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NVS 2019 (Recruitment): Mock Question Paper for NVS PGT/TGT Teachers

NVS Navodaya Vidyalaya 2019 Jobs: Candidates can check their preparation level by solving the given NVS teacher question paper or NVS practice paper.

Jul 29, 2019 16:38 IST
NVS Previous Year Question Paper

NVS Navodaya Vidyalaya TGT/PGT Teacher 2019 (Practice Paper): Here we have provided the mock Question Paper, containing questions from sections like Hindi, English, Reasoning ability & Teaching Aptitude. The NVS Teacher Recruitment 2019 has been rolled out for PGT, TGT, LDC, AC, Staff Nurse, Catering Assistant & others by the Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti. Interested candidates can apply for the NVS Teacher recruitment @navodaya.gov.in and begin with their preparations for the NVS Written or Online Exam which will be held during 5 - 15 September 2019.  When it comes to competitive exam preparation, there is nothing better than the Previous Year Papers. Have a look at the previous year question paper of NVS PGT recruitment.

Aspirants, who intend to appear for the NVS Recruitment 2019 Exam for NVS PGT/TGT/LDC/AC/MISC can take this paper and be sure about their preparation level. This question will also be helpful for candidates preparing for the Trained Graduate Teacher (TGT) & Other Miscellaneous Teachers (Librarian, Art, Music, PET); Lower Division Clerk (LDC); Assistant Commissioner; Legal Assistant; Female Staff Nurse; and Catering Assistant.

To know the NVS PGT/TGT 2019 Recruitment application process, eligibility criteria, exam dates, pattern, syllabus and exam centre, Click here:

NVS PGT, TGT, LDC & Miscellaneous 2019 Exam: Check Eligibility, Vacancies, Exam Date, Syllabus

NVS Teacher Previous Year Paper

PART — I (B)

GENERAL ENGLISH

Directions for Q. Nos. 21 to 25: Read the passage given below and complete the statements that follow with the help of given options:

Today diesel engines can be seen in use all over the world. In size they range all the way from small, single cylinder versions of 3 kW driving water pumps to mammoth multi-cylinder marine engines. Buses, Lorries, locomotives, tractors, bulldozers, mobile cranes and ships are powered by diesel engines. Stationary uses of the engine include generating sets, pump sets, etc. For a rugged, powerful and mobile source of energy the diesel engine is preferred. It is heavier than a corresponding petrol engine but far lower in fuel consumption. Heavy transportation and road construction could not have been possible in the absence of diesel engines.

Even in the case of passenger vehicles where petrol engines reign supreme so far due to lighter weight and smoother running, diesel engines are making gradual inroads. We may see more of diesel-powered cars in future due to the superior fuel economy of this engine. It is far less polluting than the petrol engine since it uses much more air than is necessary for combustion and hence, the combustion is more complete.

All this we owe to Dr. Rudolf Diesel, who could not enjoy the fruits of his labour. This genius in engineering was unbelievably inept in financial management and lost much of what he earned. He was deeply disturbed at the rapid worsening of relations between the French and the Germans. The portents of the coming holocaust, the First World War, were too evident to be ignored. On 29 September, 1913, Dr. Diesel took the ferry to Britain on a business trip and disappeared during the voyage; presumably he got drowned in the sea.

21. Study the following statements:

A. Diesel engines consume more fuel.

B. Diesel engines are heavier than petrol engines.

(1) `A' is true and 'EC is false.

(2) `B' is true and 'A' is false.

(3) Both 'A' and 'B' are false.

(4) Both 'A' and '13' are true.

22. Is an example of stationary use of an engine?

(1) A crane

(2) A pump set

(3) A ship

(4) A tractor

23. Diesel engines are preferred because they are

(1) For lower in fuel consumption.

(2) Easily available.

(3) Much more durable than petrol engines.

(4) Cheaply maintainable.

24. Dr. Diesel suffered huge financial setbacks owing to

(1) His financial incompliance.

