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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Education Previous Year Paper with Answers

Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your exam preparation. In this article we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Education July 2018 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

Nov 25, 2019 19:12 IST
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UGC NET July 2018 Paper 2 Education Previous Year Paper
UGC NET July 2018 Paper 2 Education Previous Year Paper

To score high marks in NTA UGC NET December 2019 Education Paper; candidates must practice the previous year papers of UGC NET Education Subject Exam. Practicing previous year papers will help in improving your speed of attempting questions within stipulated time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Education Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.

UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Education Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. Which one of the following combinations gives a correct reason for including philosophy of education in Teacher Education Curriculum?

(a) Philosophy is an oldest discipline

(b) Philosophy helps in understanding educational concepts in a holistic way

(c) Philosophy and education are two sides of the same coin

(d) Philosophy helps in developing a better personality of prospective teachers

(e) Philosophical analysis of educational concepts helps in developing a rational view point

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (e)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2. Which of the following reflects the stance to be taken by a teacher advocating existentialist education?

(1) Values cannot be taught

(2) Values are subjective and personal

(3) Values are essentially contextual but objective

(4) Values are derived from market forces

3. “Prayer cannot be offered with an empty stomach”. This statement will get support from __________.

(1) Idealism

(2) Naturalism

(3) Pragmatism

(4) Logical positivism

4. Assertion (A): Maya takes a contrary view to Brahman.

Reason (R): Maya creates an illusory world.

Select the correct code from the following:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

(4) (A) is incorrect while (R) is correct.

5. Select the correct combination of concepts which will represent Buddhism.

(i) Anekantvada

(ii) Vaibhashik

(iii) Pabajja

(iv) Sanskar

(v) Sautantrik

(vi) Syadvada

Code:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

6. Match the following two sets. Set - I provides the form of causation while Set - II gives the name of metaphysical entities as postulated by Sankhya Philosophy.

Set - I (Form of causation)

Set - II (Metaphysical entities)

(a) Cause only

(b) Effect only

(c) Both cause and effect

(d) Neither cause nor effect

(i) Purusa

(ii) Tanmatras

(iii) Sensory and Motor organs

(iv) Ishwar

(v) Prakriti

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (i) (v) (iii)

(3) (iv) (i) (v) (ii)

(4) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)

7. The ultimate purpose of Gandhian education is the:

(1) Creation of a classless society

(2) Promotion of human beings

(3) Development of a human and awakened society

(4) Salvation for all

8. Sri Aurobindo’s idea of supermind implies that:

(1) Darwinian theory is relevant, hence education cannot do much

(2) The task of a teacher is to uplift the awakened consciousness of human beings

(3) A teacher has to integrate psychology, biology and education in his/her teaching techniques

(4) Education can achieve its divine purpose through meditation

9. Below are two sets. Set - I mentions thinkers while Set - II consists of schools of thought associated with them. Match the two and choose from the code to indicate your answer.

Set - I (Thinkers)

Set - II (Schools of thought)

(a) A.J. Ayer

(b) Wittgenstein

(c) Bertrend Russel

(d) G.E. Moore

(i) Linguistic analysis

(ii) Logical Positivism

(iii) Neorealism

(iv) Positive Relativism

(v) Logical Empiricism

(vi) Logical Atomism

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)

(3) (ii) (i) (vi) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

10. Which of the following will not be assented to by Indian Constitution?

(i) Liberty, equality, fraternity and justice

(ii) Republic and a Democratic society

(iii) Religion, God and Salvation

(iv) Racialism and Regionalism

(v) Vasudhaiv Kutumbkam and Universal brotherhood

Code:

(1) (i), (ii) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(3) (iii) and (iv)

(4) (iii), (iv) and (v)

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11. By modernization is meant:

(1) Shifting to western mode of life

(2) Following the current fashion and modes of living

(3) Disassociation with traditions and traditional mode of living

(4) The process of adaptation in terms of current needs and life styles

12. Which combination of the following factors tends to slow down the progress in education in India?

(i) High interest rates on educational loans

(ii) Regionalism

(iii) Urban way of life

(iv) Ethnicity

(v) Less emphasis on training of teachers

(vi) Scarcity of ICT resources in schools

Code:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

13. Which one of the following is an example of social mobility?

(1) En masse withdrawl of learners from school by their parents

(2) Shifting school to a far off place

(3) Weekend visits to villages by city dwellers

(4) Deputising village youths in Indian Army

14. The concept of equalization of educational opportunities implies:

(1) Providing books and uniform to learners

(2) Providing resources to learners as per their ability

(3) Encouraging learners to study as many subjects as they can

(4) Optimising learning conditions for success in school board examinations

15. Which of the following combinations will represent the disadvantaged section of Indian society?

(i) Tribes

(ii) Religious groups

(iii) Slum dwellers

(iv) Contractual labourers

(v) Scheduled Castes

(vi) City dwellers

Code:

(1) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

16. Which of the following aspects focuses more on physical dimensions?

(1) Concept of development

(2) Concept of growth

(3) Concept of change

(4) Concept of learning

17. Identify from the list given below the correct sequence of concept formation. Select from the code to answer.

List

(i) Analysing the problem

(ii) Facing the problem

(iii) Identifying the common elements

(iv) Perceiving the differences

(v) Abstracting the common and non-common elements

(vi) Understanding the critical features

Code:

(1) (vi), (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (vi)

(3) (iv), (v), (vi), (i), (ii) and (iii)

(4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

18. For ensuring effectiveness in organizing educational programmes which areas of individual differences in students will be of optimal value?

(1) Physical characteristics of students

(2) Racial characteristics of students

(3) Psychological characteristics of students

(4) Moral characteristics of students

19. Below is given a list of five types of learning indicated in a hierarchical arrangement as mentioned by Robert M. Gagne. From the code given select the correct hierarchy to show your answer.

List

(i) Signal learning

(ii) Chain learning

(iii) Rule learning

(iv) Concept learning

(v) S - R learning

Code:

(1) (i), (v), (ii), (iv) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (iii)

(3) (iii), (ii), (i), (v) and (iv)

(4) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (ii)

20. Which of the following forms part of the revised basic types of Learning in Tolman’s system?

(1) Latent learning

(2) Field cognition modes

(3) Reward Expectancy

(4) Place learning

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21. Who developed the concept of ‘Functional Autonomy of Motives’?

(1) Mcdougal

(2) Atkinson

(3) Maslow

(4) Allport

22. Which of the following principles is used in shaping behaviour in Skinner’s Operant Conditioning?

(1) Principle of keeping the response simple and specific

(2) Principle of keeping the response soft and sweet

(3) Principle of successive approximation

(4) Principle of reward and punishment

23. The list given below embodies a number of statements in the context of adjustment and use of defence mechanisms. Identify those which highlight the role of defence mechanism? Select from the code to give your answer.

List

(i) Giving time to solve problems that might otherwise may overwhelm us.

(ii) Ensuring ‘wellness life style’.

(iii) Sidetracking the issues.

(iv) Unconscious use to promote comfort level in life situations.

(v) Facing the challenges straightway.

(vi) Offering explanations which are plausible.

Code:

(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(2) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (ii)

(3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(4) (v), (ii), (i) and (iii)

24. Given below are two sets which describe the Indian model of personality. Set-I provides the list of ‘Sheaths of body’ called ‘Kosha’ and Set-II indicates names of various types of body with the associated principal element. Match the two and indicate your answer by choosing from the code.

Set-I (Sheath of body)

Set-II (Name of body and the principal element)

(a) Vigyanmaya Kosh

(b) Manomaya Kosh

(c) Pranmaya Kosh

(d) Annmaya Kosh

(i) The concrete body + Earth

(ii) The state in body between subtle and concrete body + Water

(iii) Subtle body + Fire

(iv) Causal body + Air

(v) Absolute causal body + Akash

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

25. In Hull’s ‘re-inforcement theory’ which of the following was postulated as intervening variable?

(1) Drive Condition

(2) Reaction Latency

(3) Reaction Amplitude

(4) Excitatory Potential

26. In the two sets given below - Set - I provides operant conditioning procedures and Set - II offers their descriptions in terms of cue being present or absent, the mode of re-inforcement - positive or negative and response made/withheld. Match the two and indicate your answer by selecting the code given.

