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UPSC NDA (2) 2019: General Ability Test English Mock Test with Answers (200 Marks)

Practicing Mock Tests can help the candidates in scoring high marks in UPSC NDA 2 2019 Written Exam. In this article we have provided the mock test for English Section of General Ability Test which consists of 200 marks out of total 600 Marks. So, start practicing the mock tests for UPSC NDA 2 2019 Exam.

Nov 7, 2019 11:46 IST
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UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test English Mock Test with Answers (200 Marks)
UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test English Mock Test with Answers (200 Marks)

UPSC will conduct the written exam for National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy (NA) II 2019 Recruitment on 17th November 2019.  The written exam consists of two papers, i.e., General Ability Test (GAT) & Mathematics. General Ability Test consists of 150 questions from two sections which are English (Part-A) and General Knowledge (Part-B). Part-A English Section of GAT will consist of 50 questions of total 200 Marks. The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.

To score high marks in UPSC NDA & NA 2 2019 Exam candidates must start practicing the mock tests for General Ability Test Section of the exam. For the ease of the candidates we have created English Mock test based on the latest exam pattern of the UPSC NDA & NA 2 2019 Exam.

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UPSC NDA 2 2019: Part A English - General Ability Test

(200 Marks – 50 Questions of 4 marks each)

Directions (1 - 8): Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

1.  The slump in business made Mr. Sharma Bankrupt.

a) Rise

b) Disease

c)  Fall

d) Theft

Answer: c)

2.  Parents should cultivate in their children the habit of cleanliness.

a) Foster

b) Aggravate

c)  Interrogate

d) Neglect

Answer: a)

3.  She is a contemplative person.

a) Manipulative

b) Shallow

c)  Careless

d) Thoughtful

Answer: d)

4.  The novel began in an eerie situation.

a) Happy

b) Scary

c)  Normal

d) Sad

Answer: b)

5.  All the characters in the movie are fictitious.

a) Bogus

b) Misleading

c)  Imaginary

d) Real

Answer: c)

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6.  Her dedication to fitness was almost fanatical.

a) Violent

b) Overenthusiastic

c)  Apathetic

d) Calm

Answer: b)

7.  They hope to emulate the success of other blue-chip companies.

a) Neglect

b) Instigate

c)  Modify

d) Imitate

Answer: d)

8.  She loved her father’s vivid description of foreign cities.

a) Picturesque

b) Insignificant

c)  Weak

d) Fresh

Answer: a)

Directions (9 - 16): Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

9.  He accepted the challenge with an alacrity that surprised me.

a) Liveliness

b) Avidity

c)  Lethargy

d) Briskness

Answer: c)

10. He looked adorable in his new dress.

a) Charming

b) Despicable

c)  Amenable

d) Amicable

Answer: b)

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11. The revised tax structure is uniform.

a) Broken

b) Varied

c)  Static

d) Opposite

Answer: b)

12. Tolerance is essential for peace and harmony.

a) Bigotry

b) Resilience

c)  Endurance

d) Indifference

Answer: a)

13. She is urbane in her manners.

a) Rural

b) Affable

c)  Uncivilized

d) Debonair

Answer: c)

14. He confessed his feelings for me.

a) Addressed

b) Suppressed

c)  Stressed

d) Disclosed

Answer: b)

15. She made an exhaustive list of grocery items.

a) Unnecessary

b) Strict

c)  Incomplete

d) Intensive

Answer: c)

16. There was a marginal increase in the revenues of the company.

a) Minor

b) Significant

c)  Negligible

d) Unforeseen

Answer: b)

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Directions (17 - 30): In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly.

17. S1: It was a dark and stormy night.

S6: In no time it landed on the road.

P: It started raining cats and dogs.

Q: Christopher was returning home.

R: Suddenly he saw a U.F.O. appearing from the clouds above.

S: The whole of Greentown was covered by dark clouds.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS

b) SQPR

c)  RQPS

d) PQSR

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘SQPR’:

1) The whole of Greentown was covered by dark clouds.

2) Christopher was returning home.

3) It started raining cats and dogs.

4) Suddenly he saw a U.F.O. appearing from the clouds above.

18. S1: Narada, the celestial sage, was a confirmed bachelor, but one day he saw Princess Shrimati and fell in love with her.