(2) His failing health.

(3) The First World War.

(4) The worsening relations between France and Germany.

25. The word 'portents' as used in the last paragraph means

(1) Prospects

(2) Possibilities

(3) Signs

(4) Chances

Directions for Q. Nos. 26 to 31: Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow:

26. We  should  live in a style suited our condition.

(1) for

(2) to

(3) with

(4) towards

27. When I visited him in the hospital, he was writhing pain.

(1) from

(2) with

(3) in

(4) on

28. The rebels for more than two months.

(1) held out

(2) held up

(3) held in

(4) held over

29. These chairs are the physically challenged.

(1) set down for

(2) set up for

(3) set in for

(4) set apart for

30. He _______ many difficulties since his arrival in the city.

(1) faced

(2) has faced

(3) is facing

(4) was saving

31. He suddenly remembered the place where the party

(1) has been held

(2) was held

(3) had been held

(4) might have been held

Directions for Q. Nos. 32 & 33: Which part of speech is the underlined word in each of the following sentences?

32. I was not a mischievous or troublesome child.

(1) Preposition

(2) Adverb

(3) Conjunction

(4) Pronoun

33. We all slept upstairs.

(1) Adverb

(2) Noun

(3) Conjunction

(4) Preposition

Directions for Q. Nos. 34 & 35: Each of the following sentences has an error in it. Identify the part which has the error.

34. I believe / he is capable to handle / such a / difficult situation

         (1)                         (2)                                    (3)                        (4)

35. You don’t have to look/ very far/ to find the cause for/ these problems

                (1)                                          (2)                           (3)                              (4)

Directions for Q. Nos. 36 to 40: Read the passage given below and answer the questions / complete the statements with the help ot the options that follow:

In  the  twenty-three  years  since Aurangzeb had marched north to seize the throne, the area of the Deccan had been dominated by a small Maratha chieftain, Shivaji, whose guerilla tactics were to prove fatal to the Moghuls and who thereby became a very special hero to Hindus in the political climate of the early twentieth century. With the independence movement under way to eject the British and to restore India to the Indians after nine centuries of domination by rulers whose roots were outside the subcontinent, there was a magnetic appenl about a Hindu who, from compaiatively humble beginnings, had risen to shake the very foundations of the Moghul Empire. In the words of Sir Jadunath Sarkar, tbe leading Hindu biographer of Aurangzeb, writing in about 1915, Shivadi 'proved by his example that the Hindu race can build a nation, found a State, dereat enemies: they can conduct their own defence: they can proteet and promote literature and art, commerce and industry; they can maintain navies and ocean-trading nleets of their own. and conduct naval battles on equal terms with foreigners. He taught the modern Hindus to rise to the full stature of their growth'. So, when viewed with hindsight throuph twentieth-Century glasses. Aurnngzeb on one side and shivaji on the other come to be seen as key figures in the development of India. What shivaji began. Gandhiji could complete - the addition of ji is in both cases a mark of respect. and Indians todwy speak in conversation of Gandhiji rather than Gandhi — and what Aurangzeb stood for would lead to the establishment of the separate state of Pakistan.

36. Which of the fpllowiag statements is false?

(1) shivaji had comparatively humble beginnings.

(2) shivaji shook the foundations of the Moghul empire.

(3) He was a big Maratha chieftain.

(4) ShivaJi’s guerilla tactips proved fatal to the Moghuls.

37. According to sir Jadunath sarikar, Shivaji

(1) put Bijapur on the road to prosperity.

(2) proved that Indians were capable of managing all of their affairs.

(3) stressed the need for national unity.

(4) was determined to free India from the yoke of the Moghul empire.

38. The expression 'what shivaji began, Gandhiji could complete’ refers to

(1) atmocities committed by the Moghuls and the British.

(2) India’s longing for a just and equitable society.

(3) India's stmuggle against foreign domination culminating in freedom.

