • Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.


    13. Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is:

    (a) 1

    (b) 3

    (c) 4

    (d) 5

    14. Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?

    (a) Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.

    (b) Four volunteers are involved in all the three projects.

    (c) Twenty three volunteers are involved in exactly one project.

    (d) No need for any additional information.

    15. After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out ofthe ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?

    (a) The lowest number of volunteers is now in TR project.

    (b) More volunteers are now in FR project as compared to ER project.

    (c) More volunteers are now in TR project as compared to ER project.

    (d) None of the above.

    16. After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 85, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one ofthem was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers?

    (a) ER

    (b) FR

    (c) TR

    (d) Cannot be determined

    Directions for questions (17 to 20) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below:

    The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the lac with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in lac.

    • In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

     

    • A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

     

    • A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting .

     

    • As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.


    The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
     

    Round

    Total

    Votes cast

    Maximum votes cast Eliminated
    City No. of votes City No. of votes
    1   London 30 New York 12
    2 83 Paris 32 Beijing 21
    3 75        

    It is also known that :

    • All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round I, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

     

    • Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beij ing or Paris in round 2.

     

    • The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was I.

     

    • 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round I, voted for Paris in round 3.


    17. What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2?

    (a) 33.33

    (b) 50

    (c) 66.67

    (d) 75

    18. What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round I?

    (a) 16

    (b) 18

    (c) 22

    (d) 24

    19. What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?

    (a) 33.33

    (b) 38.10

    (c) 50

    (d) 66.67

    20. Which of the following statements must be true?

    (a) IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.

    (b) IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.

    (a) Only a    

    (b) Only b

    (c) Both a and b

    (d) Neither a nor b

    Directions for questions (21 to 24) : Answer these questions on the basis ofthe information given below.

    Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

    (a) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone.

    (b) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone.

    (c) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

    (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.

    (e) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

    21. In a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was trailing by three goals. Did it win the match?

    A: In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.

    B: The opponent scored four goals in the match .

    22. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?

    A: Sixty per cent of'the top academic performers were not athletes.

    B: All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.

    23. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan's rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank?

    A: Atul was the last rank holder.

    B: Bala was not among the top two rank holders.

    24. Thirty per cent of the employees ofa call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees have an engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering background?

    A: Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.

    B: Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of female employees having an engineering background.

    Directions for questions (25 to 28) : Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.

      Male (M) Vegetarian (V)
    Class 12 0.60  
    Class 11 0.55 0.50
    Secondary Section   0.55
    Total 0.475 0.53

    25. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?

    (a) 40    

    (b) 45    

    (c) 50    

    (d) 55    

    (e) 60

    26. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?

    (a) less than 8    

    (b) 10    

    (c) 12    

    (d) 14    

    (e) 16

    27. What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?

    (a) 40    

    (b) 45    

    (c) 50    

    (d) 55    

    (e) 60

    28. In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?

    (a) Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.

    (b) Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.

    (c) Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number ofstudents.

    (d) Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.

    (e) All of the above groups have the same number of students. '

    Directions for questions (29 to 32) : Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:

      Year Year Year Year Year
    2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
    Volume of production and sale (units) 1000 900 1100 1200 1200
    Costs (Rs.)          
    Material 50,000 45,100 55,200 59,900 60,000
    Labour 20,000 18,000 22,100 24,150 24,000
    Consumables 2,000 2,200 1,800 1,600 1,400
    Rent of building 1,000 1,000 1,100 1,100 1,200
    Rates and taxes 400 400 400 400 400
    Repair and maintenance expenses 800 820 780 790 800
    Operating cost of machines 30,000 27,000 33,500 36,020 36,000
    Selling and marketing expenses 5,750 5,800 5,800 5,750 5,800

    The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 asthe basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:

    29. What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, ifthe company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?

    (a) 104

    (b) 107

    (c) 110

    (d) 115

    (e) 116

    30. What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?

    (a) 313    

    (b) 350    

    (c) 384    

    (d) 747    

    (e) 928

    31. Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?

    (a) 25,400

    (b) 24,400

    (c) 31,400

    (d) 32,900

    (e) 32,000

    32. If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?

    (a) 1400

    (b) 1600

    (c) 1800

    (d) 1900

    (e) 2000

    Directions for questions (33 to 36) : Answer these questions on the basis ofthe information given below.