S6: He asked that Narada should appear to have a monkey's face.

P: Both were devotees of Lord Vishnu and both sought his help.

Q: To his dismay another sage, Tumburu, was also smitten by her and wanted to   marry her.

R: Tumburu, not knowing that his rival had already approached Vishnu, made a similar request.

S: Narada asked that Tumburu's face should change into a bear's at the Swayamvar at which the princess would select her husband.

The proper sequence should be:

a) QPRS

b) SQRP

c)  PQRS

d) QPSR

Answer: d)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘QPSR’:

1) To his dismay another sage, Tumburu, was also smitten by her and wanted to marry her.

2) Both were devotees of Lord Vishnu and both sought his help.

3) Narada asked that Tumburu's face should change into a bear's at the Swayamvar at which the princess would select her husband.

4) Tumburu, not knowing that his rival had already approached Vishnu, made a similar request.

19. S1: The ambassador of Nippon presented a beautiful cat to the Emperor of China.

S6: At the end of this period they were summoned to the palace again, and asked for their suggestions.

P: He called his ministers, the seven wisest men in the empire, and commanded them to find a suitable name for his pet within seven days.

Q: Eventually the emperor decided that the cat should have a name.

R: People kept asking for the cat’s name and were surprised when told that it had none.

S: The emperor became fond of the animal and took it with him wherever he went.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PQRS

c)  SRQP

d) SRPQ

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘SRQP’:

1) The emperor became fond of the animal and took it with him wherever he went.

2) People kept asking for the cat’s name and were surprised when told that it had none.

3) Eventually the emperor decided that the cat should have a name.

4) He called his ministers, the seven wisest men in the empire, and commanded them to find a suitable name for his pet within seven days.

20. S1: A valet was riding behind his master, the aristocratic Chen Yu.

S6: "That's because you've not fed it!" said Chen Yu, angrily, and gave the lad such a blow on his head that it nearly unhorsed him.

P: Chen Yu turned round and when he saw his valet lagging far behind, yelled at him to ride faster.

Q: "Stay right behind me!" roared Chen Yu.

R: With great effort, the valet caught up with his master.

S: "My horse is old, master," said the valet. "It cannot keep up with yours."

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PRQS

c)  PRSQ

d) PQRS

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘PRQS’:

1) Chen Yu turned round and when he saw his valet lagging far behind, yelled at him to ride faster.

2) With great effort, the valet caught up with his master.

3) "Stay right behind me!" roared Chen Yu.

4) "My horse is old, master," said the valet. "It cannot keep up with yours."

21. S1: In a shop at the Palais-Royal they found a string of diamonds which seemed to them exactly like the one they were looking for.

S6: Loisel possessed eighteen thousand francs left to him by his father and intended to borrow the rest.

P: They were allowed to have it for thirty-six thousand.

Q: They begged the jeweler not to sell it for three days.

R: And they arranged matters on the understanding that it would be taken back for thirty-four thousand francs, if the first one were found before the end of February.

S: It was worth forty thousand francs.

The proper sequence should be:

a) SPRQ

b) SQPR

c)  SRQP

d) SPQR

Answer: d)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘SPQR’:

1) It was worth forty thousand francs.

2) They were allowed to have it for thirty-six thousand.

3) They begged the jeweler not to sell it for three days.

4) And they arranged matters on the understanding that it would be taken back for thirty-four thousand francs, if the first one were found before the end of February.

22. S1: So far, the southwest monsoon conditions remain favourable – rainfall at 4% below the long term average, and reasonably well-distributed.

S6: In items like arhar (tur) and urad, inflation was already at 23% in May (latest data available at the disaggregate level), and in June it is likely to be even higher.

P: And, the surge in pulses inflation invites concern.

Q: But rains have weakened compared to June.

R: Also, sowing data looks healthy – area sown under kharif crop as on July 10 was 61.8% higher than last year.

S: In the year so far (January to June 2015), pulses inflation has been 13.8% compared to just 4.7% in the same period of 2014.

The proper sequence should be:

a) RQSP

b) RQPS

c)  RPQS

d) RSPQ

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘RQPS’:

1) Also, sowing data looks healthy – area sown under kharif crop as on July 10 was 61.8% higher than last year.

2) But rains have weakened compared to June.

3) And, the surge in pulses inflation invites concern.