Set - I (Operant conditioning procedures)

Set - II (Descriptions in terms of cue and re-inforcement modality Response made/with held)

(a) Reward training

(b) Escape training

(c) Active Avoidance training

(d) Omission training

(i) Cue absent, response withheld and positive reinforcement

(ii) Cue present, response made and negative re-inforcement

(iii) Cue absent, response made and negative re-inforcement

(iv) Cue absent, response made and positive re-inforcement

(v) Cue present, response made and positive re-inforcement

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(4) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)

27. For arriving at Classical Conditioning Paradigm which of the following was used as the independent variable?

(1) Magnitude of Response

(2) Resistance to Extinction

(3) Spontaneous Recovery

(4) Number of C.S. - U.S pairings

28. Which of the laws of learning given by Thorndike had to be revised?

(1) Law of Exercise

(2) Law of Readiness

(3) Law of Effect

(4) Law of Belongingness

29. In measurement of which of the following types of intelligence an optimal age level is considered pertinent?

(1) Cultural Intelligence

(2) Emotional Intelligence

(3) Spiritual Intelligence

(4) Cognitive Intelligence

30. Who developed the concept of group factors in intelligence?

(1) Burt

(2) Spearman

(3) Thurstone

(4) Guilford

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31. Which of the following set of statements is correct in the context of Guidance?

(i) Guidance is a personal help

(ii) Guidance leads to self regulation

(iii) Guidance focuses on problems rather than on individual

(iv) Guidance considers individual differences as a basic starting point

(v) Guidance service can be organised with various time lags

(vi) Guidance is panacea for all ills

Code:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)

(3) (ii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

32. A teacher discusses in depth the problems and challenges being faced by a student with a view to help him/her to arrive at a decision. Which of the following modality of Guidance will designate this situation appropriately?

(1) Counselling type

(2) Vocational Guidance type

(3) Educational Guidance type

(4) Information, Exploration Technique type

33. Which of the following tools at a Guidance Centre can be used for ascertaining prospective success in a chosen occupation?

(1) Achievement test

(2) Interest Inventory

(3) Differential Aptitude test

(4) Personality Inventory

34. For an effective non-directive counselling session, which one of the following will be most essential?

(1) Training of the counsellor

(2) Establishing a rapport with the client

(3) Expertise in using tests

(4) Conversational fluency

35. Match the following two sets. In Set - I the different Guidance Services are given and in Set - II the Role/Functions of these Guidance Services are described. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives.

Set - I (Guidance Services)

Set - II (Role / Function)

(a) Occupational Information Service

(b) Placement Service

(c) Follow-up Service

(d) Individual Inventory Service

(i) Gives information about the characteristics - strength and weaknesses of a person

(ii) Provides information about world of work

(iii) Provides suitable engagement as per the vocational preparedness

(iv) Takes up a view of how things are going on after entry into the specific job

(v) Provides opportunity for understanding oneself in a realistic way

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v)

(3) (i) (iii) (v) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (v) (i)

36. A college librarian plans the purchase of books keeping in view the demand of different books among students. Which of the following measures of central tendency would be suitable for this purpose?

(1) Mean

(2) Median

(3) Mode

(4) Geometric Mean

37. The main difference between ‘Laboratory Experiment’ and ‘Field Experiment’ is in:

(1) Precision in measurement of variables

(2) Degree of control of extraneous variables

(3) Use of data analysis techniques

(4) Application of research instruments

38. An investigator wants to conduct a study to ascertain the progress of implementation of RTE Act - 2009. Which of the following research tools would be most suitable for this purpose?

(1) Rating Scale

(2) Questionnaire

(3) Observation

(4) Sociometry

39. A researcher used t-test to compare two means based on independent samples and found the t-value to be significant at .05 level. This means that:

(1) Chances are 5 out of 100 that the difference between means has occurred due to sampling errors.

