RRB Paramedical 2019: Practice Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers

Practice RRB Paramedical Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers for free here. It will help you in improving your speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy.

RRB Paramedical 2019: Practice Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers
RRB Paramedical 2019: Practice Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers

For clearing RRB Paramedical 2019 Exam candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects (professional ability) for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the RRB Paramedical Health Inspector Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

RRB Paramedical 2019: Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers

Click here to Practice Paramedical Staff Nurse Previous Year Paper

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least

(a) 80%

(b) 85%

(c) 96%

(d) 100%

Answer: (b)

2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during

(a) incubation period

(b) onset of swelling

(c) after swelling appears

(d) prodromal period

Answer: (a)

3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of

(a) 1 year

(b) 2-3 years

(c) 10-15 years

(d) 20-25 years

Answer: (d)

4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a

(a) case

(b) sub clinical case

(c) carrier

(d) all of the above

Answer: (b)

5. Shick test is done in

(a) meningitis

(b) diphtheria

(c) pertussis

(d) poliomyelitis

Answer: (a)

6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is

(a) aluminium phosphate

(b) aluminium hydroxide

(c) zinc phosphate

(d) magnesium phosphate

Answer: (c)

7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

(a) gluteal

(b) deltoid

(c) lateral aspect of thigh

(d) forearm

Answer: (c)

8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component

(a) diphtheria

(b) pertussis

(c) tetanus

(d) adjuvant

Answer: (d)

9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is

(a) DPT

(b) influenza

(c) yellow fever

(d) meningitis

Answer: (c)

10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is

(a) incidence of infection

(b) prevalence of infection

(c) incidence of disease

(d) prevalence of disease

Answer: (c)

11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by

(a) tuberculin test

(b) sputum microscopy

(c) culture

(d) chest X-ray

Answer: (a)

12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is

(a) 1 TU

(b) 5 TU

(c) 25 TU

(d) 250 TU

Answer: (a)

13. Result of mantoux test is read after

(a) 6 hours

(b) 24 hours

(c) 48 hours

(d) 72 hours

Answer: (c)

14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as

(a) liquid vaccine

(b) freeze dried vaccine

(c) both

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b)

15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline

(b) distilled water

(c) dextrose

(d) none of the above

Answer: (a)

16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours

(b) 6 hours

(c) 18 hours

(d) 24 hours

Answer: (b)

17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week

(b) only 6th week

(c) 6-8 weeks

(d) within 1 year

Answer: (a)

18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker

(b) village health guide

(c) health worker male

(d) health worker female

Answer: (a)

19. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases

(b) sub clinical cases

(c) carrier

(d) both (b) & (c)

Answer: (c)

20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) 1/M injections

(b) Tonsillectomy

(c) DPT

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

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21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is

(a) Facco oral route

(b) parentral route

(c) sexual transmission

(d) perinatal transmission

Answer: (a)

22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines

(a) BCG

(b) DPT

(c) OPV

(d) Measles

Answer: (b)

23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for

(a) 6 months

(b) 1 year

(c) 6 years

(d) life long

Answer: (a)

24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except

(a) boiling

(b) drying

(c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L

(d) cresol

Answer: (d)

25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by

(a) rectal catheter

(b) rectal swab

(c) disinfected stool

(d) all of the above

Answer: (a)

26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except

(a) diphtheria

(b) pertussis

(c) measles

(d) MMR

Answer: (c)

27. The MTP act was passed in the year

(a) 1975

(b) 1971

(c) 1986

(d) 2000

Answer: (b)

28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except

(a) chick embryo cell vaccine

(b) human diploid cell vaccine

(c) vero cell vaccine

(d) neural tissue vaccine

Answer: (c)

29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of

(a) Filariasis

(b) Dengue fever

(c) Malaria

(d) Japanese encephalitis

Answer: (a)

30. The causative organism of plague is

(a) Y pestis

(b) R. Prowazeki

(c) Coryne bacterium

(d) Arbovirus

Answer: (a)

31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive

(a) Combined pill

(b) IUD

(c) Condom

(d) Mini pill

Answer: (c)

