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UPSC NDA 2 2019 General Ability Test: GK & Current Affairs Mock Test with Answers (400 Marks)

Practicing Mock Tests can help the candidates in scoring high marks in UPSC NDA 2 2019 Written Exam. In this article we have provided the mock test for General Knowledge Section of General Ability Test which consists of 400 marks out of total 600 Marks. So, start practicing the mock tests for UPSC NDA 2 2019 Exam.

Nov 6, 2019 15:24 IST
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UPSC NDA 2 2019 General Ability Test: GK & Current Affairs Mock Test with Answers (400 Marks)
UPSC NDA 2 2019 General Ability Test: GK & Current Affairs Mock Test with Answers (400 Marks)

UPSC will hold the National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy (NA) II 2019 written exam on 17th November 2019. UPSC NDA & NA 2 2019 Written Exam will consist of two papers, i.e., General Ability Test (GAT) & Mathematics. General Ability Test consists of 150 questions from two sections which are English (Part-A) and General Knowledge (Part-B) of 4 marks each. Part-B General Knowledge Section of GAT will consist of 100 questions of total 400 Marks. To score high marks in UPSC NDA & NA 2 2019 Exam candidates must start practicing the mock tests for General Ability Test Section of the exam. For the ease of the candidates we have created GK & Current Affairs Mock test based on the latest exam pattern of the UPSC NDA & NA 2 2019 Exam.

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UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(600 Marks – 100 Questions of 4 marks each)

The General Knowledge Question Paper will broadly cover the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events. Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.

UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(Physics – 25 Questions of 4 marks each – 100 Marks)

1. The filament of a light bulb is made up of:

a) Platinum

b) Tantalum

c) Tungsten

d) Antimony

Answer: c)

Explanation: The filament of a light bulb is made up of Tungsten that produces light.

2. Which of the following is false?

Sound waves are ____________ waves.

a) Pressure

b) Longitudinal

c) Electromagnetic

d) Mechanical

Answer: c)

Explanation: Sound waves are not Electromagnetic Waves.

3. Which of the following coloured light has the lowest frequency?

a) Green

b) Blue

c) Red

d) Violet

Answer: c)

Explanation: Red colour has the lowest frequency of visible light.

4. The period of artificial geostationary satellite is:

a) 8 hours

b) 12 hours

c) 24 hours

d) 46 hours

Answer: c)

Explanation: The period of artificial geostationary satellite is 24 hours.

5. The value of universal gravitational constant G is:

a) 9.8 m/s2

b) 6.673×10-11 N m2 kg-2

c) 6.371 x 106 m

d) 1.738 x 10 6 m

Answer: b)

Explanation: The value of universal gravitational constant G is 6.673×10-11 N m2 kg-2

6. What is the unit of the magnitude of the weight?

a) Distance (meter)

b) Mass (grams)

c) Force (Newton)

d) None of the above

Answer: c)

Explanation: The unit of the magnitude of the weight is Newton (Force).

7. What is the value of Pi?

a) 3.14159

b) 3.14358

c) 3.14258

d) 3.14289

Answer: a)

Explanation: The value of Pi is approximately 3.14159. It is mathematical constant and its symbol is π.

8. Which of the following is the best electricity conductor?

a) Copper

b) Aluminium

c) Iron

d) Silver

Answer: d)

Explanation: Pure Silver is the best conductor of electricity, but since it is not so easily available, other alternatives are more popular. Electrical conductivity of a material is a function of how easily its atoms can provide free electrons to pass a current. Any material which does not have free electrons in its atoms, cannot conduct electricity.

9. Small liquid drops are spherical in shape because

a) of adhesion

b) of gravitational force

c) of the atmospheric pressure from all the sides on the top

d) the liquid tends to have the minimum surface area are due to surface tension

Answer: d)

Explanation: The liquid tends to have the minimum surface area are due to surface tension

A drop of a liquid tries to occupy the minimum surface are in a given volume as it is constantly under a kind of stretch among its molecules. This minimum area is achieved by assuming a spherical shape. These cohesive forces create surface tension which means that the upper surface of a liquid always shows tension.

10. The Chandershekhar Limit is related to which of the following?

a) Stars

b) Black holes

c) Both of these

d) None of these

Answer: a)

Explanation: It refers to the mass limit of the stars, beyond which they collapse. The Chandrasekhar limit is the maximum mass of a stable, white dwarf star. It is the mass above which electron degeneracy pressure in the star is not enough to its own gravitational pull. Consequently, white dwarfs with masses greater than this limit would suffer gravitational collapse, evolving into a neutron star or black hole.