(4) sacrificeS made by the Indian people.

39. Study the following statements:

A. Shivaji’s guerrilla tactic proved fatal to the Moghuls.

B. shivaji’s guerilla taetics raised him to the stature ot a hero.

(1) ‘A’ is tmue and 'B’ is false.

(2) ‘B’ is true and 'A’ is false.

(3) Both 'A’ and 'B’ are true.

(4) Both 'A’ and 'B’ are false.

40. The word 'magnetic’ as used in the passage means the Same as

(1) Wonderful

(2) Captivating

(3) Enormous

(4) Charismatic

Part - II

General Awareness

41. Which Indian Gymnast missed bronze medal in Rio Olympics by very little margin but was praised for the high risk Produnova vault?

(1) Sakshi Malik

(2) Dipa Karmakar

(3) P.V. Sindhu

(4) Simone Biles

42. Which of the following is correct?

(1) Block printing nainly originated fron Tamil Nadu.

(2) Biuaner is famous for Phulkari

(3) Kerala is renowned for its painting on ivory.

(4) Piply, famous for applique work, is in Andhra Pradesh.

43. Maritime trade in Harappan Era is evident in which of the sites?

(1) Mohenjodaro

(2) Lothal

(3) Atamira

(4) Dholavira

44. Which sports would associate the given words?

Diamond, Pullout, Base, Pitching

(1) Chess

(2) Basketball

(3) Bridge

(4) Baseball

45. How many Gold medals did India win in 2014 Asian Games?

(1) 13

(2) 11

(3) 12

(4) 14

46. When you mix hot water in cold water, the whole water becomes hot in few minutes. which of following statements is not true with reference to convection?

(1) Heaters and blowers should be placed near ground level so that they set up convention current.

(2) Handles of cooking material are made of plastics and wood to avoid heating due to convection.

(3) Ventilators in home are made near the ceiling of a room

(4) Sea breeze occurs due to convention current.

47. The acids which are found in plants and animals are called

(1) Inorganic acids

(2) Organic acids

(3) Mineral acids

(4) Neutralised acids

48. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Bases are sweet to taste.

(2) Vinegar is natural source of lactic acid.

(3) Litmus is the most common indicator used in the laboratory.

(4) In an acidic medium the turmeric paper turns reddish brown.

49. In human beings kidneys are located at the level of the waist on either side of the vertebral column. Each kidney contains a large number of coiled tubes called

(1) neurons

(2) ureters

(3) nephrons

(4) intestine

50. Which of the following gases is not considered as polluting agent of air?

(1) SO2

(2) CO2

(3) CO

(4) NO2

51. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?

(1) Cotton

(2) Groundnut

(3) Mustard

(4) Maize

52. Which of the following is correct?

(1) National Highway 7 connects Mumbai with Varanasi.

(2) National Highway 7 connects Delhi with Kanyakumari.

(3) National Highway 12 connects Delhi and Mumbai.

(4) National Highway 6 connects Delhi and Varanasi.

53. When did Reserve Bank of India come into existence?

(1) 1st April, 1935

(2) 1st April, 1939

(3) 26th November, 1949

(4) 1st July, 1950

54. What was the duration (time period) of 11th Five Year Plan in India?

(1) 2007-2012

(2) 2012-2017

(3) 2002-2007

(4) 2011-2016

55. Who worked as a constitutional advisor for Constitutional Assembly?

(1) B.R. Ambedkar

(2) Rajendra Prasad

(3) B.N. Rao

(4) Sachchidanand sinha

56. Which committee recommended the inclusion of fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution?

(1) Swarna Singh Committee

(2) Ashok Mehta Committee

(3) Balram Jakhad Committee

(4) Mandal Committee

57. Which one of the following statement is correct with reference to India?

(1) State legislative assemblies elect the member of upper house or the Parliamnent of India.

(2) Person contesting ror vice-President must be member of upper house of Parliament.