(2) Chances are 95 out of 100 that the difference between means has occurred due to sampling errors.

(3) If experiment is repeated 100 times, it would give the obtained result only 5 times.

(4) If the experiment is repeated 5 times, it would give the same result every time.

40. A researcher uses both t-test and F-test on the same data obtained from two groups. The functional relationship between values of t and F if calculated would be:

(1) t=F

(2) t2=F

(3) t=F2

(4) t2=F2

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41. Below are given two sets of statistical tests of significance. Set - I lists the parametric tests while Set - II provides their non-parametric counterparts. Match the two and give your answer by selecting from the given code:

Set - I (Parametric Tests)

Set - II (Non-parametric Tests)

(a) Independent t-test

(b) Dependent t-test

(c) ANOVA F-test

(i) Chi-square test

(ii) Kruskal Wallis H-test

(iii) Mann Whitney ‘U’ test

(iv) Willeoxon T-test

Code:

(a) (b) (c)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii)

42. In a normal distribution of scores, the percentile rank of a students scoring at −1Z is:

(1) 16

(2) 34

(3) 48

(4) 68

43. In a sample distribution with N=300, M=60 and SD=12, the number of cases falling above the score 48 will be:

(1) 252

(2) 204

(3) 184

(4) 48

44. If two variables X and Y have significant negative correlation, which of the following statement is true?

(1) X causes variation in Y

(2) Y causes variation in X

(3) X and Y vary together

(4) X and Y cause each other to vary

45. Match the items of Set - I with items of Set - II and select the correct code from the given options.

Set - I

Set - II

(a) Nominal Scale

(b) Ordinal Scale

(c) Interval Scale

(d) Ratio Scale

(i) Superior performance in musical events

(ii) Performance scores on a spelling test

(iii) Listing students according to participation in Co-curricular activities

(iv) Speed of students in writing words per minute

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

46. Two variables X and Y have a negative correlation coefficients of −.48. The proportion of variance common to both the variables will be:

(1) 0.23

(2) 0.27

(3) 0.48

(4) 0.52

47. In a negatively skewed curve obtained after testing students, the correct inference about the difficulty of the test would be:

(1) The test was easy.

(2) The test was difficult.

(3) The test was neither easy nor difficulty.

(4) No statement about difficulty of the test can be made.

48. A method of sampling that ensures proportional representation of all sections of a population is technically called:

(1) Quota Sampling

(2) Systematic Sampling

(3) Snow-ball Sampling

(4) Stratified Sampling

49. For estimating maximum value of multiple correlation, which of the following conditions should be met?

I. Independent variables should correlate high with the dependent variable.

II. The Independent variables should correlate low with one another.

Select the correct alternative from the following:

(1) Only condition I should be met

(2) Only condition II should be met

(3) Both conditions I and II should be met

(4) Neither condition I nor II is necessary

50. Using equivalent samples, a researcher obtained a significant correlation 95 times out of 100 trials. He/She decided to reject the null hypothesis. The alpha level would be:

(1) .01

(2) .02

(3) .05

(4) .001

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51. Approaches to sampling commonly used in qualitative research design are given in Set - I and their characteristics in Set - II. Match Set - I and Set - II and select appropriate code.

Set - I (Approaches to sampling in qualitative research)

Set - II (Characteristics)

(a) Extreme case sampling

(b) Purposive sampling

(c) Snowball sampling

(i) Seeks cases that are typical

(ii) Seeks cases that are highly similar to each other

(iii) Seeks cases that are unusual

(iv) Seeks help from participants to identify additional participants

(v) Seeks cases according to his/her judgement about the appropriateness

Code:

(a) (b) (c)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (v) (iv)

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii)

52. When you read a research article published in a journal which is not peer reviewed, what aspect of the report should you be most concerned about?