4) In the year so far (January to June 2015), pulses inflation has been 13.8% compared to just 4.7% in the same period of 2014.

23. S1: The delivery of health care services—from primary care to secondary and tertiary levels of care—is the most visible part of any health care system, both to users and the general public.

S6: This could be when practitioner and patient communicate over the phone, video conferencing, the internet, email, text messages, or any other form of non-face-to-face communication.

P: The place of delivery may be in the home, the community, the workplace, or in health facilities.

Q: There are many ways of providing health care in the modern world.

R: This is what occurs in general medicine in most countries. However, with modern telecommunications technology, in absentia health care is becoming more common.

S: The most common way is face-to-face delivery, where care provider and patient see each other 'in the flesh'.

The proper sequence should be:

a) QSRP

b) QSPR

c)  QPSR

d) QPRS

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘QPSR’

1) There are many ways of providing health care in the modern world.

2) The place of delivery may be in the home, the community, the workplace, or in health facilities.

3) The most common way is face-to-face delivery, where care provider and patient see each other 'in the flesh'.

4) This is what occurs in general medicine in most countries. However, with modern telecommunications technology, in absentia health care is becoming more common.

24. S1: In contrast to last year, the initial outlook for the southwest monsoon looks hardly promising.

S6: However, the initial forecast made in April cannot be the basis for arriving at any firm conclusions; at best, it may serve as a pointer.

P: The forecast probability of both deficient and below-normal categories is double the climatological probability, which is based on how the monsoon fared in previous years.

Q: While the chances of excess rainfall occurring are non-existent, initial indications are that the monsoon this year will be subnormal or deficient.

R: According to the first-stage forecast issued by the India Meteorological Department, the southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall is likely to be 93 per cent of the long-period average with a margin of error of 5 per cent.

S: For the June-September season, both the deficient (less than 90 per cent of long-period average, or LPA) and below-normal (between 90 and 96 per cent of the long-period average) categories have a nearly equal probability of 33 and 35 per cent respectively.

The proper sequence should be:

a) RSPQ

b) RSQP

c)  RQPS

d) RQSP

Answer: a)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘RSPQ’

1) According to the first-stage forecast issued by the India Meteorological Department, the southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall is likely to be 93 per cent of the long-period average with a margin of error of 5 per cent.

2) For the June-September season, both the deficient (less than 90 per cent of long-period average, or LPA) and below-normal (between 90 and 96 per cent of the long-period average) categories have a nearly equal probability of 33 and 35 per cent respectively.

3) The forecast probability of both deficient and below-normal categories is double the climatological probability, which is based on how the monsoon fared in previous years.

4) While the chances of excess rainfall occurring are non-existent, initial indications are that the monsoon this year will be subnormal or deficient.

25. S1: Baltimore, a city that has a high concentration of African-Americans relative to other parts of the country, suffers from specific issues such as urban poverty owing to long-term deindustrialization and unemployment.

S6: And until the economic system evolves a way of addressing inner-city poverty, such incidents seem destined to recur.

P: It has very high crime rates with the African-American youth of the inner cities in particular prone to be blamed for them even as they face difficult living conditions.

Q: Unless the U.S. rethinks its strategies on crime and punishment with respect to the black community — incarceration rates among African-Americans continue to remain unacceptably high.

R: Law enforcement in the city has been characterized by police brutality, and despite a better racial balance than elsewhere in the country in the city’s administration there is a severe lack of confidence in the system among residents.

S: The abysmal state of affairs, which was depicted realistically by the popular TV series The Wire, extends to other inner cities as well.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS

b) PRSQ

c)  PRQS

d) PSQR

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘PRSQ’

1) It has very high crime rates with the African-American youth of the inner cities in particular prone to be blamed for them even as they face difficult living conditions.

2) Law enforcement in the city has been characterized by police brutality, and despite a better racial balance than elsewhere in the country in the city’s administration there is a severe lack of confidence in the system among residents.

3) The abysmal state of affairs, which was depicted realistically by the popular TV series The Wire, extends to other inner cities as well.

4) Unless the U.S. rethinks its strategies on crime and punishment with respect to the black community — incarceration rates among African-Americans continue to remain unacceptably high.

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26. S1: The Indian Pharmaceuticals market size is expected to grow to US$ 85 billion by 2020.