(3) A person contesting for Lok Sabha can be resident of any State of India but for Rajya Sabha helshe should be resident of the same state.

(4) The constitution does not allow the nominated members in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

58. The representation of the Union Territories can be

(1) in upper house of the Parliament of India.

(2) in lower house of the Parliament of India.

(3) Both the houses of the Parliament of India.

(4) None of the houses of the Parliament of India.

59. ________ recommends Bharat Ratna Award to ______.

(1) Prime-Minister, President

(2) President, Prime Minister

(3) Chief Justice, President

(4) President, Chief Justice

60. Which one of the following country has received most of the Nobel Prizes in the field of Economics?

(1) India

(2) Russia

(3) U.S.A.

(4) U.K.

61. Who established the ‘Depressed Class Association’?

(1) Jyoti Rao Phule

(2) Periyar

(3) Mahatma Gandhi

(4) B .R. Ambedkar

62. “This is a large and beautiful city. It is surrounded by a massive wall. It has 570 towers and 64 gates. The houses of two and three storeys, are built of wood and mud brick. The king's palace is also of wood and decorated with stone carvings. It is surrounding the gardens and enclosures for keeping birds." Above description belongs to

(1) Taxila

(2) Koshal

(3) Pataliputra

(4) Ujiaini

63. ‘Khud-Icashta’ and ‘Pahi-Kashpa’ refer to kinds of — in the seventeenth century.

(1) Soldiers

(2) Artisans

(3) Administrators

(4) Peasants

64. Which of the following texts provide information about the use of Persian wheel in India duriag the 15th-16th century?

(i) Baburnama

(ii) Humayunnama

(iii) Ain-i-Akbari

(iv) Tuzk-i-Jahangiri

Use the code to answer

(1) (i)

(2) (i) and (ii)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

65. Consider the following statements and select the correct option:

(i) Amendment in the Indian constitution can only be initiated in Lok Sabha.

(ii) If amendment changes the federal nature of the Constitution, this needs ratification from all the Indian states.

Select the correct option given below:

(1) Only (i) is correct.

(2) Only (ii) is incorrect.

(3) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.

(4) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.

66. Which one or the following Indian State is the highest producer of coffee?

(1) Assam

(2) Odisha

(3) Karnataka

(4) Madhya Pradesh

67. Who is the author of the book ‘A Theory of Economic History’?

(1) John Hicks

(2) E.F. Schumacher

(3) Adam Smith

(4) Karl Marx

68. Which Constitution Amendment Act incorporates replacement or all indirect taxes paid by customers?

(1) Gross Supply Tax Act

(2) Goods Supply Tax Act

(3) Goods and Services Tax Act

(4) Gross and Services Tax Act

69. Which country topped a worldwide Human Capital Index, that measured 130 countries, ability to nurture, develop and deploy talent for economic growth? It was recently released by Geneva based world Economic Forum.

(1) Norway

(2) Finland

(3) Denmark

(4) China

70. Telecom Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad on May 7, 2o16, approved the provision of a single number for various emergency services that would be similar to the ‘911’, all in one emergency services in the U.S.A. The single emergency number proposed is

(1) 111

(2) 112

(3) 113

(4) 114

Part - III

General Intelligence, Numerical Ability and Reasoning

71. How many 4's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 2 but not followed by 1?

4 1 3 2 4 3 5 6 7 4 2 1 6 2 4 5 3 1 2 4 3 6 4 1 2 4 7 2 2

(1) one

(2) two

(3) three

(4) four

72. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number?