(1) author’s sincerity and skill in writing

(2) rigour reflected in reporting the research

(3) length of the report

(4) practical importance of the research question

53. Which of the following decisions will tend to decrease sampling error?

(1) Obtaining representative sample

(2) Decreasing the sample size

(3) Homogeneous grouping of individuals

(4) Possibility of reduction of the sample size

54. A group of 10 students was randomly drawn from Class 12 and was given yoga training for three weeks. Their wellness life style was compared with another similarly selected group which did not undergo such training. Which type of statistical test will be appropriate for testing the tenability of Null Hypothesis?

(1) Independent t-test

(2) Dependent t-test

(3) Wilcoxon T-test

(4) Sign test

55. Given a Mean=100 ; S.D=20 ; and N =100. Which one of the following will be the correct statement for indicating the possibility of population mean at 0.01 level of confidence?

(1) Population mean falls between 93 to 107

(2) Population mean falls between 96.08 to 103.9

(3) Population mean falls between 97.2 to 102

(4) Population mean falls between 94.8 to 105.2

56. “While assessing the attitude of administrators towards a ‘women empowerment programme’, a researcher had no preconceived notions about what she might discover, and she continued interviewing until key themes emerge”. Indicate the paradigm of research being followed:

(1) Ethnographic study approach

(2) Grounded theory approach

(3) Phenomenological study approach

(4) Case study approach

57. A researcher compares two sets of curricular materials in order to determine which set is more pedagogically sound. In the study, which of the following factors may act as source of error?

(1) Attrition

(2) Content choice bias

(3) History

(4) Subject effects

58. For the purpose of highlighting the characteristics of a particular group of children, which of the following may be considered as the primary source?

(1) A review of research published in the last 5 years

(2) A critical explanation of the psychological characteristics of children suffering from Autism

(3) Findings of case studies of a group of children with Autism

(4) List of books on special education

59. A teacher prepares a test for measuring socially acceptable behaviour of participants in the school programme. What type of reliability would be considered to be important?

(1) Internal consistency reliability

(2) Split-half reliability

(3) Equivalent forms reliability

(4) Inter-rater reliability

60. In the two sets given below, Set - I provides a list of attributes based scientific criteria and Set - II offers their brief description. Match the two sets and select appropriate code for correct matching:

Set - I (Attribute based scientific criteria)

Set - II (Description)

(a) Parsimony

(b) Empiricism

(c) Precision

(d) Objectivity

(i) Knowledge should remain open to revision

(ii) Interpretation of research should not reflect personal biases

(iii) Knowledge should be grounded in observation

(iv) Explanations should be as simple as possible

(v) Research statement should be based on accurate measurements

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)

(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)

(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (iv)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)

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61. The right to free and compulsory education at primary education level is ensured by our Constitution under:

(1) Article 21 A of 2009-Act

(2) Article 21 B of 2002-Act

(3) Article 45 of directive principles

(4) Article 21 A of 2002-Act

62. Which of the following set of factors pose hurdle in achieving targets of Universalization of elementary education in India?

(i) Materials to ensure minimum levels of learning

(ii) Poverty of parents

(iii) Slackness in implementing related provisions

(iv) Availability of boundary walls and safe drinking water

(v) Mindset of parents and teachers

(vi) Shortage of teachers

Code:

(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

63. Which of the following set of features represent the functions of Community Colleges of U.S.A?

(i) Low fee structure

(ii) Locally situated

(iii) International quality education

(iv) Helping the deprived sections

(v) Helping the urban poor

Code:

(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

64. Which of the following systems tends to practice utmost Centralization in Educational Administration?

(1) Primary education in U.S.A.

(2) Higher education in Ireland

(3) Primary education in U.K.

(4) Navodaya Vidyalayas in India

65. Which of the following combinations of learning resources gives a comprehensive concept of Distance Education?

(i) Mobile learning

(ii) Opportunity for teacher taught interactions

(iii) Mass media

(iv) Use of creative instructional procedures

(v) I.C.T.

