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CDS Previous Year Papers: Answer Key & Detailed Solution to Indian Polity Qns.

Dec 19, 2017 18:15 IST
    CDS Previous Year Questions: Solution to Indian Polity Qns.
    CDS Previous Year Questions: Solution to Indian Polity Qns.

    For the benefit of CDS (I) 2018 Exam aspirants, Jagran Josh is providing answers key and explanation to the Indian Polity questions asked in the last three years. They help the aspirants in understanding the nature of the questions and identifying the important areas of India Polity from the CDS Exam point of view.

    1. Constitutional safeguards available to civil servants are ensured by

    (a) Article 310
    (b) Article 311
    (c) Article 312
    (d) Article 317

    Answer. (b) Article 311

    Article 311 of the Constitution deals with the dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.

    2. Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?

    1. Rule of Law
    2. Law-making Procedure
    3. Independence of Judiciary
    4. Parliamentary System
    If Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4

    Answer. (d) 1, 2 and 4

    Features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution are –
    1. Parliamentary government
    2. Rule of Law
    3. Legislative procedure
    4. Single citizenship
    5. Cabinet system
    6. Prerogative writs
    7. Parliamentary privileges
    8. Bicameralism

    3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?

    (a) Fifth Schedule
    (b) Third Schedule
    (c) Sixth Schedule
    (d) Fourth Schedule

    Answer. (d) Fourth Schedule

    Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with allocation of seats to various States in the Rajya Sabha.

    4. A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is

    (a) Mandamus
    (b) Habeas Corpus
    (c) Certiorari
    (d) Prohibition

    Answer. (b) Habeas Corpus

    Habeas Corpus is a Latin term, which literally means “You should have the body”. The writ is issued to a produce a person before a Court who has been detained or imprisoned and not produced before the magistrate within 24 hours whether in prison or private custody and would release the person if such detention is found illegal. The purpose of the writ is not to punish the wrong doer but merely to release the person unlawfully detained.

    5. Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

    (a) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.
    (b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.
    (c) Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.
    (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

    Answer. (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

    Article 360 of the Constitution deals with the financial emergency in the country. However, it pertains to the Union level and there is no special mention in relation to the State.

    6. Which one of the following cannot be first introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?

    (a) Constitutional Amendment
    (b) CAG Report
    (c) Annual Financial Statement
    (d) Bill to alter the boundaries of any State

    Answer. (c) Annual Financial Statement

    Annual Financial Statement is a document presented to the Parliament every year under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, showing estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India for the coming year in relation to revised estimates for the previous year as also the actual amounts for the year prior to it. It is introduced in the Lok Sabha first.

    7. The National Commission for Women was created by

    (a) an amendment in the Constitution of India
    (b) a decision of the Union Cabinet
    (c) an Act passed by the Parliament
    (d) an order of the President of India

    Answer.(c) an Act passed by the Parliament

    The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body of the Government of India, generally concerned with advising the government on all policy matters affecting women. It was established in January 1992 under the provisions of the Indian Constitution  as defined in the 1990 National Commission for Women Act. The first head of the commission was Jayanti Patnaik.

    8. Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?

    (a) It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.
    (b) The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.
    (c) It is not enforceable by any Court.
    (d) It is not enforceable by any Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

    Answer. (a) It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

    The Uniform Civil Code is not a fundamental right. It is mentioned in the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 44 of the Constitution.

    9. Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?

    (a) People's Resurgence and Justice Alliance
    (b) Manipur Resistance Alliance
    (c) Tribal Resistance Party
    (d) Revolutionary People's Party

    Answer. (a) People's Resurgence and Justice Alliance

    Human rights activist Irom Sharmila on 18 October 2016 announced the formation of her political party named Peoples Resurgence and Justice Alliance (PRJA). The announcement was made with a promise to fight for justice and peace among the people.

    10. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?

    (a) Two
    (b) Three
    (c) Four
    (d) Five

    Answer. (a) Two

    All money bills must be received by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days of the receipt.

    11. Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting:

    1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission
    2. The Eleventh Finance Commission
    3. Punchhi Commission
    4. Sarkaria Commission
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 4, 2, 1, 3
    (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
    (c) 3, 2, 4, 1
    (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

    Answer. (a) 4, 2, 1, 3

    The years of establishment of the commissions are - The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005), The Eleventh Finance Commission (1998),  Punchhi Commission (2007) and Sarkaria Commission (1983).

    12. Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct?

    1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
    2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.
    3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy.
    4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1, 2 and 4
    (d) 1 and 4 only

    Answer. (a) 1, 2 and 3

    As per the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution, the State Legislature shall by law entrust the Panchayats with the power and authority to function.