11. A Light Year is a measure of

a) Light intensity

b) Time

c) Distance

d) None of the Above

Answer: c)

Explanation: A Light Year is known as the distance travelled by light in one year, which is equal to 3 lakh kilometer/sec × 24 hrs × 60 min × 60 seconds. This unit is used to measure astronomical distances between various celestial bodies like planets, stars, galaxies, etc.

12. In the Solar System, asteroids circle between these two planets.

a) Venus and Mars

b) Mars and Earth

c) Mars and Jupiter

d) Jupiter and Saturn

Answer: c)

Explanation: The asteroids are minor planets, especially those in the inner Solar System. The term was earlier  applied to any astronomical object orbiting the Sun, which did not show the disc of a planet and was did not have comet-like properties. But in modern science, the term "asteroid" refers to the minor planets of the inner Solar System including those which are co-orbital with Jupiter.

13. Identify the pair that is correctly matched?

a) Madam Curie: X – ray

b) Albert Einstein: Photoelectric effect

c) Linus Pauling: Electron

d) C V Raman: Stark effect

Answer: b)

Explanation: In many languages, X-radiation is referred to with terms meaning Röntgen radiation, after the German scientist Wilhelm Röntgen, who usually is credited as its discoverer, and who had named it X-radiation to signify an unknown type of radiation. C V Raman is known for Raman Effect for which he won the Nobel Prize. Albert Einstein got the Nobel Physics Prize for this discovery of photo-electric equation. Madam Curie – Radioactivity. Linus Pauling – Electro negativity scale.

14. Refraction, Reflection, Dispersion and Diffraction are associated with

a) Light

b) Sound

c) Magnetism

d) None of the Above

Answer: a)

Explanation: In optics, refraction is a phenomenon that often occurs when waves travel from a medium with a given refractive index to a medium with another at an oblique angle. Reflection of light is either specular (mirror-like) or diffuse (retaining the energy, but losing the image) depending on the nature of the interface. Dispersion is the separation of white light into colours or of any radiation according to wavelength. Diffraction is the slight bending of light as it passes around the edge of an object.

15. The minimum possible temperature beyond which matter cannot be cooled is in degree Centigrades is:

a) 95.50

b) 100

c) 273.15

d) 473.50

Answer: c)

Explanation: This temperature is also called the absolute zero of temperature. Absolute zero is the lower limit of thermodynamic temperature scale, a state in which the enthalpy and entropy of a cooled ideal gas is at its minimum value, taken as 0. All molecular motion is supposed to cease at this point, at least in theory.

16. Who among the following is credited for discovering the principles underlying electromagnetic induction?

a) Michael Faraday

b) Volta

c) Coulomb

d) Gauss

Answer: a)

Explanation: Michael Faraday was an English scientist who contributed to the study of electromagnetism and electrochemistry. His main discoveries include the principles underlying electromagnetic induction, diamagnetism and electrolysis.

17. Which of the following statement is correct about Pi?

a) It is non-repeating decimal value

b) It is non terminating decimal value

c) It is repeating and terminating decimal value

d) It is non-repeating, non-terminating decimal value

Answer: d)

Explanation: Pi is non-repeating, non-terminating decimal value because it is irrational.

18. It is on this principle, the quartz clock works.

a) Piezo-electric effect

b) Gauss effect

c) Relativistic effect

d) Mass defect

Answer: a)

Explanation: The principle of Piezoelectricity refers to the electrical charge, which accumulates in certain solids like crystals, ceramics, bone, DNA and various proteins in response to mechanical stress. The word piezoelectricity means electricity resulting from pressure.

19. Who has calculated the circumference of the earth and considered the value of Pi = 22/7?

a) Archimedes

b) John Machin's

c) Aryabhatta

d) None of the above

Answer: c)

Explanation: Aryabhatta calculated the circumference of the earth and used Pi= 22/7 as constant in the calculation around 5th century BC.

20.  Cryogenic engines find applications in:

(a) sub-marine propulsion

(b) frost-free refrigerators

(c) rocket technology

(d) researches in superconductivity

Answer: (c)  

Explanation: Cryogenic engines find applications in rocket technology.

21. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of low:

(a) temperature

(b) velocity

(c) pressure

(d) density

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: When air rises, it is cooled by expansion. After dew point has reached cooling leads to condensation of water vapour in the atmosphere. Tiny droplets of water vapour which are too small to fall as raize or shower will be suspended in the air and float as clouds.

22. Pi consists of how many digits?

a) 9 digits

b) 10 digits

c) 12 digits

d) Infinite

Answer: d)

Explanation: Pi consists of infinite digits.

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape.

Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.

