SSC Phase-8 Exam on 6th, 9th, 10th Nov 2020: Practice SSC Selection Post Phase-7 Previous Year Paper-14th October 2019 Question Paper with Answer Keys

SSC Phase-8 Exam on 6th, 9th, 10th Nov 2020-Practice SSC Selection Post Previous Year Paper with Answer: Get SSC Selection Post Phase-7 14th October 2019 Question Paper with answers. Here you will get all the questions asked from four sections - General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & English Language.

Created On: Nov 5, 2020 11:24 IST
SSC Phase-8 Exam on 6th, 9th, 10th Nov 2020: Practice SSC Selection Post Phase-7 Previous Year Paper-14th October 2019 Question Paper with Answer Keys
SSC Phase-8 Exam on 6th, 9th, 10th Nov 2020: Practice SSC Selection Post Phase-7 Previous Year Paper-14th October 2019 Question Paper with Answer Keys

SSC Phase-8 Exam on 6th, 9th, 10th Nov 2020-Practice SSC Selection Post Previous Year Paper with Answer: SSC Phase-8 Selection Post 2020 Exam will be conducted in online mode on 6th, 9th and 10th November 2020 except at Bihar Exam Centres. The exam will be conducted on 14th December 2020 (only for candidates who opted for Examination Centres in Bihar). Candidates must practice SSC Selection Post Previous Year Papers in online mode to score high marks.

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For the ease of the candidates, we have provided the SSC Phase-7 Selection Post 14th October 2019 Question Paper including all the four sections - English Language, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and General Awareness. The answers of all the 100 questions are given below in the SSC Phase-7 Selection Post 14th October 2019 Question Paper:

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Quantitative Aptitude – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q1. The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. The largest of these numbers is:

a. 25
b. 20
c. 21
d. 23

Q2. If a nine-digit number 785x3678y is divisible by 72, then the value of (7x - 5y) is:

a. 22
b. 20
c. 15
d. 25

Q3. A trader marks his goods at 35% above the cost price. He sells 80% of the goods at the marked price and rest, he sells by allowing 35% discount on the marked price. His profit percent is:

a. 27.55
b. 25.55
c. 20
d. 35

Q4. A sum of Rs. 12500 is distributed among A, B, C & D such that A gets Rs. 800 more than what B gets, C get twice of what B get and D get Rs. 900 more than what A gets. The ratio in which D, C, B & A receive the sums is:

a. 28 : 40 : 20 : 37
b. 28 : 20 : 40 : 37
c. 37 : 20 : 40 : 28
d. 37 : 40 : 20 : 28

Q5. If the seven digit number 5x634y2 is divisible by 88 such that x is not equal to y, then what is the value of (2y - 3x)?

a. 1.
b. 8
c. 15
d. 6

Q6. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 15% on selling a book at a 15% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and the printed price of the book is :

a. 20 : 23
b. 23 : 20
c. 23 : 17
d. 17 : 23

Q7. A can finish a work in 15 days and B can do the same work in twice the time taken by A, then working together, what part of the same work they can finish in five days?

a. ½
b. ⅘
c. ⅓
d. ⅕

Q8. A student cover a distance by cycle at 6 km/hr. He returns to the starting point in a bus at a speed of 42 km/hr. The average speed for the entire journey is:

a. 12.75
b. 24
c. 10.25
d. 10.5

Q9. The three numbers A, B, C are in the ratio ½ : ⅔ : ¾ . The difference between the greatest and smallest number is 21. The three numbers A, B, C respectively are:

a. 56, 42, 63
b. 63, 56, 42
c. 42, 63, 56
d. 42, 56, 63

Q10. A sum of Rs. 825 is lent in the beginning of the year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 month, a sum of Rs. 412.50 more is lent but at a rate twice the former. At the end of the year, Rs. 35.75 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?