    13. Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct?

    1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
    2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries.
    3. There is no dual citizenship in India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 2 only

    Answer. (b) 2 and 3 only

    In India, all the States don’t enjoy equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. The number of Rajya Sabha seats allotted for a State depends on its population.

    14. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?

    1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
    2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts
    3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it
    4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 3 and 4 only

    Answer. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    The Supreme Court of India is the apex court of the country and enjoys all the powers mentioned above. All these powers of the Court are mentioned in the Constitution of India.

    15. Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct?

    1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.
    2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him.
    3. The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 3 only

    Answer. (a) 1, 2 and 3

    All the above given statements are true and they are mentioned in various Articles of the Constitution.

    16. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

    1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
    2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right.
    3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 2 only

    Answer. (c) 1 and 3 only

    As per the Article 21 of the Constitution, the Right to Life is guaranteed as a fundamental right. However, the contention that the State has no authority to violate the right is not true since the State has the authority to award death penalty to an erring subject.
    The third statement is not true since, the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act of 1971 places a 20-week ceiling on termination of pregnancy, thus restricting the reproductive choices of women.

    17. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India?

    1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
    2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
    3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 3 only

    Answer. (a) 1, 2 and 3

    All the above given statements are true and are mentioned in the Article 21A and the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009.

    18. Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct?

    (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.
    (b) Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
    (c) Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
    (d) Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

    Answer. (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.

    The statement is false as the Constitution, through the Article 26, guarantees to every religious denomination, whether a majority or minority community, to to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

    19. Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct?

    (a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.
    (b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice.
    (c) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.
    (d) The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.

    Answer. (c) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.

    Article 21 of the Constitution prescribes that every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of 24 hours.

    20. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

    1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law.
    2. The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.
    3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 2 only

    Answer. (a) 1, 2 and 3

    All the above given statements related to the Preamble of the Constitutio are correct.

    21. Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?

    (a) Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve its language, script or culture.
    (b) No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language.
    (c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.
    (d) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

    Answer. (c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.

    As per the Article 30 of the Constitution, the State shall not discriminate in granting aid to educational institutions on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community or a minority community.

    22. Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?

    (a) The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court.
    (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.
    (c) It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive Principles in making laws.
    (d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.

    Answer.  (d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.

    In fact, the Directive Principles of State Policy are directed in making India a socialist country.

    23. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice President of India?

    (a) The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.
    (b) The Vice President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
    (c) The Vice President shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State.
    (d) The Vice President of India shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit.

    Answer. (a) The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.
    The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the all the members of the both the Houses of the Parliament.

    24. Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India?

    (a) The Supreme Court of India
    (b) The Election Commission of India
    (c) The Parliamentary Committee
    (d) The High Court of Delhi

    Answer. (a) The Supreme Court of India

    As per the Article 71 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India.

    25. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct?

    1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
    2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
    3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation.
    4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 2 and 4
    (d) 1 and 3 only

    Answer. (d) 1 and 3 only

    In India, the Universal Adult Franchise was introduced only in the post-independence period during the first general elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies.

    26. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to

    1. the power of judicial review
    2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
    3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India
    4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967)
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1 and 4

    Answer. (a) 1, 2 and 3

    The Golaknath Case of 1967 relates to the power of the Parliament to curtail the Fundmenatla Rights provided in the Constitution.

    27. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens?

    1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech)
    2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
    3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
    4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1, 3 and 4
    (d) 1 and 4 only

    Answer. (c) 1, 3 and 4

    Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) is available to both citizens and foreigners except enemy aliens.

    28. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she

    1. renounces Indian citizenship
    2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
    3. marries a citizen of another country
    4. criticizes the Government
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1 and 4

    Answer.  (c) 1 and 2 only

    29. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?

    (a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused.
    (b) The accused must have violated an existing law.
    (c) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again.
    (d) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.

    Answer. (b) The accused must have violated an existing law.

    As per the Constitution, a person/entity can be tried retrospectively in certain instances as provided by the law.

    30. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India?

    (a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
    (b) It is a part of fundamental rights.
    (c) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay.
    (d) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.

    Answer. (d) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.

    Protection under Article 32 applies only to the fundamental rights as provided by the Constitution.

    31. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?