3 4 2 5 3 1 5 2 1 3 6 7 3 1 8 2 7 8 5 3 9 1 3 4 5

(1) one

(2) two

(3) three

(4) four

73. If DRAMA is coded as 37 and STAGE as 52, how will you code DELHI?

(1) 36

(2) 37

(3) 38

(4) 39

74. If 'COLD’ is coded as ‘DPME’, select appropriate code for 'GIVEN’.

(1) HJWJM

(2) HKwJM

(3) HJWJO

(4) HJWFO

75. Determine the pattern and find the correct answer:

11, 30, 68, 144, ? ,600

(1) 508

(2) 604

(3) 799

(4) 296

76. Determine the pattern and find the correct answer:

5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ? ,38

(1) 26

(2) 28

(3) 29

(4) 30

77. As 'wheel’ is related to ‘vehicle’, similarly 'Clock’ is related to

(1) Pir

(2) Stick

(3) Nail

(4) Needle

78. Select the pair of words which is related in the same way as the words of the first pair.

Bush : Flora

(1) Fish : Water

(2) Horse : carriage

(3) Plant: Fauna

(4) Blue : Colour

79. If the vowels of the word ‘SOLITARY’ are first arranged in alphabetical order, rollowed by the consonants in the alphabetic order, which of the following will be the 5th from the right end after the rearrangement?

(1) L

(2) R

(3) S

(4) T

80. Find the number of letters between 21st letter from right and 10th letter from right in the English alphabet.

(1) 7

(2) 8

(3) 9

(4) 10

81. Consider the given statement and two assumptions numbered I and II.

Statement: The root cause of all social evils is love for wealth.

Assumptions I: wealth gives power and makes selfish.

II: All those who love wealth are anti-social.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement?

(1) Only I is implicit.

(2) Only II is implicit.

(a) Both I and II are implicit.

(4) Both I and II are not implicit.

82. Consider the given statement and two assumptions numbered I and II:

Statement: The target or a fiscal deficit of 8% of GDP could not be met because of major short fall in revenue collection.

Assumptions I: Shortfall in revenue collection leads to an increase in fiscal deficit.

II: Shortfall in revenue collection leads to a decrease in fiscal deficit.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement?

(1) Only I is implicit.

(2) Only II is implicit.

(3) Both I and II are implicit.

(4) Both I and II are not implicit.

83. Cost of petroleum products has been increased almost 15% in last two months. which of the following may be the possible cause of the effect mentioned above?

(1) The cost to vegetable has been increased by more than 25%.

(2) Union or truck owners has decided to increase carriage about 30% with immediate effect.

(3) In last couple or weeks, the cost of crude oil in the international market has been increased.

(4) People have decided to protest against the inertia of government towards essential commodities.

84. Given the following two statements?

I: The government has decided to make all the information related to primary education available to the general public.

II: In the past, the general public did not have access to all these information related to primary education.

Which of the following is correct?

(1) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.

(2) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.

(3) Both the Statements I and II are independent causes.

(4) Both the Statements I and II are the effects of independent causes.

85. Which figure completes the statement?

86. Which figure completes the statement?

87. A fruit seller sells half of his fruits plus half an orange, again he sells half of what remains plus half an orange, and so again a third time. His store is now exhausted, how many did he start from?

(1) 5

(2) 7

(3) 9

(4) 11

88. A man wish to give 12 to each person and found that he fell short of 6 when he wanted to gave to all the persons present. He therefore distributed 9 to each person and found that 9 was left over. How many persons were there?

(1) 7

(2) 6

(3) 5

(4) 4

89. 90% and 97% pure acid solutions are mixed to obtain 21 litres of 95% pure acid solution. Find the amount of each type of acid to be mixed to form the mixture.