S6: In addition, the thrust on rural health programmes, life saving drugs and preventive vaccines also augurs well for the pharma companies.

P: Going forward, better growth in domestic sales will depend on the ability of companies to align their product portfolio towards chronic therapies for diseases such as such as cardiovascular, anti-diabetes, anti-depressants and anti-cancers are on the rise.

Q: Moreover, the government has been taking several cost effective measures in order to bring down healthcare expenses.

R: The growth in Indian domestic market will be on back of increasing consumer spending, rapid urbanisation, raising healthcare insurance, and so on.

S: Thus, governments are focusing on speedy introduction of generic drugs into the market.

The proper sequence should be:

a) RQSP

b) RSPQ

c)  RPQS

d) RQPS

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘RPQS’

1) The growth in Indian domestic market will be on back of increasing consumer spending, rapid urbanisation, raising healthcare insurance, and so on.

2) Going forward, better growth in domestic sales will depend on the ability of companies to align their product portfolio towards chronic therapies for diseases such as such as cardiovascular, anti-diabetes, anti-depressants and anti-cancers are on the rise.

3) Moreover, the government has been taking several cost effective measures in order to bring down healthcare expenses.

4) Thus, governments are focusing on speedy introduction of generic drugs into the market.

27. S1: For a country on the growth trajectory, the public-private-partnership (PPP) model has worked quite well.

S6: This was precisely the challenge that the eight-member Kelkar Committee, headed by former finance secretary Vijay Kelkar, tried to address.

P: Consider this: at the end of December 2014, the value of all projects that have been stalled — mostly in the infrastructure sector — stood at an eye-popping `8.8 lakh crore (or 7 per cent of GDP) according to the Economic Survey-2014.

Q: But the model also revealed weaknesses.

R: If you add the cost and time overruns, it translates into another few thousand crores.

S: So much so that India has emerged as the world’s largest PPP market with more than 900 projects in various stages of development.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS

b) SQPR

c)  RQPS

d) PQSR

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘SQPR’:

1) So much so that India has emerged as the world’s largest PPP market with more than 900 projects in various stages of development.

2) But the model also revealed weaknesses.

3) Consider this: at the end of December 2014, the value of all projects that have been stalled — mostly in the infrastructure sector — stood at an eye-popping `8.8 lakh crore (or 7 per cent of GDP) according to the Economic Survey-2014.

4) If you add the cost and time overruns, it translates into another few thousand crores.

28. S1: While the survey’s findings are broadly valid, it has to be seen in the larger context of general literacy in India — 86 per cent in urban areas and 71 in rural areas — which needs to be factored in.

S6: In fact, they are money-wise and know well which side of their bread is buttered.

P: Even today, for a majority of Indians, venturing into complex modern financial products is tantamount to speculation, which they shun.

Q: Add to that a culture unique to India and the Asian region of saving and a general aversion to risk which is almost part of the DNA of the population.

R: So, to say that a majority of Indians are financially illiterate is only stating part of the truth.

S: For them, the safest bet on saving — most often for financing their children’s higher education and weddings — is gold, which they understand very well.

The proper sequence should be:

a) QPRS

b) SQRP

c)  PQRS

d) QPSR

Answer: d)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘QPSR’:

1) Add to that a culture unique to India and the Asian region of saving and a general aversion to risk which is almost part of the DNA of the population.

2) Even today, for a majority of Indians, venturing into complex modern financial products is tantamount to speculation, which they shun.

3) For them, the safest bet on saving — most often for financing their children’s higher education and weddings — is gold, which they understand very well.

4) So, to say that a majority of Indians are financially illiterate is only stating part of the truth.

29. S1: With over 18 crore vehicles, India’s air pollution levels are rising alarmingly.

S6: Vehicle owners, on their part, should make an effort to maintain proper speed, which ensures limited pollution.

P: Strict enforcement of simple measures like switching off engines while waiting at signals in traffic-prone zones and during traffic jams, will not only help reduce both noise and air pollution to some extent, but also inculcate vehicular-discipline among drivers.

Q: A think-tank must be set up to strengthen our emission testing standards.

R: Right now, just 13 cities have Euro-4 norms.