In context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: c) 

Explanation: The refractive index of diamond is very high  (approximately 2.47) while the refractive index for  the glass is 1.57. Therefore, the initial angle for the ray of light traveling form diamond to air is very low about 24°. The initial angle for the ray of light traveling from glass to air is 39°. Moreover the diamonds are usually cut with their faces in such a manner that once a ray of light enters into it, it suffers a large number of total internal reflections at various faces till the angle of incidence inside the diamond remains greater than the critical angle. In total internal reflection 100% of the light reflected back into the same medium. Hence, the object shines. That's why a diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape.

24. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(a) convex mirror
(b) convex lens
(c) concave mirror
(d) cancave lens

Answer: d)

Explanation: Correct answer is Concave Lens

25. When a mirror is rotated by an angle 0, the reflected ray will rotate by:
(a) 0°
(b) 0/2
(c) 0
(d) 20

Answer: d)

Explanation: For given incident ray, if a plane mirror is rotated through a certain angle, then the reflected ray rotates through twice of that angle . So if a mirror is rotated by an angle 0, the reflected ray will rotate by 20.

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UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(Chemistry – 15 Questions of 4 marks each – 60 Marks)

26. Which of the following statement is true about ionic compounds?

  1. Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water.
  2. Ionic compounds are not soluble in water.
  3. Ionic compounds are crystalline solids.

Correct options are:

a) Both 1 and 3

b) Both 1 and 2

c) Both 2 and 3

d) All the three

Answer: a)

Explanation: Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted. They are soluble in water and are also crystalline solids.

27. The solution of one of the following compounds will conduct electricity. This compound is:

a) CCl4

b) HCl

c) CaCl2

d) CH3Cl

Answer: c)

Explanation: CaCl2 form ionic bond and so will conduct electricity.

28. What is an ionic bond?

a) Ionic bond is formed by sharing of electrons between two atoms.

b) It is a bond formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

c) Both A and B are correct

d) None of the above

Answer: b)

Explanation: Ionic bond is formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

29. What is C12H12O11 also known as:

a) Sand

b) Sugar

c) Salt

d) Clay

Answer: b)

Explanation: Sugar chemical formula is formed by the combination of two monosaccharide molecules with the exclusion of a molecule of water.

30. The only non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is:

a) Mercury

b) Bromine

c) Chlorine

d) Gallium

Answer: b)

Explanation: Bromine is a fuming red-brown liquid at room temperature that evaporates readily to form a similarly coloured gas.

31. Choose the one which is different or odd from the following.

a) Aluminum

b) Iron

c) Copper

d) Brass

Answer: d)

Explanation: Brass is an Alloy.

32. Name the ions present in Sodium Oxide compound?

a) Sodium ions

b) Oxide ions

c) Both A and B

d) Neither A nor B

Answer: c)

Explanation: The ions present in Sodium Oxide compound are: Sodium ions and oxide ions.

33. Which of the following are electrovalent compounds?

a) Copper sulphate

b) Calcium nitrate

c) Magnesium oxide

d) All of the above

Answer: d)

Explanation: Electrovalent compound are ionic compounds and so all the options given in the question forms ionic bond.

34. What is the electronic configuration of calcium ion (Ca2+):

a) 2,8

b) 2,8,2

c) 2,8,4

d) 2,8,8

Answer: d)

Explanation: The atomic number of calcium is 20 so its electronic configuration is 2,8,8,2 and so has 2 electrons in the outer most shell. Therefore to form calcium ion (Ca2+), calcium will lose 2 electrons and its configuration becomes 2,8,8.

35. Name the salt when on dissolving in water give an acidic solution?

a) Potassium Chloride

b) Ammonium Chloride

c) Sodium Carbonate

d) Sodium Acetate

Answer: b)

Explanation: Ammonium Chloride salt on dissolving in water gives an acidic solution.

36. Bleaching powder is formed by treating chlorine with.......

a) Calcium Hydroxide

b) Potassium Hydrogen carbonate

c) Magnesium Hydroxide

d) None of the above

Answer: a)

Explanation: Bleaching powder is formed by treating chlorine with calcium Hydroxide.

37. Name the salt whose aqueous solution will turn blue litmus to red?

a) Sodium Acetate

b) Potassium Sulphate

c) Potassium Carbonate

d) Ammonium Sulphate

Answer: d)

Explanation: Ammonium Sulphate salt aqueous solution will turn blue litmus to red.

38. Name an acid which contains both oxygen and hydrogen?

a) Oxy acid

b) Hydra acid

c) Dilute acid

d) Concentrated acid

Answer: a)

Explanation: Oxy acid contains both oxygen and hydrogen.