a. 3%
b. 3.25%
c. 3.50%
d. 3.15%

Q11. If 7 men and 4 women working together, can do five times as much work per hour as one man and one woman together, then the ratio of the work done by a man and that of a woman for a given time is:

a. 2 : 3
b. 3 : 2
c. 2 : 1
d. 1 : 2

Q12. There are 1550 boys and girls in a school. The number of girls exceeds the number of boys by 500. What is the percentage of girls in the school?

a. 67%
b. 66%
c. 54%
d. 65%

Q13. The average of six numbers is 36. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 37. What is the excluded number?

a. 37
b. 36
c. 35.5
d. 31

Check SSC Selection Posts Phase-8 2020 Important Quantitative Aptitude Topics for 10th/12th/Graduate Level (50 Marks)

 

Q14. If a person sells a pen drive for Rs. 3192, making a profit of 33%, then the cost price of the pen drive is:

a. 2400
b. 2800
c. 3200
d. 3600

Q15. A train X running at 72km/hr crosses another train Y running at 54km/hr in opposite direction in 15 seconds. If the length of Y is two-fifths that of X, then what is the length of X?

a. 375
b. 150
c. 300
d. 225

Q16. What is the area of a sector of a circle, with central angle 75°, what the diameter of the circle is 9 cm?

a. 182π/32
b. 125π/16
c. 185π/16
d. 135π/32

Q17. If 3.4% of 600 of 2.5% of x = 382.5, then the value of x is:

a. 800
b. 775
c. 825
d. 750

Q18. If a + b + c = 7, and a2 + b2 + c= 33, then what is the value of a3 + b3 + c3 -3abc?

a. 257
b. 287
c. 343
d. 175

Q19. A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs. 540 at some profit. Had he sold it for Rs. 470, then there would have been a loss equal to one-sixth of the initial profit. What was the cost price of the article?

a. 525
b. 480
c. 505
d. 540

Q20. If x - x-1 = 6, then the value of x4 + x-4 is:

a. 1158
b. 1154
c. 1440
d. 1442

Q21. The average of fourteen numbers is 46. The average of the first five is 43 and that of last six number is 49.5. The sixth and seventh numbers are respectively 4 and 8 greater than the eighteen number. What is the average of sixth and seventh numbers?

a. 46
b. 48
c. 52
d. 51

Q22. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. x at 8.5% per annum for 2 years is 65.025. What is the value of x?

a. 8625
b. 8500
c. 9000
d. 8725

Q23. If each side of a rectangular field is increased by 32%, then by how much percent does the area of the field increase?

a. 64%
b. 72.84%
c. 67.74%
d. 74.24%

Q24. A man get a discount of 32% and then 25% on his shopping bill of Rs. 5000. What is the total discount percentage he got?

a. 57%
b. 49%
c. 7%
d. 45%

Q25. If a person invest Rs. 33250 in an account that yield 7.4% p.a. Simple interest, then how much does he has after 5 years?

a. 45552.5
b. 12302.5
c. 42255.5
d. 47225.25

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English Language – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q26. Identify the word that is misspelt.

a. Reality
b. Multiple
c. Speciality
d. Acomodate

Directions (27 to 33) Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions given below it.

We are all aware of the danger posed to our lives by pollution. The evidence on pollution’s danger is powerful. It is linked not just to breathing problems but also to increased rates of heart attacks, strokes, cancer, dementia, premature birth and much more. Those who live with polluted air are more likely to die prematurely.

It is especially important to protect those most vulnerable to dirty air’s effects - children, older people and those with heart or lung conditions.

Here are some things we can do to help protect ourselves and our family.

One can begin by choosing one’s route wisely. There are variations in pollution levels, within the same city - even the same neighborhood. It has been found that individuals take in different amounts of toxic air, depending on exactly where they live, and where their routines take them.
This insight can help us to limit the pollution we are exposed to. When walking, running or biking, “the things you can very are, where do you go and when do you go, “said Darby Jack, Associate Professor of Environment Health at Columbia University. By doing these two things we can bring about a reduction in exposure to pollution. Limiting exposure is particularly important during exercise, when we take in more air.