    The Table shows the comparative costs, in US'Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
     

      Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries
    Procedure (in US Dollars)
      USA India Thailand Singapore Malaysia
    Heart Bypass 130000 10000 11000 18500 9000
    Heart Valve Replacement 160000 9000 10000 12500 9000
    Angioplasty 57000 11000 13000 13000 11000
    Hip Replacement 43000 9000 12000 12000 10000
    Hysterectomy 20000 3000 4500 6000 3000
    Knee Replacement 40000 8500 10000 13000 8000
    Spinal Fusion 62000 5500 7000 9000 6000
      
    The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

    1 US Dollar equivalent
    India 40.928 Rupees
    Malaysia 3.51 Ringits
    Thailand 32.89 Bahts
    Singapore 1.53 S Dollars

     

    A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

     

    Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries          (in US Dollars)
    Procedure USA India Thailand Singapore Malaysia
    Heart Bypass 3 3 2 4

    Heart Valve Replacement

    Angioplasty

    5

    5

    4

    5

    5

    4

    5

    6

    Hip Replacement 7 5 5 8
    Hysterectomy 5 6 5 4
    Knee Replacement 9 6 4 4
    Spinal Fusion 5 6 5 6

    33. The rupee value increases to Rs. 35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?

    (a) 700

    (b) 2500    

    (c) 4500    

    (d) 8000

    (e) No difference

    34. Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her, native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India.

    (a) 23500    

    (b) 40500

    (c) 57500    

    (d) 67500    

    (e) 75000

    35. A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?

    (a) India

    (b) Thailand

    (c) Malaysia

    (d) Singapore

    (e) USA

    36. Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?

    (a) India    

    (b) Thailand    

    (c) Malaysia    

    (d) Singapore

    (e) India and Singapore

    Directions for questions (37 to 41) : Answer these questions on the basis ofthe information given below.

    A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

    Sector

    No.

    Airport of

    Departure

    Airport of

    Arrival

    Distance between the

    Airports (Km)

    Price (Rs.)
    1 A B 560 670
    2 A C 790 1350
    3 A D 850 1250
    4 A E 1245 1600
    5 A F 1345 1700
    6 A G 1350 2450
    7 A H 1950 1850
    8 B C 1650 2000
    9 B H 1750 1900
    10 B I 2100 2450
    11 B J 2300 2275
    12 C D 460 450
    13 C F 410 430
    14 C G 910 1100
    15 D E 540 590
    16 D F 625 700
    17 D G 640 750
    18 D H 950 1250
    19 D J 1650 2450
    20 E F 1250 1700
    21 E G 970 1150
    22 E H 850 875
    23 F G 900 1050
    24 F I 875 950
    25 F J 970 1150
    26 G I 510 550
    27 G J 830 890
    28 H I 790 970
    29 H J 400 425
    30 I J 460 540

    37. What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?

    (a) 2275    

    (b) 2850    

    (c) 2890    

    (d) 2930    

    (e) 3340

    38. The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight ifit is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What sllould the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?

    (a) 1991

    (b) 2161

    (c) 2707    

    (d) 2745    

    (e) 2783

    39. If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?

    (a) 2275

    (b) 2615

    (c) 2850

    (d) 2945

    (e) 3190

    40. If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?

    (a) 0.77

    (b) 0.88    

    (c) 0.99    

    (d) 1.06    

    (e) 1.08

    41. If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?

    (a) 2170    

    (b) 2180    

    (c) 2315    

    (d) 2350    

    (e) 2390

    Directions for questions (42 to 45) : Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A health-drink company's R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (0, P, Q, Rand S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition ofthese ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is 0: 150, P:50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.

      Composition
    Ingredient

    Carbohydrate

    %

    Protein

    %

    Fat

    %

    Minerals

    %

    O 50 30 10 10
    P 80 20
    Q 10 30 50 10
    R 5 50 40 5
    S 45 50 5

    42. The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?

    (a) O and P    

    (b) R and S    

    (c) P and S    

    (d) Q and R    

    (e) O and S

    43. For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?

    (a) One

    (b) Two

    (c) Three

    (d) Four

    (e) None

    44. Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at leas410% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.

    (a) P and Q    

    (b) P and S    

    (c) P and R    

    (d) Q and S    

    (e) Rand S

    45. In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per unit cost?

    (a) 2:1:3

    (b) 4:1:2

    (c) 2:1:4

    (d) 3:1:2

    (e) 4:1:1

    Directions 46- 50 : These are based on the following Line Chart: The sales and net profit of XPL Electronics in Rs. crores is given below.



    Note: Net profit = Gross Profit - Tax. Gross profit = Sales - Expenses. The figures for sales is given at the bottom of the bar chart and the figures for net profit is given on top of the line chart.