(vi) Print material

Code:

(1) (i), (iii), (v) and (vi)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)

(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

66. Which one of the following is an essential part of the curricular designing process?

(1) Demographic features of the community

(2) Development index of the parents

(3) Consideration of inputs, process and output of instruction

(4) Affiliation of the school to a particular school board

67. There is a maximum scope of change in curricular contents by the state boards of school education in __________.

(1) Demonstration Model

(2) Administrative Model

(3) System Analysis Model

(4) Grassroot Model

68. In which Curricular Model a school teacher enjoys maximum autonomy?

(1) Demonstration Model

(2) Administrative Model

(3) System Analysis Model

(4) Grassroot Model

69. In which of the following approaches to curriculum design, constructivist orientation will be manifest?

(1) Job analysis of learning tasks

(2) Evaluation approach to curriculum design

(3) Concept mapping as a tool for curricular choice

(4) Input process emphasis on curriculum

70. The concept of Formative Evaluation implies that:

(1) Benchmarking data should be considered essential

(2) Learning should be assessed at terminal stages

(3) Learning should be managed and monitored continuously

(4) There should be emphasis on gradation of students in terms of learning outcome

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71. In the two sets which follow, Set - I contains the names of leaders of modern concepts of Educational Administration and Set - II indicates their theories. Match the two and indicate your answer from the code given:

Set - I (Leaders of modern concepts of Educational Administration)

Set - II (Specific theory contributed)

(a) Frederick Winslow Taylor

(b) Elton Mayo

(c) Rennis Likert

(d) Douglas Mc Gregor

(i) Theory X and Theory Y

(ii) Management systems

(iii) Human relations movement

(iv) Scientific management movement

(v) SOAR peak performance model

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)

72. Which combination of following characteristics correctly describes the Bureaucratic Administration?

(i) Well defined rules

(ii) Established hierarchy

(iii) Standard operating procedures

(iv) Good interpersonal relationships

(v) Combined responsibility of completing work

Code:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (v)

(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

73. In the two sets given below Set - I specifies the type of power exercised by an Educational Administrator and Set - II gives the description of these powers. Match the two and select your answer from the code.

Set - I (Type of power)

Set - II (Description)

(a) Coercive power

(b) Reward power

(c) Legitimate power

(d) Expert power

(i) The perception that the administrator has relevant education and experience

(ii) The perceived attractiveness of interaction

(iii) The perceived ability to provide things liked by the members

(iv) The perception that decisions taken by the administrator are appropriate in terms of role assigned

(v) Perceived ability to provide consequences for not performing

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)

(2) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

74. There are two sets given below. Set - I describes Leader behaviour in terms of task and relationship orientation while Set - II mentions the Leadership style. Match the two sets and give your answer by selecting an appropriate code:

Set - I (Leader behaviour)

Set - II (Style of Leadership)

(a) High task and low relationship

(b) High task and high relationship

(c) High relationship and low task

(d) Low relationship and low task

(i) Consulting style

(ii) Delegating style

(iii) Selling style

(iv) Telling style

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

75. A school principal plans the targets of activities and programmes to be undertaken in next five years. This is an example of:

(1) Grassroot planning

(2) Perspective planning

(3) System’s approach to planning

(4) Micro planning

76. The basic purpose of educational supervision is to:

(1) Ensure better result of students in the board examination

(2) Ensure effective teaching-learning ambieance in the school

(3) Ensure maximum attendance of learners in the school

(4) Ensure compliance of set rules and procedures

77. If the deviation of a score from the mean is given as 10 and standard deviation as 5, what will be the T-score for the concerned raw score?

(1) 50

(2) 75

(3) 70

(4) 80

78. Categories of Tests are given as Set - I and their description as Set - II. Match Set - I with Set - II and select appropriate code.

Set - I (Categories of Test)

Set - II (Description)

(a) Standardized test

(b) Norm referenced test

(c) Diagnostic test

(d) Criterion referenced test

(i) developed by teachers for local purposes to measure achievement

(ii) used for comparing individuals in terms of their relative position

(iii) analysis of strength and weakness of students for further help

(iv) developed by experts, administered and scored by using an objective procedure

(v) raw scores are compared with some pre-determined standard

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (v) (i) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii)

79. A multiple choice test consists of 50 test items. The difficulty values of items vary in a narrow range with an average value of 0.48. The test gave a variance of 81 when administered to a group of students. The reliability co efficient of the test would be:

(1) 0.91

(2) 0.86

(3) 0.78

(4) 0.67

80. The percentile rank of a student on a test was found to be 67. This means that:

(1) the student scored 67% marks.