Thus staying clear of the busiest roads, even just by choosing a parallel route a block away, can halve the pollution one breathe in.

Route choice is as important for drivers as for pedestrians, since exhaust fumes can become even more concentrated inside a car. Being careful about the time of day one travels can also be very helpful in protecting oneself against pollution. It has been founded that travelling at less polluted times helps greatly because rush hours, as we all know, generally bring pollution peaks. “It’s basically about awareness,” said frank kelly, director of the Environment Research Group at King’s College, London. “You need to understand where you are being exposed the most, and then you need to be able to take measures to avoid that.''

Q27. Select the correct option.
Air pollution is especially dangerous for

a. Pedestrians, cyclists and bus drivers.
b. Elderly, children and people with lung problems?
c. Men and women above fifty
d. Doctors who deal with respiratory diseases

Q28. Select the correct option.
If we select our route carefully we can

a. Interact with our neighbours
b. Halve the pollution we breathe in
c. Get a free ride to work
d. Find out about new car pools easily

Q29. Select the correct option.
Choosing the timing of our daily routine is important because one can

a. Relax and use the mobile
b. Get very good bargains
c. Enjoy driving on empty roads.
d. Avoid peak hour pollution

Q30. Select the incorrect option.

a. There is nothing we can do to limit our exposure to pollution
b. Becoming more aware about pollution can help fight pollution
c. The route and timing of everyday travel can make a difference
d. One must limit exposure to pollution especially while exercising

Q31. Select the correct option.
It is not safe to be inside an air-conditioned car because

a. We get exposed to other people’s infection
b. The congestion can trigger a heart attack
c. The car can overheat and explode
d. It can be more toxic than outside

Q32. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the given sentence.
Let’s discuss what happened. Don’t beat about the bush

a. Be very secretive and hide things.
b. Avoid talking about what is important
c. Talk rudely and loudly
d. Confide about one’s feelings

Q33. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the given sentence.
My leaving the job with an NGO proved a blessing in disguise as I got a better job.

a. Sometimes that seems bad turns out to be good
b. Sometimes that seems good turns out to be bad
c. Disguises can be blessing
d. Sometimes blessings are not good

Q34. Identify the word that is misspelt.

a. Whisper
b. Breathe
c. Seperate
d. Reveal

Q35. Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
My foreign guest really _______ the Indian food we served last night.

a. Was sleeping
b. Enjoying
c. Enjoyed
d. Were enjoyed

Q36. Select the correct Passive Voice form of the sentence.
Bhula served delicious food to the guest.

a. Bhula has been serving delicious food to the guests.
b. Delicious food was being served by Bhula to the guest.
c. Bhula had served delicious food to the guest.
d. Delicious food was served to the guests

Q37. Select the correct indirect form of the sentence.
Ravi said, “Juhi has gone to the ATM to withdraw money”

a. Ravi says that Juhi has gone to the ATM to withdraw money.
b. Ravi says Juhi is gone to the ATM to withdraw money.
c. Ravi says Juhi will have gone to the ATM to withdraw money.
d. Ravi says that Juhi had gone to the ATM to withdraw money.

Q38. Identify the word that is spelt correctly.

a. Quietely
b. Famly
c. Immediately
d. Homly

Q39. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
DEVELOPED

a. Artistic
b. Backward
c. Progressive
d. Modern

Q40. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Agitated

a. Sure
b. Lazy
c. Confident
d. Upset

Q41. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Far away from other places

a. Crowded
b. Scenic
c. Wonderful
d. Isolated

Q42. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Suggesting that something unpleasant is likely to happen

a. Promising
b. Ominous
c. Auspicious
d. Providental

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Q43. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
ELIMINATE

a. Offer
b. Grow
c. Remove
d. Refuse

Q44. Select the correct option to fill in the blank
At what time ___________ you return from office last night?

a. Does
b. Did
c. Do
d. Were

Q45. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word
NORMAL

a. Boring
b. Strange
c. Natural
d. Average

Directions (46 to 50) Comprehension: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives givens. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Wander Trust is a unique travel company that (1) __________ domestic and international trips. These personalized “blind trips, (2) ___________ the destination and itinerary a secret (3) _____________ the costumer till a day before (4) ____________ journey. The pressure of planning (5) ______________ off the shoulder of the client.