    46. What is the net profit percentage ofXPL in 1998?

    (a) 4.6%    

    (b) 4.8%    

    (c) 5.1%    

    (d) 6.2%

    47. Which year showed the maximum percentage increase in sales?

    (a) 1999    

    (b) 1998    

    (c) 1997    

    (d) 1996

    48. By how much percentage has the net profit dropped in 1996?

    (a) 1.1%    

    (b) 2.27%    

    (c) 2.53%    

    (d) Cannot be determined

    49. If XPL sold 20,000 units in both 1998 and 1999, by what percentage has the price per unit changed?

    (a) 8.7%

    (b) 10.96%    

    (c) 9.86%    

    (d) Cannot be determined

    50. The year in which the expenses ofXPL Electronic are highest is

    (a) 1999

    (b) 1998

    (c) 1997    

    (d) Cannot be determined

    Directions (51 to 55) : These are based on the following data.

    The following chart gives the production of three major crops (in million tons) across five Indian states in the year 1998.



    51. If Tamil Nadu registers an annual increase of 22 per cent in rice production, what was the rice production in Tamil Nadu in 1998?

    (a) 1900 million tons    

    (b) 2300 million tons    

    (c) 2180 million tons    

    (d) 2520 million tons

    52. What is the ratio of total wheat production in the five states to total sugar production?

    (a) 0.6    

    (b) 1.4    

    (c) 1.0    

    (d) 0.75

    53. If sugar costs Rs. 700 per ton and wheat costs Rs. 400 per ton, what was the total 'worth of sugar and wheat production in India?

    (a) 42 million    

    (b) 21 million    

    (c) 10.5 million    

    (d) Data insufficient

    54. If the yield per hectare of sugar is 3.86 tons, what is the ratio of area employed to produce sugar in Bihar to Gujarat?

    (a) 1.15    

    (b) 1.45    

    (c) 1.35    

    (d) Data insufficient

    55. If these five states constitute 77 per lent of the country's wheat production and 23 per ent of country's wheat consumption is imported, what is the amount of wheat importedin 1998?

    (a) 4700 million tons    

    (b) 3900 million tons

    (c) 3500 million tons

    (d) Data insufficient

    Directions (56 to 60) : Read the following information and answer the quetions that follow:

    The cars at. a dealership come with a choice-of the following options: air-conditioning, a cassette deck, leather seats, power windows, a sunroof and tinted glass. None of the cars has any other optional equipment. The following conditions apply:

    If a car has leather seats, it also has a cassette deck. If a car has a cassette deck, it also has power windows; If a car has power windows, it also has a cassette deck.

    Cars with tinted glass have a sunroof, but no air-conditioning. Cars that have air-conditioning have, at most, two other options.

    56. If a car has both tinted glass and leather seats, what is the greatest number of additional options that the car could have?

    (a) 1

    (b) 2   

    (c) 3

    (d) 4

    57. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of options on a car?

    (a) air-conditioning, cassette deck, leather seats, power windows

    (b) air-conditioning , cassette deck, leather seats, sunroof

    (c) cassette deck, leather seats, sunroof, tinted glass

    (d) cassette deck, power windows, sunroof, tinted glass

    58. If a car has power windows and a sunroof, how many different sets of options, at most, can the car have?

    (a) 2

    (b) 3

    (c) 4

    (d) 5

    59. If a car has exactly two options, which one of the following could they be?

    (a) air-conditioning and cassette deck

    (b) tinted glass and sunroof

    (c) cassette deck and leather seats

    (d) power windows and sunroof

    60. If a car has tinted glass, which one of the following CANNOT be true?

    (a) The car has 3 options.

    (b) The car has 4 options.

    (c) The car has power windows and a sunroof.

    (d) The car does not have both leather seats and a cassette deck.

    Directions (61 - 65): The data given below pertains to seven different industry sector with respect to income, expenditure, Profits. Study the data and answer the questions.

    Particulars chemical Divers ified Electricity Food Machinery Services Textiles
    1 Sales 498,476 128,125   82,808     56,401
    2 Other Income 7,303   2,374   2,887 6,097 1,705
    3 Total Income=(1+2)   130,830     128,733   58,106
    4 Raw material cost 338,683 78,237 31,060 48,188 54,994 81,600 33,738
    5

    Power & fuel

    expenses

    18,467   4,865 2,003 1,973    
    6 Salaries and wages 13,791 4,412   4,284 20,038 44,371 4,361
    7 Depreciation 11,065 4,807 6,311   5,026 22,854 3,013
    8 Interest payments 11,135 2,923 5,756     133,619 5,259
    9 Other expenses   24,706 5,604 23,570 34,271 97,092 10,368
    10

    Total expenses

    =(4+5+6+7+8+9)

      119,316 58,769 80,750 120,557 385,694  
    11

    Profit before tax

    =(3-10)

      11,514   3,814 8,176 50,484  
    12 Tax paid 7,467   2,394      
    13

    Profit after tax

    =(11-12)

    19,861 8,887 8,501 2,538 5,001 32,698 -2,874


    61. Which of the following statements is wrong?

    (a) Depreciation expense is the lowest for food industry

    (b) Power and fuel expenses are 5th largest item in the expenditure of diversified industries.

