CLAT Question Paper 2024: Download PDF

UG CLAT 2024 was conducted on Sunday, December 3, 2023, by the Consortium of National Law Universities (NLUs) for students seeking admissions in the UG Law programs of 22 registered law institutions from across the nation, under the Consortium.  The CLAT 2024 exam was conducted from 2 pm to 4 pm. As opposed to the previous years, CLAT 2024 exam had a total of 150 questions. In this article, we have shared the today’s CLAT question paper for UG and PG exams. The CLAT question paper PDF download link is given towards the end of the article.

CHECK:

 CLAT 2024 Key Dates

• Candidates can raise objections against the CLAT provisional answer key up to December 5, 2023.
• The CLAT UG Final Answer Key will be released on December 9, 2023.
• CLAT 2024 Result Date: December 10, 2023

CLAT 2024 Question Paper Section Wise Analysis

As per the initial conversations with candidates, the overall difficulty was moderate with few tricky questions here and there. However, the paper was lengthy. CLAT questions are not always set alike. The question paper difficulty level is set in such a manner that it caters to the cognitive capacity of all candidates ranging from below-average preparation to good preparation. There are five sections in the question paper and more often than not, the difficulty level for each section in the CLAT UG Question paper varies.

UG CLAT 2024 Question Paper: Section Wise Difficulty Analysis

Check UG CLAT 2024 Section Wise Analysis in detail.

CLAT UG 2024 Question Paper

CLAT UG exam started at 2 pm on Sunday, December 3, 2023. Students had 2 hours, until 4 pm, to attempt the paper. As per the exam day instructions by the Consortium of NLUs, students are allowed to carry their question booklet outside the exam hall.

CLAT PG Question Paper 2024 Download PDF

For your reference, you should also check the previous year CLAT UG Question Papers below:

English Language Section

Question 1

The crisis of justice that is the subject matter of discussion in the media today is in fact the crisis of "justice for the middle class. The main difference between India and the OECD (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development) countries is that whereas the middle class in these countries has reasonable access to justice, in India it does not. A vocal and powerful middle class has emerged in India since 1991, It is demanding reasonable access to justice. Much of the judicial reform effort will help meet this demand....

Extracted, with edits, from 'Justice and Two Ideas of India', by G. Mohan Gopal, Frontline

1.Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

(A)The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that esist in society.
(B)Access to the judicial system is determined more by a person’s economic status such as wealth and income, than by their social status, such as religion and caste.
(C) The judicial system was made by the rich, for the rich, of the rich.
(D)None of the above.

2.Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?

(A)A truly representative democracy would ensure that the interests of the poor are also represented in the judicial system.
(B)The law ensures equality both in text and in practise.
(C)The poor suffer most at the hands of lawyers and touts compared to the judges who might still pronounce judgment in their favour from time to time.
(D)All of the above.

4.What is the central thesis of the above extract?

(A)The practice of untouchabolity takes various forms in modern India.
(B)The imaginations of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different.
(C)Addressing judge strength and case load management does not affect the performance of the judicial system.
(D)Protecting the livelihood of traditional taxi drivers is contrary to the goals of ease of doing business.

5.What does the author mean by ‘docket-excluded’in the second paragraph?

(A)The poor do not have easy access to the justice system.
(B)Courts do not list bail peditions of poor undertrial prisoners who populare the country’s jails.
(C)The poor reject the judicial system as being alien to their language and logic.
(D)The rich are excluded form the country’s prisons, which are mostly populated by the poor.

Question 2

English literature is a vast and diverse field that has left an indelible mark on the world of letters. From the eloquent plays of William Shakespeare to the complex novels of Jane Austen and the profound poetry of William Wordsworth, English literature offers a window into the human experience. One of the luminaries of English literature is William Shakespeare, often hailed as the greatest playwright in the history of English language. His works, including Hamlet, Macbeth, and Romeo and Juliet, are celebrated for their exploration of human nature, love, ambition, and tragedy. His characters, such as the tormented Hamlet and the star-crossed lovers Romeo and Juliet, continue to captivate readers and audiences worldwide....

...

7. What is the title of Virginia Woolf's novel known for its modenist narrative style?

(A) Pride and Prejudice

(B) Nineteen Eighty-Four

(C) Mrs Dalloway

(D) The God of Small Things

8. Identify the 20th century novel mentioned in the passage that provides a warning about the dangers of totalitarianism?

(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four

(B) Romeo and Juliet

(C) Sense and Sensibility

(D) "I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud"

9. What does the passage highlight as the enduring power of English literature?

(A) Its ability to win literary awards

(B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles.