Q46. Select the correct option to fill in the blanks no. 1
a. Offers
b. Offering
c. Offered
d. Offer

Q47. Select the correct option to fill in the blanks no. 2

a. Make
b. Start
c. Keep
d. Remain

Q48. Select the correct option to fill in the blanks no. 3

a. Till
b. With
c. From
d. To

Q49. Select the correct option to fill in the blanks no. 4

a. Many
b. The
c. An
d. Some

Q50. Select the correct option to fill in the blanks no. 5

a. Was completely
b. Will be completely
c. Is completely
d. Had completed

General Intelligence & Reasoning – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q51. What of the option figure will replace the question mark to continue the figure series given below?

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Q52. ‘Egypt’ is related to ‘Africa’ in the same way as ‘Singapore’ is related to ‘_________’

a. Europe
b. Canada
c. Asia
d. America

Q53. In a code language, ‘FOAG’ is written as ‘PGHB’. How will ‘LAMB’ be written in that language?

a. BMCN
b. CNCM
c. BMDN
d. CMDN

Q54. In a code language, if ‘FAST’ is coded as ‘3628’, ‘CLOSE’ is coded as ‘14927’ then how will ‘LEAF’ be coded in the same language?

a. 4763
b. 1789
c. 3784
d. 2863

Q55. Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in English dictionary?

1. Party
2. Parcel
3. Pardon
4. Parking
5. Pattern

a. 15432
b. 23415
c. 25134
d. 25431

Q56. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series will complete the series.
_UK_D_KZD_KZ

a. DZUU
b. UZDU
c. DUZZ
d. DZUZ

Q57. Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

a. 34251
b. 23154
c. 23415
d. 42145

Q58. In a code language, ‘FACTORY’ is written as ‘ACFORTY’. How will ‘CONFIRM’ be written in that language?

a. CIFMNOR
b. FICNMRO
c. CFINORM
d. CFIMNOR

Q59. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
11 : 143 :: 15 : ?

a. 255
b. 277
c. 248
d. 263

Q60. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow from the statements.

Statement:
All gardens are play-grounds
No playground is house

Conclusion:
Some gardens are house
Some playground are gardens

a. Both conclusion I and II follows
b. Only conclusion I follows
c. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
d. Only Conclusion II follows

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Q61. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow from the statements.

Statement:
Some prizes are papers
All papers are certificate

Conclusion:
Some certificate are papers
Some certificate are prizes
Some papers are prizes

a. Only Conclusion I and III follows
b. Only Conclusion I and II follows
c. All conclusion follows
d. Only Conclusion II and III follows

Q62. If ‘P+Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’, and ‘P÷Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’, then what is the meaning of the expression ‘A + B ÷ C’ ?

a. B is the brother of C
b. B is the son of A
c. A is maternal grandfather of C
d. A is the father of C

Q63. Which letter cluster will replace the questions mark to complete the given series?
TPD, URG, ?, WVM

a. VTM
b. UTJ
c. VTJ
d. VUJ

Q64. In a code language, if ‘NEST’ is coded as ‘132287’, then how will ‘RAMP’ be coded in the same language?

a. 9261411
b. 8261411
c. 9461412
d. 9845841

Q65. Which two sign and two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equations correct?
64-4x2÷8+7 = 19

a. 4 and 8, ÷ and -
b. 64 and 8, + and -
c. 4 and 8, - and +
d. 64 and 8, + and ÷