S: The government, on a priority basis, must advance our fuel emission norms on a par with developed nations, which are currently running on Euro-6.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PQRS

c)  SRQP

d) SRPQ

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘SRQP’:

1) The government, on a priority basis, must advance our fuel emission norms on a par with developed nations, which are currently running on Euro-6.

2) Right now, just 13 cities have Euro-4 norms.

3) A think-tank must be set up to strengthen our emission testing standards.

4) Strict enforcement of simple measures like switching off engines while waiting at signals in traffic-prone zones and during traffic jams, will not only help reduce both noise and air pollution to some extent, but also inculcate vehicular-discipline among drivers.

30. S1: I had heard a great deal about Miss Barnett’s school.

S6: He seemed to be describing me to her. Then they passed on.

P:  But not till last week did the chance come to visit it.

Q: Her eyes were covered with a bandage and she was being led carefully between the flower-beds by a little boy who was about four years younger.

R: When I arrived there was no one in sight but a girl of about twelve.

S: She stopped and it looked like she asked him who had come.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PRQS

c)  PRSQ

d) PQRS

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Proper sequence will be ‘PRQS’:

1) But not till last week did the chance come to visit it.

2) When I arrived there was no one in sight but a girl of about twelve.

3) Her eyes were covered with a bandage and she was being led carefully between the flower-beds by a little boy who was about four years younger.

4) She stopped and it looked like she asked him who had come.

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Directions (31 - 41): In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

31. She has been working on (a)/ the issue from a long time (b)/ but is still not able to solve it. (c) No error (d)

Answer: d)

Explanation: There is no error in the sentence.

32. A shudder ran to Anjali’s spine (a)/ when she recalled the accident (b)/ in which she was luckily saved. (c) No error (d)

Answer: c)

Explanation: Replace ‘in’ by ‘from’.

33. Supposing if the Directors (a)/ doesn’t arrive in time for the Board Meeting, (b)/ what will you do? (c) No error (d)

Answer: a)

Explanation: ‘If’ can be removed as it is redundant after the word ‘Supposing’.

34. Whatever assignment (a)/ that which you take, (b)/ put your best efforts in it. (c) No error (d)

Answer: b)

Explanation: Remove ‘that which’ from the sentence.

35. And though one did not (a)/ quite believe her plea, one saw no harm (b)/ in granting her permission. (c) No error (d)

Answer: d)

Explanation: There is no error in the sentence.

36. If the work would have been (a)/ properly assigned, it would have taken (b)/ much less time in completion. (c) No error (d)

Answer: a)

Explanation: Replace ‘would have’ with ‘had’.

37. The money lender (a)/ handed over a hundred (b)/ rupees note to the borrower. (c) No error (d)

Answer: c)

Explanation: Instead of ‘rupees’, the word should be ‘rupee’.

38. The furious woman walked hurriedly (a)/ into the congested room (b)/ and shouted loud at the visitors. (c) No error (d)

Answer: c)

Explanation: Replace ‘loud’ by ‘loudly’.

39. Mathematics and Accountancy (a)/ are more easier than (b)/ History and Geography. (c) No error (d)

Answer: b)

Explanation: Remove ‘more’ from the sentence.

40. The bike flew off the road (a)/ and fell into the valley (b)/ because Amit was driving faster. (c) No error (d)

Answer: c)

Explanation: Replace ‘faster’ by ‘fast’.

41. She can play (a)/ as good as she can write (b)/ with her left hand. (c) No error (d)

Answer: b)

Explanation: Replace ‘good’ by ‘well’.

Directions (42 - 50): Read the following short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions that follow each passage.

Passage - 1

On 7 to 8 August 1942, the All India Congress Committee met in Bombay and ratified the 'Quit India' resolution. Gandhi called for 'Do or Die'. The next day, on 9 August 1942, Gandhi, members of the Congress Working Committee and other Congress leaders were arrested by the British Government under the Defence of India Rules. The Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908. The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules. The arrest of Gandhi and the Congress leaders led to mass demonstrations throughout India. Thousands were killed and injured in the wake of the 'Quit India' movement. Strikes were called in many places. The British swiftly suppressed many of these demonstrations by mass detentions; more than 100,000 people were imprisoned. The 'Quit India' movement, more than anything, united the Indian people against British rule. Although most demonstrations had been suppressed by 1944, upon his release in 1944 Gandhi continued his resistance and went on a 21-day fast. By the end of the Second World War, Britain's place in the world had changed dramatically and the demand for independence could no longer be ignored.