    (c) Electricity industry earns more of other income as a percentage of total income compared to other industries.

    (d) Raw material cost is the largest item of expense in all industry sectors

    62. Depreciation as a percentage of total expenses is maximum in which industry sector?

    (a) Chemical    

    (b) Diversified

    (c) Electricity    

    (d) Machinery

    63. Which industry sector has 'salaries and wages' as 3rd largest item in its expenses?

    (a) Food    

    (b) Services

    (c) Textiles & Food    

    (d) Food & Machinery

    64. If the industry sectors are ranked on the basis of 'Tax paid as a proportion of sales' in the ascending order, then which industry will be placed at rank 3?

    (a) Machinery

    (b) Electricity

    (c) Food

    (d) Diversified

    65. If the ranking is based on Profit Before Tax in the descending order, subject to the condition that 'other expenses' of all the industry sectors equals zero, then which of following statements is wrong?

    (a) Rank of Chemical industry does not change

    (b) Rank of electricity industry declines

    (c) Diversified industry rank changes from 3rd to 4th

    (d) Rank offood industry changes from 5th to 6th

    Directions (66 - 70) : Seven companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production of two items I and II. The comparative data about production ofthese items by the seven companies is given in the following Graph and Table. Study them carefully to answer the questions that follow.

    PERCENTAGE OF THE TOTAL PRODUCTION PRODUCED BY THE SEVEN COMPANIES

    Cost ofthe total production (both items together) by seven companies = 25 crores

    RATION OF PRODUCTION BETWEEN ITEMS I AND II AND THE PERCENT PROFIT EARNED FOR THE TWO ITEMS

      Ratio of Production Percent Profit Earned
    Company Item I Item II Item I Item II
    A 2 3 25 20
    B 3 2 32 35
    C 4 1 20 22
    D 3 5 15 25
    E 5 3 28 30
    F 1 4 35 25
    G 1 2 30 24

    66. Cost of production of item I by companyF is what percent of the cost of production of item Il by company D?

    (a) 16%    

    (b) 33.33%

    (c) 66.67%    

    (d) None of these

    67. What is the total profit earned by company 0 for items I and II together?

    (a) 78lakh    

    (b) 1.62 crore

    (c) 7.8 crore

    (d) 16.2 lakh

    68. What is the ratio of the cost of production of item I by company A to the cost of production of item I by company D?

    (a) 3: 5

    (c) 2: I

    (b) I: 2

    (d) 2: 3

    69. The cost of production of both items together by company E is equal to the total cost of production of both items together by which of the two companies?

    (a) C and D    

    (b) B and G

    (c) A and D    

    (d) C and F

    70. What is the total of the cost of production of item I by company A and the cost of production of item Il by company B?

    (a) 2.6 crore

    (b) 26 lakh

    (c) 3.35 crore    

    (d) 33.65 lakh

     

    Answers
    1 (a)
    36 (a)
    2 (b) 37 (d)
    3 (c) 38 (b)
    4 (b) 39 (c)
    5 (c) 40 (b)
    6 (c) 41 (d)
    7 (b) 42 (e)
    8 (c) 43 (a)
    9 (c) 44 (d)
    10 (c) 45 (e)
    11 (d) 46 (c)
    12 (a) 47 (d)
    13 (c) 48 (b)
    14 (a) 49 (b)
    15 (b) 50 (d)
    16 (a) 51 (d)
    17 (d) 52 (b)
    18 (d) 53 (d)
    19 (d) 54 (b)
    20 (a) 55 (d)
    21 (e)
    56 (c)
    22 (a) 57 (d)
    23 (d) 58 (c)
    24 (c) 59 (b)
    25 (a) 60 (a)
    26 (e) 61 (d)
    27 (b) 62 (c)
    28 (b) 63 (d)
    29 (b) 64 (c)
    30 (c) 65 (d)
    31 (a) 66 (d)
    32 (e) 67 (a)
    33 (b) 68 (c)
    34 (d) 69 (d)
    35 (c) 70 (a)

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