39. What is the chemical name of Baking Soda?

a) Potassium Carbonate

b) Potassium Hydrogen Carbonate

c) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate

d) Sodium Carbonate

Answer: c)

Explanation: Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate is the chemical name of Baking Soda.

40. What is battery acid?

a) It is sulphuric acid diluted with water.

b) It is carboxylic acid mixed with water.

c) It is concentrated hydrochloric acid.

d) It is concentrated sulphuric acid.

Answer: a)

Explanation: Battery acid is sulphuric acid diluted with water.

Practice UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – English Mock Test

UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(General Science – 10 Questions of 4 marks each – 40 Marks)

41. In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

a) Stomach

b) Food Pipe

c) Mouth

d) Small Intestine

Answer: c)

Explanation: Digestion of food starts as soon as we put food in our mouth. The mouth cavity contains teeth, tongue and salivary glands. The teeth cut the food into small pieces, chew and grind it. The teeth help in physical digestion. The salivary glands help in chemical digestion by secreting enzymes.

42. Which of the following organism have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium

b) Plasmodium

c) Paramecium

d) Parrot

Answer: b)

Explanation: In parasitic nutrition organism derives its food from the body of another living organism called host without killing it. Parasitic mode of nutrition is observed in several fungi, bacteria, few plants like Cucuta and some animals like Plasmodium and round worms. Plasmodium causes malarial disease.

43. Name the first enzyme that mix with food in the digestive tract?

a) Pepsin

b) Trypsin

c) Amylase

d) None of the above

Answer: c)

Explanation: The salivary glands present in mouth secrete salivary amylase enzyme which digests the starch present in food into sugar. Digestion of starch or carbohydrate starts in mouth itself. Therefore, amylase is the first enzyme that helps in the process of digestion.

44. Which of the following in biology is the energy currency of cells?

a) PDP

b) DTP

c) ATP

d) ADP

Answer: c)

Explanation: The process of releasing energy from food is called respiration. The energy is stored in the form of ATP (Adenosine tri phosphate) in the body cells which is used for various purposes like contraction of muscles, conduction of nerve impulses, synthesis of proteins and many other activities related to the functioning of cells. Therefore, ATP is known as the energy currency of cells.

45. Which of the following was the first antibiotic discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928?

a) Penicillin

b) Prontosil

c) Streptomycin

d) Tetracycline

Answer: a)

Explanation: In 1928 Alexander Fleming discovered Penicillin - the first true antibiotic.

46. In 1981, ISRO launched India’s first geostationary satellite called -

a) Aryabhata

b) APPLE

c) Bhaskara II

d) INSAT lB

Answer: b)

Explanation: The first geostationary satellite launched by ISRO in 1981 was APPLE.

47. Which of the following in biology is the energy currency of cells?

a) PDP

b) DTP

c) ATP

d) ADP

Answer: c)

Explanation: The process of releasing energy from food is called respiration. The energy is stored in the form of ATP (Adenosine tri phosphate) in the body cells which is used for various purposes like contraction of muscles, conduction of nerve impulses, synthesis of proteins and many other activities related to the functioning of cells. Therefore, ATP is known as the energy currency of cells.

48. In the stem of a plant respiration and breathing takes place through:

a) Lenticels

b) Stomata

c) Root hair

d) Air tubes

Answer: a)

Explanation: In woody stems of plants or trees have lenticels for the exchange of respiratory gases.

49. Name the blood vessel which carries blood back to the heart?

a) Vein

b) Artery

c) Capillaries

d) Platelet

Answer: a)

Explanation: Arteries carries blood from the heart to the body organs and veins carries blood from the body organs back to the heart.

50. After wound or cut in a body blood coagulates through:

a) WBC

b) RBC

c) Platelets

d) Plasma

Answer: c)    

Explanation: After wound or cut in a body it starts to bleed. But within few seconds or minutes blood cells start to clump together and clot, preventing the further blood loss. These clots are created by a type of blood cell called platelet.

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UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(History – 20 Questions of 4 marks each – 80 Marks)

51. Consider the following

  1. It was the first India’s Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
  2. It was protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct about Champaran Satyagraha?

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

Answer: c)

Explanation: Champaran Satyagraha was the first India’s Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar. Hence, C is the correct option.

52. When did M. K. Gandhi arrive in Champaran?

a) April, 1915

b) April, 1916

c) April, 1917

d) April, 1918

Answer: c)

Explanation: Gandhi arrived in Champaran 10 April 1917 and stay on the house of Sant raut in Amolwa village with a team of eminent lawyers: Brajkishore Prasad, Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha Ramnavmi Prasad, and J. B. Kripalani. Hence, C is the correct option.