(2) 33% students scored below his score.

(3) 67% students scored above his score.

(4) 67% students scored below his score.

81. A test having 20 items has a reliability coefficient of 0.60. If 80 more similar items are added, the new reliability coefficient would be:

(1) 0.81

(2) 0.86

(3) 0.88

(4) 0.92

82. Which of the following term is closely related to the meaning of the term ‘aptitude’?

(1) Ability

(2) Achievement

(3) Capability

(4) Potential

83. In the following list of statements identify those which are related to interactive stage of teaching. For indicating your answer select from the code.

Statements:

(a) The teacher decides what to teach.

(b) The teacher organizes learning tasks and monitors them.

(c) The teacher takes a planned repetition.

(d) Learning outcomes are determined.

(e) The teacher keeps students maximally ‘on task’ and minimally ‘off task’.

(f) The teacher assesses the learning outcomes.

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (e)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (d), (e) and (f)

(4) (a), (c) and (f)

84. In programmed learning who is said to be the proponent of ‘Adaptive programming’?

(1) Skinner

(2) Gilbert

(3) Crowder

(4) Mager

85. In the two sets which follow, Set - I indicates the specific devices and Set - II mentions the stage of programme development. Match the two on the basis of their appropriateness. Choose from the code to give your answer:

Set - I (Devices used)

Set - II (Stage of programme development)

(a) Writing of behavioural objectives

(b) Priming

(c) Prompting

(d) Testing

(i) For introductory frames

(ii) During withdrawl of prompts

(iii) For shaping behaviour in steps

(iv) Prior to development of a programme

(v) During small group try-out

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)

(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

86. From the list of statements given below which of them indicate the meaning, purpose and scope of Educational Technology. Give your answer by selecting from the code.

(a) ET optimises learning outcomes.

(b) ET reduces the cost of education.

(c) ET is user friendly.

(d) ET ensures effectiveness of learning outcomes.

(e) ET has a tremendous role in rendering teaching-learning systems effort effective.

(f) ET is the outcome of communication’s network.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (b), (c) and (f)

(4) (a), (d) and (e)

87. In which of the following Communication Model, there is optimum scope for encoding and decoding messages?

(1) International Model based on learner participation

(2) Distance Learning Model based on use of Information and Communication technology support

(3) Discussion-cum-Lecture session model conducted by the teacher

(4) Transactional model based on collaborative projects

88. Optimum use of the ‘Principle of successive approximation’ has been empirically demonstrated through which model of instruction?

(1) Model of school learning

(2) Programmed instructional model

(3) Concept attainment model

(4) Basic teaching model

89. The Duchenne is the most common type of:

(1) Spina bifida

(2) Multiple Sclerosis

(3) Muscular dystrophy

(4) Traumatic Brain Injury

90. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of students with learning disabilities?

(1) They show perceptual impairment affecting perceptual skills such as thinking and reasoning.

(2) They learn in the same way as efficiently as their classmates.

(3) They display academic performance higher than expected.

(4) They have the emotional problem which is one of the primary causes of their learning disabilities.

91. Match the following two sets given below. Set - I consists of terms related to specific deviations and Set - II consists of resultant impairments.

Set - I (Terms denoting nature of deviations)

Set - II (Resultant Impairments)

(a) Cerebral Palsy

(b) Congenital Cytomegalovirus

(c) Dyslexia

(d) Nystagmus

(i) Problems related to reading words and letter

(ii) Characterised by rapid, involuntary movements of eyes which make it difficult to focus on objects and causes dizziness

(iii) Disorder related to movements and posture

(iv) Herpes - related viral infection causes hearing loss

(v) Disorder related to farsightedness

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (v)

(2) (ii) (v) (i) (iv)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (v)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

92. Match the following two sets. Set - I consists of terms related to refractive disorders, retinal and optic nerve problems. Set - II provides description of those terms. Select the correct code for indicating your answer.