42. Before the second world war the British:

a) Were considering giving independence to India

b) Were considering expanding their power in India

c)  Gave no thought to given freedom to India

d) Were preparing for the war by using Indian men as soldiers

Answer: c)

Explanation: There was no thought given by the British on giving the Independence to India.

43. What does the word ‘ratified’ mean in the passage?

a) To confirm by expressing disapproval.

b) To confirm by expressing consent.

c)  To confirm by expressing dissent.

d) To confirm by expressing suspicion.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The word ratified means to give formal consent to (a treaty, contract, or agreement), making it officially valid.

44. The ratification of Quit India Movement by Congress led to:

a) Mass demonstrations throughout the country

b) Strikes at several places

c)  Arrest of working committee and other leaders of Congress

d) Killing of thousands of Indians

Answer: c)

Explanation: The 2nd  and 3rd lines of the paragraph state that the ratification of Quit India Movement lead to arrest of working committee and other leaders of congress.

45. In the context of passage which of the following statement is true:

  1. Most of the demonstrations of Quit India movement were suppressed by 1944.
  2. Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress’ were declared unlawful associations under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules.

a) I only

b) II only

c)  Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

Answer: a)

Explanation: Only statement I is correct as the declaration of being unlawful was not under the Rule 56.

Passage - 2

There are still a few people in northern Europe who think that global warming might not be such a bad thing. In Britain, where summer can sometimes seem to last little more than a few weeks, many would welcome the idea of it getting a bit hotter. Unfortunately things are not so simple. Global warming doesn't just mean that the world will slowly get warmer. Paradoxically, it could cause certain areas to get colder - a lot colder. The latest predictions are that northern Europe could even be plunged into an ice age. While areas of south-eastern Europe, such as Greece, would continue to get hotter and drier, Britain could find itself, in the winter months at least, surrounded by sea ice. The reason for this concerns the Greenland ice sheet. This is one of the biggest expanses of ice in the world - around 1,500km long and 600km wide. It is so big that if it all melted sea levels would rise by 7 meters. Due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide from the combustion of fossil fuels, this ice sheet is melting at an alarming rate.

46. Why people of Northern Europe think that global warming might not be such a bad thing?

a) It will make the weather of Northern Europe colder.

b) It will make the weather of Northern Europe warmer.

c)  It will make whole planet colder.

d) It will make whole Europe colder.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The first line of the passage clearly indicates that Northern Europe think that global warming will make the weather of Northern Europe warmer.

47. What contradictory opinion has been quoted by the author in the context of global warming?

a) Northern Europe won’t get affected because of global warming.

b) Northern Europe will become warmer as a result of global warming.

c)  Global warming could make the planet hotter.

d) Global warming could cause certain areas to get colder.

Answer: d)

Explanation: In the fourth line of the passage, the author clearly states that paradoxically, global warming could cause certain areas to get colder - a lot colder.

48. What does the author mean by the term ‘biggest expanses’ in the passage?

a) The wide continuous area of Britain.

b) The wide continuous area of Northern Europe.

c)  The wide continuous area of Greenland Ice Sheet.

d) The wide continuous area of Southern Europe.

Answer: c)

Explanation: The author clearly mentions that Greenland ice sheet is one of the biggest expanses of ice in the world - around 1,500km long and 600km wide.

49. According to the passage, why the Greenland ice sheet is melting?

a) Due to rising population in Greenland.

b) Due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases.

c)  Due to decrease in combustion of fossil fuels.

d) Due to decrease in emissions of greenhouse gases.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The last line of the passage clearly states that due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide from the combustion of fossil fuels, the Greenland ice sheet is melting at an alarming rate.

50. Which of the following statement is incorrect according to the passage?

a) The Greenland Ice sheet is melting at an alarming rate due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases.

b) Global warming can make colder place much colder leading them to the era of an ice age.

c)  The Greenland Ice sheet is around 1,500km wide and 600km long.

d) If Greenland Ice sheet gets melt, the sea level would rise by 7 meters.

Answer: c)

Explanation: The passage clearly states that Greenland Ice sheet is one of the biggest expanses of ice in the world - around 1,500km long and 600km wide. Hence, option c) is incorrect.

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