32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray

(a) paris green

(b) abate

(c) pyrethrum

(d) mineral oil

Answer: (c)

33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is

(a) cresol

(b) dettol

(c) savlon

(d) phenol

Answer: (a)

34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of

(a) 5 years

(b) 10 years

(c) 7 years

(d) 15 years

Answer: (b)

35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (d)

36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women under the RCH programme is

(a) 60 mg

(b) 80 mg

(c) 50 mg

(d) 100 mg

Answer: (c)

37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of contamination

(a) 15

(b) 25

(c) 50

(d) 75

Answer: (d)

38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites should be examined

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 9

Answer: (c)

39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c) 3

(d) none

Answer: (c)

40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of

(a) 7 days

(b) 14 days

(c) 21 days

(d) 1 month

Answer: (c)

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41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito

(a) anopheles

(b) aedes

(c) mansonia

(d) culex

Answer: (b)

42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is

(a) intramuscular

(b) intradermal

(c) subcutaneous

(d) intrathecal

Answer: (a)

43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except

(a) Anthrax

(b) M. Tuberculosis

(c) Streptococcus

(d) Brucella

Answer: (b)

44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by

(a) pearl index

(b) breteaux index

(c) chandler index

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as specified under the IDD control programme is

(a) 40 ppm

(b) 30 ppm

(c) 15 ppm

(d) 50 ppm

Answer: (c)

46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except

(a) promotion of healthy life styles

(b) good nutrition

(c) immunization

(d) treatment

Answer: (d)

47. Communicability of measles declines

(a) after onset of fever

(b) during prodromal period

(c) at the time of eruption

(d) after appearance of rash

Answer: (d)

48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than

(a) 0.5 mg/L

(b) 1 mg/L

(c) 50 mg/L

(d) 200 mg/L

Answer: (a)

49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except

(a) hypertension

(b) cervical cancer risk

(c) gall bladder disease

(d) iron deficiency anameia

Answer: (a)

50. World AIDS day is observed on

(a) December 1st

(b) January 31st

(c) May 1st

(d) October 1st

Answer: (a)

51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in

(a) Cod liver oil

(b) green leafy vegetables

(c) papaya

(d) carrot

Answer: (a)

52. Which is a live vaccine

(a) Hepatitis B vaccine

(b) Hepatitis A vaccine

(c) Oral polio vaccine

(d) DPT vaccine

Answer: (c)

53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin D

(c) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin B12

Answer: (c)

54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is

(a) infants and antenatal mothers

(b) infants

(c) under fives

(d) under fives and antenatal mothers

Answer: (c)

56. RCH programme was launched in the year

(a) 1997

(b) 1992

(c) 1990

(d) 1998

Answer: (b)

57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating mother is

(a) 200 calories

(b) 550 calories

(c) 350 calories

(d) 100 calories

Answer: (b)

58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Iodine

(b) Iron

(c) Fluorine

(d) Copper

Answer: (c)

59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is

(a) domestic refrigerator

(b) ice lined refrigerator

(c) cold box

(d) vaccine carrier

Answer: (b)

60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) Orissa

(d) Kerala

Answer: (c)

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61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is

(a) Vector

(b) Droplet

(c) Formite

(d) Food

Answer: (b)

62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is

(a) Bar chart

(b) Line diagram

(c) Pictogram

(d) Histogram

Answer: (c)

63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is

(a) dettol

(b) phenol

(c) Lysol

(d) formaldehyde

Answer: (d)

64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is

(a) 0,1,6 months

(b) 1,3,6 months

(c) 1,2,12 months

(d) 0,1,5 years

Answer: (a)

65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease

(a) mosquito

(b) rat flea

(c) sand fly

(d) Cyclops

Answer: (d)

66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a

(a) stool examination

(b) CSF examination

(c) blood examination

(d) nerve examination

Answer: (a)

67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is

(a) Tetracycline

(b) Cotrimoxazole

(c) Doxy cycline

(d) Chloroquine

Answer: (b)

68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is

(a) slow sand filter

(b) rapid sand filter

(c) activated sludge process

(d) double pot method

Answer: (a)