Set - I (Terms)

Set - II (Description)

(a) Astigmatism

(b) Glaucoma

(c) Hyperopia

(d) Retinitis Pigmentosa

(i) It occurs when the flow of fluids in the eye is restricted

(ii) It is a hereditary disorder that causes degeneration of retina

(iii) It is the result of improper functioning of muscles of eye(s)

(iv) It is most commonly known as farsightedness, results from the failure of cornea

(v) Result in blurred vision, caused by an uneven curve of cornea or lens of eye

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (v) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

93. Morfan Syndrome is a kind of:

(1) Genetic disorder

(2) Viral Infection

(3) Degenerative neuromuscular disease

(4) Muscular contraction

94. Which of the following provisions is most appropriate for addressing the learning needs of the students having disabilities/impairments?

(1) Individualised Transition Programme(ITP)

(2) Pre-school Programmes for children

(3) Individualised Education Programme(IEP)

(4) Free and Appropriate Education(FAPE)

95. Which of the following has relatively greater promise for professionalisation of teacher education in India?

(1) Forming of teacher associations

(2) Developing teacher code for transaction of teaching-learning systems

(3) Special packages to teachers offered

(4) Enhancing the period of pre-service teacher education programme

96. Below are given a few programmes for enhancing teacher quality. Which of these are specially related to in-service teacher education? Select the correct code to indicate your answer.

(a) Induction training

(b) Skill development training

(c) Pedagogy courses in specific subjects

(d) Foundation courses in teacher educations

(e) Micro-simulation for particular competencies

Code:

(1) (a), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (e)

(3) (c), (d), (e)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

97. For application of Total Quality Management (TQM) in teacher education, which of the following measures will be considered helpful? Select the correct code to indicate your answer.

(a) Finding out the needed number of teachers in various states-demand and supply of teachers

(b) ‘Can do’, Will do’ analysis for specified groups of teacher educators

(c) Finding out the number of teacher education institutions

(d) SWOC analysis by teacher educators

(e) Action research projects to improve school practices

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (d)

(2) (b), (d), (e)

(3) (c), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

98. Which of the following set of statements is relevant for describing teaching as a Profession? For your answer select the correct code.

(a) Teaching Profession has an organised body of knowledge

(b) Teaching Profession implies a set of attitudes

(c) Duration of Teacher Training Programme is not a professional pre-requisite

(d) Teaching Profession has its own code of moral ethics

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c)

99. Which of the following arrangements is an effective suppliment for providing Teacher Education through distance mode?

(1) EDUSAT

(2) Smart Classrooms

(3) Virtual Universities

(4) MOOC

100. Which of the following has been found to be effective for modifying teacher behaviour in terms of the evidences supported by research?

(1) Interaction analysis procedure for classroom teaching behaviour

(2) Participation in seminars

(3) Undergoing training in research methodology

(4) Teacher consultation

Answer Key:

Question

Answer

Question

Answer

Question

Answer

Question

Answer

1

2

26

1

51

3

76

2

2

2

27

4

52

2

77

3

3

3

28

3

53

1

78

2

4

2

29

4

54

1

79

2

5

4

30

1

55

4

80

4

6

4

31

4

56

2

81

3

7

2

32

1

57

2

82

4

8

2

33

3

58

3

83

1

9

3

34

2

59

4

84

3

10

3

35

1

60

2

85

4

11

4

36

3

61

4

86

4

12

4

37

2

62

2

87

4

13

4

38

2

63

3

88

2

14

2

39

1

64

4

89

3

15

1

40

2

65

1

90

1

16

2

41

3

66

3

91

4

17

4

42

1

67

2

92

1

18

3

43

1

68

4

93

1

19

1

44

3

69

3

94

3

20

2

45

1

70

3

95

2

21

4

46

1

71

3

96

2

22

3

47

1

72

4

97

2

23

3

48

4

73

2

98

3

24

3

49

3

74

4

99

4

25

4

50

3

75

2

100

1

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET December 2019 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET December 2019 Exam.

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