Q66. Ankit is brother of Vishal, Kartik is son of Arpit. Malini is mother of Oshi who is the sister of Vishal. Ankit’s father is the only son of Arpit. How is Malini related to Kartik?

a. Wife
b. Paternal Granddaughter
c. Sister
d. Daughter

Q67. In a code language, if ‘FOR’ is coded as ‘78’, then how will ‘TUB’ be coded in the same language?

a. 90
b. 86
c. 82
d. 96

Q68. In a code language, ‘SAINT’ is written as ‘UCKPV’. How will ‘WASTE’ be written in that language?

a. YCUVG
b. ZBTVG
c. YCUUG
d. ZCUVH

Q69. Which letter cluster will replace the questions mark to complete the given series?
BLACK, BLACL, BLADL, BLBDL, ?, CMBDL

a. BLBEL
b. BMBDL
c. BNBDL
d. BMBDM

Q70. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series will complete the series.
M_Q_DMC_Y_MC_YD

a. CYQQD
b. CYDDQ
c. CYQDQ
d. CQYQD

Q71. In a code language, ‘TEMPER’ is written as ‘ETPMRE’. How will ‘CHROME’ be written in that language?

a. CHEOMR
b. RHCEMO
c. HCROEM
d. HCOREM

Q72. Which number will replace the question mark in the following series?
64, 65, 69, 78, 94, ?

a. 122
b. 121
c. 119
d. 120

Q73. Select the correct mirror image of the given number cluster when the mirror is placed to the right side of the cluster:

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Q74. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
Realistic : Fictional :: Appreciation : ?

a. Valuable
b. Unrealistic
c. Criticism
d. Praise

Q75. In a code language, ‘BEAUTY’ is coded as ‘251212025’. How will ‘FRIDGE’ be coded in that language?

a. 6178475
b. 6784722
c. 6189475
d. 5289535

Check SSC Selection Posts Phase-8 2020 Important Reasoning Topics for 10th/12th/Graduate Level (50 Marks)

General Awareness – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q76. Blood in urine or stool can be caused by the deficiency of which of the following vitamin?

a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Folate
d. Thiamine

Q77. Which of the following is a folk painting form of Bihar?

a. Pithora Painting
b. Madhubani painting
c. Thangka Painting
d. Pattachitra Painting

Q78. As on September 2019 who is the defence minister of India?

a. Amit Shah
b. Nirmala Sitaram
c. Rajnath Singh
d. Nitin Gadkari

Q79. Which Indian received the nobel peace prize of 2014?

a. Sam Pitroda
b. Mother Teresa
c. Kailash Satyarthi
d. Nadia Murad

Q80. Which of the following Indian has won the Oscar twice?

a. Satyajit Ray
b. Bhanu Athaiya
c. Aamir Khan
d. A.R. Rahman

Q81. Tsunami is a type of ___________.

a. Cyclone
b. Thunder Storm
c. Avalanche
d. Earthquake

Q82. Which aspect of Indian constitution has been influenced from South Africa?

a. Imposition of Emergency
b. Removal of temporary provisions in any article
c. Fundamental rights
d. Election of members of Rajya Sabha

Q83. What was the first element discovered by Marie and Pierre Curie?

a. Polonium
b. Francium
c. Radium
d. Uranium

Q84. Which of the following match in correct?

a. Tabla - Zakir Hussain
b. Santoor - Hariprasad Churasia
c. Shehnai - Allah Rakha
d. Sarod - Bismillah Khan

Q85. Which of the following is NOT an Indian Classical Dance form?

a. Mohiniattam
b. Manipur
c. Odissi
d. Bhangra

Q86. Iodine solution is used in milk testing to find the adulteration of _________.

a. Cellolose
b. Dextrose
c. Protein
d. Starch

Q87. The great Indian desert does NOT extent to ___________ state among following.

a. Punjab
b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Gujarat

Q88. Which of the following is the largest tectonic or lithospheric plate of Earth?

a. Antarctic
b. Pacific
c. Eurasian
d. Indian

Q89. M.K. Gandhi ‘the father of Nation” by profession was a _________.