69. World Health Day is observed every year on

(a) May 9th

(b) July 11th

(c) April 7th

(d) July 1st

Answer: (c)

70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is

(a) group discussion

(b) flash card

(c) demonstration

(d) flannel graph

Answer: (c)

71. All are anti scabies preparations except

(a) BHC

(b) permethrin

(c) benzyl benzoate

(d) malathion

Answer: (d)

72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except

(a) multiple tube method

(b) membrane filtration technique

(c) colony count

(d) biological oxygen demand

Answer: (d)

73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally

(a) Every day

(b) 2 days

(c) 3 days

(d) 1 week

Answer: (a)

74. All are components of under five clinic except

(a) immunization

(b) growth monitoring

(c) oral rehydration

(d) referral treatment

Answer: (d)

75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except

(a) prescribes minimum standards

(b) is not mandatory

(c) punishment includes imprisonment

(d) latest amendment was in the year 1986

Answer: (b)

76. Physical quality of life index includes all except

(a) infant mortality

(b) life expectancy at age one

(c) per capita GNP

(d) literacy

Answer: (d)

77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except

(a) influenza

(b) cholera

(c) mumps

(d) staphylococcal food poisoning

Answer: (c)

78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) Any one of the above

Answer: (b)

79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by

(a) Site of bite

(b) Severity of bite

(c) Number of wounds

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

80. Noso comial infection means

(a) infection of nose

(b) hospital acquired infection

(c) notifiable disease

(d) new disease

Answer: (d)

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81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except

(a) Malaria

(b) Filaria

(c) Kysanur forest disease

(d) Dengue fever

Answer: (c)

82. Which is not true of small pox

(a) No animal reservoir

(b) No carrier stage

(c) No sub-clinical infection

(d) No air borne transmission

Answer: (c)

83. ORS contains all except

(a) sodium chloride

(b) potassium sulphate

(c) trisodium citrate

(d) glucose

Answer: (b)

84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is

(a) 10-49 degree C

(b) 20-49 degree C

(c) 10-60 degree C

(d) 20-60 degree C

Answer: (c)

85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of

(a) Malaria

(b) Kala Azar

(c) Japanese encephalitis

(d) Typhus fever

Answer: (b)

86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic disease is called

(a) incubation period

(b) serial interval

(c) latent period

(d) median period

Answer: (a)

87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in

(a) Diphtheria

(b) Poliomyelitis

(c) Small pox

(d) Tetanus

Answer: (b)

88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include

(a) Typhoid

(b) DPT

(c) TT

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

89. ILR stands for

(a) Income Literacy Ratio

(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio

(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator

(d) Infant Living Rate

Answer: (c)

90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is

(a) cold box

(b) vaccine carrier

(c) ice pack

(d) freezer

Answer: (b)

91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is

(a) BCG

(b) Polio

(c) Measles

(d) DPT

Answer: (b)

92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means

(a) no vaccination

(b) dose before first dose

(c) no antibody response

(d) vaccination at mobile camps

Answer: (b)

93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection

(a) Pre current

(b) Con current

(c) Terminal

(d) Absolute

Answer: (a)

94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills

(a) bacteria

(b) spores

(c) virus

(d) none of the above

Answer: (d)

95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except

(a) gloves

(b) culture media

(c) plastics

(d) linen

Answer: (c)

96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

(a) 8% bleaching powder

(b) 1% crude phenol

(c) 5% cresol

(d) 1-2% formalin

Answer: (d)

97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using

(a) 1% cresol

(b) bleaching powder

(c) steam

(d) all of the above

Answer: (b)

98. Sputum is best disposed by

(a) burning

(b) boiling

(c) 5% cresol

(d) any of the above

Answer: (c)

99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for

(a) 10 years

(b) 15 years

(c) 20 years

(d) life long

Answer: (d)

100. Which is not true regarding measles

(a) source of infection is a case

(b) secondary attack rate is 80%

(c) carries do not occur

(d) sub clinical measles not known

Answer: (b)

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Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting RRB Paramedical 2019 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in RRB Paramedical 2019 Exam.

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