(1) 6 litre, 15 litre

(2) 8 litre, 20 litre

(3) 10 litre, 14 litre

(4) 12 litre, 20 litre

90. After 5 years a man's age will be three times his son’s age and 5 years ago he was 7 times as old as his son. The age of son is

(1) 12 years

(2) 15 years

(3) 14 years

(4) 10 years

91. X and Y have certain number of oranges. X says to Y, “if you give me 10 of your oranges, I will have twice the number of oranges left with you”. y replies, “If you give me 10 of your oranges, I will have the same number of oranges as left with you”. The number of oranges with y is

(1) 70

(2) 50

(3) 40

(4) 20

92. In a two digit number, the unit's digit is twice the ten's digit. If 27 is added to the number, the digits interchange their places. The number is

(1) 48

(2) 36

(3) 24

(4) 12

93. A boat Cover 32 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 7 hours. Also, it covers 40 km upstream and 48 km downstream in 9 hours. The ratio of speed of boat in still water and speed of the stream is

(1) 1 : 5

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 5 : 1

94. Point X and Y are 90 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from X and another from Y at the same time. If they go in the same direction they meet in 9 hours and if they go in opposite directions they meet in 9/7 hours. The maximum speed of the car among the two cars is

(1) 20km/hr

(2) 30km/hr

(3) 40km/hr

(4) 50km/hr

95. On selling a tea-set at 5% loss and a lemon set at gain of 15%, a crockery seller gains Rs. 7. If he sells the tea-set at 5% gain and the lemon set at 10% gain, he gains Rs. 13. The actual price of the lemon set is

(1) Rs. 100

(2) Rs. 80

(3) Rs. 120

(4) Rs. 115

96. How many terms of the given sequence:

1, 4, 7,........... are needed to give the sum 715?

(1) 20

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 23

97. If first half or the following series is written in the reverse order, then which will be the 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

98. If the position to Manoj is 25th from one end and 23rd from the other end in his class, what is the total number of students in his class?

(1) 45

(2) 46

(3) 47

(4) 48

99. Which one or the given options would be a meaningful order of the following memory capacity of a hard disk in ascending order of memory size?

A. Mega bytes

B. Kilo bytes

D. Peta bytes

D. Zeta bytes

(1) A B C D

(2) B A C D

(3) A B D C

(4) B A D C

100. Which one of the following options would be a correct meaningful sequence of the following words?

A. Child

B. Marriage

C. Education

D. Job

(1) A B C D

(2) A D C B

(3) A C D B

(4) A D B C

Part - IV

Teaching Aptitude

101. ‘We must at present do our best to form a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals and in intellect.’ Which of the following voiced the above statement?

(1) Lord Maeaulay

(2) Lord william Bentinck

(3) Sir Charles Wood

(4) Lord Harding

102. Operation Blackboard (OB) was introduced to improve tbe quality of primary education. which or the following are essential elements of the scheme?

(a) At least one teacher in every school.

(b) Provision or essential teaching and learning materials.

(c) Separate toilets for girls and boys.

(d) Provision of a building with at least two reasonable large rooms.

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (d)

(3) (b), (c) & (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

103. Where CR = Conditioned Response,

UR = Unconditioned Response,

CS = Conditioned Stimulus and

US = Unconditioned Stimulus

Select the incorrect statement with respect to classical conditioning.

(1) The magnitude of CR is always less than that of IJR.

(2) CR and UR are always the same kind of response.

(3) CS and US, nature wise, vary.

(4) US should precede CS.

104. With respect to Educational Psychology, which one of the following completely describes punishment?

(1) Introduction of positive as well as negative reinforcer.

(2) Introduction of positive reinforcer and withdrawal of negative reinforcer.

(3) Withdrawal of positiver reinforcer and introduction of negative reinforcer.

(4) Withdrawal of positive as well as negative reinforcer.

105. According to Piaget, at which stage of cognitive development, a student is able to recognize that subtraction is reverse of addition?