    (a) Habeas Corpus
    (b) Mandamus
    (c) Certiorari
    (d) Quo Warranto

    Answer. (a) Habeas Corpus

    32. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

    (a) To respect the National Flag
    (b) To defend the country
    (c) To provide education to one’s child
    (d) To promote village and cottage industries

    Answer. (d) To promote village and cottage industries

    33. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by

    1. war
    2. external aggression
    3. armed rebellion
    4. internal disturbance
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1, 3 and 4
    (d) 1 and 2 only

    Answer. (a) 1, 2 and 3

    The 44th Constititon Amendment Act, replaced the phrase ‘internal disturbance’ with the ‘armed rebellion’ to avoid its misuse by the government in power.

    34. Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India?

    1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India
    2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
    3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 2 and 3 only

    Answer. (c) 1, 2 and 3

    All the above given statements are correct.

    35. Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court?

    (a) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.
    (b) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India.
    (c) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgment or order.
    (d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.

    Answer. (d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.

    The High Courts has similar power under the Article 226 of the Constitution.

    36. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?

    (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
    (b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram
    (c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura
    (d) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh

    Answer. (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

    37. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?

    (a) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
    (b) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.
    (c) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure.
    (d) The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule.

    Answer. (b) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.

    In fact, the ninth schedule was inserted in the Constitution to protect legislations on the pretext of violating fundamental rights. The schedule was inserted to protect against the Zamindari Abolotion Laws in the post-independent era.

    38. Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct?

    1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.
    2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced.
    3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India.
    4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 4 only

    Answer. (a) 3 only

    The laws relating to the delimitation of constituencies are made by the Parliament.

    39. Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?

    (a) The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes.
    (b) All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
    (c) The Commission while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court.
    (d) The Commission has the power to regulate its own procedures.

    Answer. (b) All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.

    All the reports of the Commission are presented to the President, who in turn sends them to the both the houses of the Parliament.

    40. The right to form associations and unions is a right

    (a) guaranteed to everybody
    (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
    (c) to equality before law
    (d) to life and personal liberty

    Answer. (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only

    As per the Article 19 of the Constitution, the right to form associations and unions is a fundamental rights guaranteed only to citizens.

    41. Some Indian territory was transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh by following which procedure?

    (a) By an agreement between the Government of India and the Government of Bangladesh
    (b) By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
    (c) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament
    (d) By amending Schedule 1 to the constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament and ratification by sixteen State Legislatures

    Answer. (c) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament

    Since, the law is not related to federal matters, only the approval of the Parliament is needed.

    42. After the general elections, the Pro tern Speaker is

    (a) elected by the Lok Sabha
    (b) appointed by the President of India
    (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
    (d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha

    Answer. (d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha

    As per the provisions of the Constitution, the President of India appoints the senior most members of the newly constituted Lok Sabha as the pro term speaker who oversees the oath taking of new members.

    43. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the Constitution of India?

    1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
    2. Gives official status to certain religions
    3. Provides freedom to profess any religion
    4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2, 3 and 4
    (d) 2 only

    Answer. (d) 2 only

    The preamble of the Constitution declares India as a secular country, hence, no religion is granted an official status.

    44. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to

    1. implementation of Directive Principles
    2. Fundamental Duties
    3. Right to Equality
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer. (a) 1 and 2 only

    45. Which one of the following statements about the process of the Parliament to make new States is not correct?

    (a) The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter the boundaries or names of existing States.
    (b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except on the recommendation of the President.
    (c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the Legislature of the affected State.
    (d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.

    Answer. (d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.

    Such a law doesn’t fall under the purview of Article 368 and, hence, requires simple majority in a house to be approved.

    46. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

    1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
    2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer. (c) Both 1 and 2

    47. The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution of India is not available to

    1. an enemy alien
    2. a person detained under a preventive detention law
    3. a foreigner
    4. an overseas citizen of India
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 3 and 4 only

    Answer. (a) 1 and 2 only

    48. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is/are available to non-citizens?

    1. Equality before Law
    2. Right against Discrimination
    3. Equality of Opportunity
    4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4
    (d) 2 and 3

    Answer. (b) 1 and 4 only

    Fundamental rights as provided under the Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are available to citizens only.

    49. Which of the following statements about the formation of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct?

    1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946.
    2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the Princely States.
    3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
    4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions were solicited from the public.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 3 and 4
    (d) 1 and 4

    Answer. (d) 1 and 4

    93 members represented the Princely States. And, the discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.

    50. Which one of the following statements about Electoral Government in India is not correct?

    (a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections are vested in the Election Commission of India.
    (b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency.
    (c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating to the delimitation of constituencies.
    (d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to the delimitation of constituencies.

    Answer. The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to the delimitation of constituencies.
    As per the delimitation laws, no court, including the Supreme Court, has the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to the delimitation of constituencies.

    Best Wishes from Jagran Josh!!!

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