(C) Its ability to captivate and inspire only British readers

(D) The decline of storytelling

10. Who is often regarded as the greatest playwright in the history of English language?

(A) Jane Austen

(B) William Wordsworth

(C) William Shakespeare

(D) George Orwell

11. Which of Jane Austen's novels is known for its social commentary and witty portrayal of romance?

(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four

(B) Sense and Sensibility

(C) "I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud"

(D) "The Rime of the Ancient Mariner"

Question 3

In the realm of contemporary literature, the interplay between character and setting is a nuanced dance that shapes the narrative's essence. The setting, often described with painstaking detail, becomes more than a backdrop, it becomes a character, influencing the plot and character development...

13.What does the term "interplay" refer to in the context of the passage?

(A) A lack of interaction between characters and setting.
(B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative. 
(C) An insignificant connection between characters and setting.
(D) A complete separation of characters and setting.

14.Which of the following words best describes the setting in The God of Small Things?

(A) Boring.
(B) Lush and vibrant.
(C) Insignificant.
(D) Dark and foreboding.

15.What is the main theme discussed in the passage?

(A) The characters in contemporary literature are not influenced by their settings. 
(B) Setting in literature is unimportant.
(C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative. 
(D) Settings have no role in character development.

16. In contemporary literature, how is the relationship between character and setting described in the passage?

(A) It is non-existent; characters and settings are entirely separate entities.
(B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development.
(C) Characters and settings are interchangeable.
(D) Settings are insignificant in contemporary literature.

17. In the novel, The Namesake by Jhumpa Lahiri, what does the barren desert landscape symbolize?

(A) A thriving community.
(B) The protagonist's sense of isolation and identity crisis.
(C) A lush, vibrant setting.
(D) A happy, carefree life.

18. What role does the Scottish moors play in Shakespeare's Macbeth?

(A) It serves as a beautiful, serene landscape.
(B) It has no influence on the characters' actions. 
(C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy. 
(D) It is a place for the characters to relax.

Question 4

Everything she wanted was here, at Carignano, in Kasauli. Here, on the ridge of the mountain, in this quiet house. It was the place, and the time of life, that she had wanted and prepared for all her life-as she realized on the first day at Carignano, with a great, cool flowering of relief-and at last she had it. She wanted no one and nothing else. Whatever else came, or happened here, would be an unwelcome intrusion and distraction. This she tried to convey to the plodding postman with a cold and piercing stare from the height of the ridge onto his honest bull back. Unfortunately, he did not look up at her on the hilltop but stared stolidly down at the dust piling onto his shoes as he plodded on. A bullock-man, an oafish ox, she thought bitterly. She stepped backwards into the garden and the wind suddenly billowed up and threw the pine branches about as though to curtain her. She was grey, tall and thin and her silk sari made a sweeping, shivering sound and she fancied she could merge with the pine trees and be mistaken for one. To be a tree, no more and no less, was all she was prepared to undertake....

19. The protagonist's description of the nestlings' screams as "shrill and maddening" shows that:

(A) She perceives the sounds to be out of tune yet soothing.
(B) She considers the nestlings to be symbols of new life and vitality.
(C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating.
(D) She feels a sense of protectiveness and care towards the nestlings.

20. Which of the following statements are true about the protagonist's overall state of mind in Carignano?

Statement I: She experienced a sense of constant restlessness and anguish. 
Statement II: She felt isolated and disconnected from her environment.
Statement III: She was content, fulfilled, and at peace with her surroundings.
(A) Statement I and II
(C) Only Statement II
(B) Statement II and III
(D) Only Statement III

21. In the light of above passage, what role does nature play in the protagonist's life at Carignano?

(A) It provides her with a source of creativity.
(B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging.
(C) It serves as a reminder of the harsh realities of life.
(D) It serves as a constant source of distraction and intrusion for her.

22. What does the protagonist's preference for "barrenness" and "starkness" at Carignano suggest about her personality?

(A) She enjoys a bustling and vibrant environment.
(B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings.
(C) She prefers lush and colorful landscapes.
(D) She seeks constant stimulation and variety in her life.

23. What do you get to know about the protagonist's state of mind from her reaction towards the postman?

(A) She feels grateful for his presence and the assistance he offers.
(B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude.
(C) She feels suspicious and is interested in the lives of others.
(D) She is disinterested and generally unaffected by the presence of others.

24. What does the protagonist's desire to be mistaken for a pine tree reveal about her mindset?

(A) She desires to be appreciated and noticed by others in society.

(B) She has a deep admiration for the beauty of the pine trees.
(C) She feels a sense of superiority over other living beings.
(D) She yearns to one with nature and escapes from her human identity.

Current Affairs, including General Knowledge

Question 5

On 7th October 2023, an armed conflict broke out between Israel and Hamas-led Palestinian militants from the Gaza Strip[o] after the latter launched a multi-pronged invasion of southern Israel. After clearing Hamas militants, the Israeli military retaliated by conducting an extensive aerial bombardment campaign on Gazan targets and followed up with a large- scale ground invasion of Gaza. More than 1,400 Israelis, mostly civilians, and more than. 10,000 Palestinians have been killed in the fighting. Over 240 Israelis and foreign nationals were taken hostage and brought into the Gaza Strip...