(1) Sensorimotor stage

(2) Preoperational stage

(3) Concrete operations stage

(4) Formal operations stage

106. The most practical way to help students elaborate and organize new knowledge is to

(1) Teach them how to take notes

(2) Ask descriptive questions

(3) Give homework on a regular basis

(4) Use problem based learning

107. Mrs. Bhagat notices in her class that one of her students Chetan is restless. in his seat and seems to get easily distracted. He has difficulty recognizing words and letters and reads slowly with little fluency. He has limited vocabulary and has difficulty copying words from the blackboard. Chetan may be showing signs of

(1) Learning impairment

(2) Language disorder

(3) Learning disability

(4) Behavioural disorder

108. When a teacher compliments two students for attractive illustrations in their arithmetic notebook, other students turn in illustrated arithmetic notebooks. This is an example of

(1) Direct reinforcement

(2) Self reinforcement

(3) Vicarious reinforcement

(4) Reciprocal casualty

109. While young children may learn addition and subtraction of two digit numbers at school. they find it difficult to calculate how much change they should get back when they buy an ice-cream or a chocolate. This is probably because

(1) Declarative knowledge is not task related.

(2) Procedural knowledge is often learned with considerable practice.

(3) Conceptual knowledge is too abstract to transfer.

(4) Declarative knowledge is explicit knowledge.

110. Lalit is able to find a solution to his academic problems with the support of his classmate Dinesh. Which of the following notions describe his position?

(1) Zone of proximal development

(2) Stage of formal operations

(3) Problem based learning

(4) Co-operative learning

111. ‘Perceived existence of some sort of historical or contemporary social and economic disadvantage’ is the basis of

(1) Inclusion in education

(2) Reservation in education

(3) Differentiated instruction

(4) Collaborative learning

112. Lalita plans to be a teacher. She has been told by her friends and family that she interacts well with children. Lalita's mother is a teacher and she has never questioned Lalita'S expectation that she becomes a teacher. Lalita’s identity state is one of

(1) Foreclosure

(2) Morotoriunn

(3) Diffusion

(4) Achievement

113. An effective teacher must communicate to students that s/he is aware of everything that is happening in the classroom that she/he is not missing anything. This technique of preventing problems in the class is

(1) Withitness

(2) Overlapping

(3) Group focussing

(4) Movement management

114. Which of the following practice do you consider least important to reduce achievement differences among students?

(1) Not giving students autonomy to choose their own activities during class.

(2) Having high expectations from all students and to reward them for their accomplishment.

(3) Interesting teaching incorporating a variety of learning aids.

(4) Promoting student engagement and involvement in school.

115. With respect to central tendencies mean, median and mode, which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) Mode is used when the means of central tendency is the most typical value.

(2) Median is used when the measure of central tendency having the greatest stability is wanted.

(3) Mean is used when other statistics are to be computed later.

(4) Mode is used when a quick and approximate measure of central tendency is wanted.

116. A class XII student in your class gets along well with his peers and has good communication skills. Which of the following vocation would be more suitable for him?

(1) Graphic Designer

(2) Architect

(3) Therapist

(4) Violinist

117. A school principal wants to judge the quality of teachers in his school. Which or the following steps he takes would be 1east useful in this process?

(1) Ask teachers to fill a self evaluation proforma.

(2) Meet teachers personally and ask them about their teaching practices.

(3) Analyze school results

(4) Observe interaction in each classroom.

118. “Discipline is necessary for self-realization. There should be no free discipline, external constraints or suppression of spontaneous activity. The teacher should guide the children in acquiring the spiritual values of the universe." The above description of discipline belongs to which one of the following school of philosophical thought?

(1) Naturalism

(2) Pragmatism

(3) Idealism

(4) Humanism

119. with respect to the methods of teaching. which one of the following school of philosophical thought is of the opinion that : “A method of teaching must consist of looking away from first things, principles and of looking towards last things, fruits, consequences, facts. It is in submitting conceptions to the control of experiences in the process of verifying them that one finds examples of what is called truth. Truth means verification”.

(1) Realism

(2) Pragmatism

(3) Naturalism

(4) Idealism

120. Which one of the following does not pertain to philosophical views of Rabindranath Tagore?

(1) Humanism was the key-note of his philosophy.

(2) He advocated craft centered education.

(3) He believed in freedom of mind which can only be achieved through the path of freedom.

(4) He wanted to bring up pupils in inseparable association with nature.