a. Business man
b. Farmer
c. Freedom Fighter
d. Lawyer

Q90. What was the total time taken by Chandrayaan-2 lander to reach near moon surface.

a. 48 days
b. 7 days
c. 32 days
d. 21 days

Check SSC Selection Post Phase-8 2020 Important General Awareness & Current Affairs Topics for 10th/12th/Graduate Level (50 Marks)

 

Q91. Which of the following has been adjudged as the ‘Beat Swachh Iconic place’ of India for 2019?

a. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus
b. Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine
c. Golden Temple
d. Taj Mahal

Q92. The finance minister Mrs. Nirmala Sitaraman has proposed the merger of ________ and _________ into Punjab National Bank.

a. Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank
b. Oriental Bank of Commerce And United Bank of India
c. Allahabad Bank and Indian Bank
d. Dena Bank and Canara Bank

Q93. Which of following player has played consecutively 3 times in world badminton championship finals?

a. P.V. Sindhu
b. Ashwini Ponnappa
c. Jwalla Gutta
d. Saina Nehwal

Q94. _________ is the tissue consisting mainly of fat cells.

a. Cardiac tissue
b. Reticular tissue
c. Epithelial tissue
d. Adipose tissue

Q95. What was the codename given to the atomic bomb that exploded in Hiroshima during World War II?

a. Thin Man
b. Little Boy
c. Bad Gauy
d. Fat Mod

Q96. Which of following is the world's most populous democracy?

a. China
b. America
c. India
d. Russia

Q97. Who first designed the current tricolour flag of Government of India?

a. Hardyal Pandey
b. Bankim Chandra
c. Ravindernath Tagore
d. Pingali Venkayya

Q98. Who has been selected as best female Asian athlete 2019 by Asian sportswriters Union?

a. P.V. Sindhu
b. Mithali Raj
c. Dutee Chand
d. Mary Kom

Q99. According to the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty, the eastern rivers of the water system - Sutlej, Ravi and _____, were to be with India

a. Jhelum
b. Indus
c. Chenab
d. Beas

Q100. “Bindusara” a great king was the son of _________.

a. Ashika
b. Chandragupta Maurya
c. Sarvartha - Siddhi
d. Vikramaditya

Answer Key:

SSC Selection Post Previous Year Paper: SSC Phase-7 14th October 2019 Question Paper with Answer Keys

1

(d)

21

(a)

41

(d)

61

(c)

81

(d)

2

(a)

22

(c)

42

(b)

62

(c)

82

(d)

3

(b)

23

(d)

43

(c)

63

(c)

83

(a)

4

(d)

24

(b)

44

(b)

64

(a)

84

(a)

5

(d)

25

(a)

45

(b)

65

(a)

85

(d)

6

(d)

26

(d)

46

(a)

66

(a)

86

(d)

7

(a)

27

(b)

47

(c)

67

(b)

87

(c)

8

(d)

28

(b)

48

(c)

68

(a)

88

(b)

9

(d)

29

(d)

49

(b)

69

(b)

89

(d)

10

(b)

30

(a)

50

(c)

70

(c)

90

(a)

11

(d)

31

(d)

51

(c)

71

(d)

91

(b)

12

(b)

32

(b)

52

(c)

72

(c)

92

(b)

13

(d)

33

(a)

53

(a)

73

(d)

93

(a)

14

(a)

34

(c)

54

(a)

74

(c)

94

(d)

15

(a)

35

(c)

55

(b)

75

(c)

95

(b)

16

(d)

36

(d)

56

(a)

76

(a)

96

(c)

17

(d)

37

(d)

57

(c)

77

(b)

97

(d)

18

(d)

38

(c)

58

(d)

78

(c)

98

(d)

19

(b)

39

(b)

59

(a)

79

(c)

99

(d)

20

(d)

40

(d)

60

(d)

80

(d)

100

(b)