25. What was the reason for Hamas-led Palestinian militants' attack on Israel?

(A) To retaliate against Israeli settler violence against Palestinians
(B) In response to the desecration of the Western Wall
(C) To protest against the construction of Palestinian settlements in the West Bank (D) To seek an end to the Gaza Strip blockade

26. What was the reaction of the international community to the killing of Israeli civilians?

(A) Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries
(B) Ignored by most of the countries
(C) Supported by the UN
(D) Praised as a necessary measure by 10 countries

27. Which of the following is not true about the historical context of the Israel Hamas Conflict?

(A) The Palestinian refugees started settling under Ottoman rule in the late 19th Century
(B) Hamas emerged during the first Intifada in the late 1980s
(C) Hamas was formally known as the Islamic Resistance Movement
(D) First Intifada was a Palestinian uprising against Israeli rule.

28. What has been the response of the Israeli military to the Hamas-led attack?

(A) Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion
(B) Conducted an aerial bombardment campaign only
(C) Asked for international intervention
(D) Captured and imprisoned the militants responsible

29. What is the current hostilities known as in the Gaza-Israel conflict?

(A) Sixth war 
(B) Fifth war
(C) Seventh war
(D) Fourth war

30. Which major war does the current Gaza-Israel conflict resemble?

(A) Yom Kippur War
(B) Iraq War
(C) Six-Day War
(D) Gulf War

Question 6

On 26th January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic structure, continue to deny the principle of one man one value. How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions? How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny ting our political democracy in peril...

31. What is the life of contradiction referred to here?

(A) That of equality in politics but inequality in social and economic structure 
(B) That of inequality in politics but equality in social and economic structure 
(C) That of inequality in social structure but equality in economic structure
(D) That of equality in politics and economic structure but inequality in social structure

32. What will happen, according to Dr. Ambedkar, if we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life?

(A) There will be no injustice
(B) Our political democracy will be in danger
(C) Equality in social and economic life will be achieved nevertheless
(D) Our social and economic life will be in peril

33. What might be the cause, according to Dr. Ambedkar, if things go wrong under the new Constitution?

(A) That the Constitution was ignored
(B) That the men called upon to work the Constitution were good
(C) That the men called upon to work the Constitution were not good 
(D) That the Constitution was bad and failed the people

34. What does social democracy mean?

(A) Equality before the Law 
(B) Equality of opportunities
(C) Equality in social life
(D) Equality in economic life

35. When does a bad Constitution turnout to be good?

(A) When the people called upon to work it are good 
(B) When the people called upon to work it are bad 
(C) When the Constitution is amended
(D) None of the above

36. Which of the following statement is not correct about what Dr. B.R. Ambedkar feel about the Constitution?

(A) The Constitution is workable
(B) The Constitution is flexible
(C) The Constitution is strong enough to hold the country together in peacetime only 
(D) The Constitution is strong enough to hold the country together both in peacetime and in wartime

Question 7

The 18th G20 Summit, in which the heads of states and governments will meet, on September 9 and 10 will be held in India's national capital New Delhi. Over 25 world leaders along with other delegates are going to attend this mega event...

37. The Group of Twenty (G20) is a forum for _______
Select the correct option.

(A) International economic cooperation 
(B) International peace and security
(C) International cooperation for combating money laundering 
(D) All of the above

38. The G20 Summit is hosted by the incumbent 'Presidency. The G20 Presidency is responsible for bringing together the G20 agenda in consultation with other members and in response to developments in the global economy. Which country will hold the Presidency in 2024?

(A) India
(B) Indonesia
(C) Brazil
(D) Saudi Arabia

39. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the G20?
(A) Egypt
(B) Mexico 
(C) Republic of Korea
(D) Turkiye

40. At every G20 Summit, the host country invites countries and institutions that are not members of the G20. Which among the following denotes the correct list of countries being G20 invitees to the Summit held in New Delhi in September 2023?

(A) Nepal, Bangladesh, Egypt, Netherlands
(B) Bhutan, Mauritius, Nigeria, Oman
(C) Bangladesh, Singapore, Spain, Netherlands
(D) Sri Lanka, Egypt, UAE, Mauritius

Question 8

On the evening of the 10th, General Dyer arrived at Amritsar, and the Deputy-Commissioner handed over the civil power to him. He issued a proclamation by word of mouth that no meetings should be held. Two days later, after there had been no sort of riot, nor murder, General Dyer heard that a meeting was to be held at the Jallianwala Bagh. He proceeded there with about fifty troops, half British, half Indian, and a certain number of Ghurkas, armed with their kukris. The Jallianwala Bagh is an open space, half a mile square, which has one entry wide enough for three persons. The troops got in and lined up on a mound of debris...

41. Which incident is described in the passage?

(A) Baisakhi festival at Amritsar, April 1919 
(B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919 
(C) Congress Protests of April 1919
(D) Non-Cooperation Movement, April 1919

42. Why did the General Dyer order to fire on the crowd?

(A) To bring the crowd under control
(B) To scatter the crowd
(C) To teach the crowd a lesson
(D) To enforce the martial law

43. In the light of above passage, what was the intention of the speaker?

(A) To praise General Dyer
(B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer
(C) To get sympathy for the Indians who died
(D) All of the above

44. After the incident, who helped the injured and the dying people?

(A) The army
(B) The police
(C) The civil administration
(D) Some people who lived nearby

45. What would be the feelings of the Indian children brought up to the spot?

(A) Friendliness to the British rule 
(B) Bitterness about the British rule 
(C) A sense of helplessness
(D) None of the above

46. What was the full name of General Dyer?

(A) Reginald Murree Harry Dyer 
(C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer
(B) Reginald Royce Harry Dyer 
(D) Reginald Coleman Harry Dyer

Question 9

Today, India has become the fourth country in the world to touch the surface of the moon. This success becomes even greater when we look at the place from where India had started its journey. There was a time when India did not have the required technology and there was no support either. We used to be among the 'Third World' countries, standing in the third row. Today, India has become the fifth largest economy in the world. Today, from trade to technology, India is among the countries standing in the first row. In this journey from third row to first row, institutions like ISRO have played a major role. Today, you have taken 'Make in India' to the moon.

...

47. In what did India become the fourth country in the world?

(A) Sending a spacecraft to the moon 
(B) Landing a spacecraft on the moon 
(C) Landing a man on the moon
(D) Crashlanding (impacting) a spacecraft on the moon

48. What is the role of Pragyan?

(A) To move around the moon, leaving footprints 
(B) To take photographs of the moon, while moving 
(C) Showing these pictures to the world
(D) To record the laser radiation

49. Name one institution that played a major role in bringing India to the forefront.

(A) Tata Industries
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) ISRO
(D) Reliance industries

50. What is the name of the moon lander and the rover?

(A) Vikram and Pragyan
(C) Chandrayaan and Vikram
(B) Pragyan-2 and Vikram
(D) Chandrayaan and Pragyan

51. Whom did the Prime Minister address this to?

(A) To the people of India
(C) To the students
(B) To the world
(D) To the scientists of ISRO

52. Which of the following countries in the world had touched the surface of the moon?

(A) United States of America, USSR, China, India 
(B) United States of America, Russia, China, India 
(C) United States of America, USSR, France, India 
(D) United States of America, Russia, Israel, India

Legal Reasoning

Question 10

In India, the legal landscape surrounding online defamation is a subject of significant interest and debate. With the rise of social media, and online platforms, cases of online defamation have become increasingly common. Defamation refers to making false statements about someone that harm their reputation. Online defamation includes defamatory statements made on the internet, including social media, blogs, forums, and other online platforms...

53. What is the primary focus of the passage?

(A) The rise of social media in India.
(B) The legal aspects of online defamation in India. 
(C) The role of intermediaries in online content.
(D) The importance of free speech on the internet.

54. What is online defamation, as described in the passage?

(A) Making harmful statements about someone in person.
(B) False statements made on the internet that harm someone's reputation. 
(C) Online harassment.
(D) A form of political activism.

55. What is the significance of Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as mentioned in the passage?

(A) It defines defamation laws in India.
(B) It provides safe harbor for intermediaries in cases of online defamation.
(C) It regulates the content on social media platforms.
(D) It allows private complaints against online defamation.

56. According to the Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India case, under what circumstances should intermediaries act in response to content removal?

(A) Upon receiving a private complaint.
(B) Upon a valid court order or government directive.
(C) Proactively to monitor content.
(D) Only if the content is found to be defamatory.

57. How does the Indian legal system balance the Right to Freedom of Expression and the Right to Reputation in online defamation cases?

(A) By favoring freedom of expression over reputation. 
(B) By favoring reputation over freedom of expression.
(C) By carefully examining the content, context, and intent of statements,
(D) By absolving intermediaries of their responsibilities.

58. In an online defamation case, what must the plaintiff prove about the defamatory statement?

(A) That it was political activism.
(B) That it was made with good intentions.
(C) That it was true and intended to inform the public.
(D) That it was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault.

59. What is the role of intermediaries in the context of online defamation cases?

(A) To actively monitor and censor content.
(B) To act upon private complaints for content removal.
(C) To completely absolve themselves of liability. 
(D) To encourage online defamation.

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