53. Which of the following statement is not correct about 'Bombay Plan'?

a) The Bombay Plan is also called the 'Tata Bidla Plan'

b) It was started in 1944

c) Its draft was prepared by the John Mathai

d) There were 10 members in this plan

Answer: c)

Explanation: There were total 8 members in the Bombay plan i.e.J.R.D. Tata, Ghanshyamadas Birla, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Sir Purushottamdas Thakurdas, Sir Shriram,Sir ardishar Dalal, A.D. Shroff and Dr. John Mathai.

54. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) There is no constitutional provision in India about the Planning Commission

b) Planning commission was established in January 1951

c) National Development Council was established in August 1952

d) Jawaharlal Nehru, was the first chairman of the Planning Commission

Answer: b)

Explanation: National Development Council was established on 15 March 1950.In his first Independence Day speech in 2014, Prime Minister Modi announced his intention to dissolve the Planning Commission. It has since been replaced by a new institution named NITI Aayog.

55. Who started the 'Gandhian Plan'?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dadabhai Naoroji

c) M.N. Roy

d) None of the above

Answer: d)

Explanation: Gandhian Plan was put forward by Shriman Narayan Aggarwal in 1944; who was the principal of Wardha Commercial College.

56. Who was the revenue collector during Vedic period?

a) Senani

b) Jivagribha

c) Bhagadugha

d) Madhyamasi

Answer: c)

Explanation: Bhagadugha was the revenue collector during Vedic period. Hence, C is the correct option.

57. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) The first five year plan was launched from 1st April, 1951

b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first chairman of the Planning Commission of India

c) The National Development Council used to give final approval to the Five Year Plan

d) The first five year plan was based on the Harrod- Domar model

Answer: b)

Explanation: Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the planning commission, so Jawahar Lal Nehru was the first chairman of the planning commission of India.

58. What was the ancient name of Shivalik Hills?

a) Manak Parbat

b) Mahabharata Hills

c) Shiva Parvat

d) None of the above

Answer: a)

Explanation: Shivalik Hills is known as "Manak Parbat" in ancient times. The word "Shivalik" literally means ‘tresses of Lord Shiva’. Other spelling variations used include Shiwalik and Siwalik, originating from the Hindi and Nepali language. Other names include ‘Churia Hills’, ‘Chure Hills’ and ‘Margalla Hills’.

59. Who among the following was the founder of Rashtrakutas?

a) Dantidurga

b) Yashovarman

c) Mihir Bhoja

d) Vakpatiraja

Answer: a)

Explanation: Dantidurga, also known as Dantivarman or Dantidurga II was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Empire of Manyakheta. His capital was based in Gulbarga region of Karnataka. Hence, A is the correct option.

60. Who among the following ruling dynasty of early Medieval India called themselves descendants of Satyaki?

a) Pala

b) Rashtrakutas

c) Chola

d) Vijayanagara

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Rashtrakutas called themselves descendants of Satyaki. The founder of the Rashtrakuta power was Dantivarma or Dantidurga who was a contemporary of Chalukya King Pulakeshin II. Hence, B is the correct option.

61. The process of Constitutional amendment in India is taken from........?

a) America

b) Japan

c) South Africa

d) Canada

Answer: c)

Explanation: Indian constitution has borrowed 2 features from the constitution of South Africa; Election of members of the Rajya Sabha.

62. Match the following:-

Set I Set II
1. Vijaycholeshwar
2. Balsubramaniyam
3. Kornagnain
4. Tiruvaleswaram
1. Vijayalaya
2. Aditaya I
3. Vartak I
4. Raj Raj I

Code:

    A B C  D

a) 1 2  3  4

b) 4 3  2  1

c) 3 4  2  1

d) 1 4  3  2

Answer: a)

Explanation: The correct match is given below:

Vijaycholeshwar- Vijayalaya

Balsubramaniyam- Balsubramaniyam

Kornagnain- Kornagnain

Tiruvaleswaram- Tiruvaleswaram

Hence, A is the correct option.

63. Consider the following

  1. The tripartite struggle was between the Pratiharas, Palas and Rashtrakuta.
  2. Fight was to acquire supremacy over Kanauj, a symbol of prestige in Indian politics.

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct about tripartite struggle of early medieval India?

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

Answer: c)

Explanation: The major causes for the continuous struggle between the Pratiharas, Palas and Rashtrakuta, known in history as tripartite struggle, are as follows:-To get control over Gujarat and Malwa, the regions very important for foreign trade due to their nearness to the coast; To acquire supremacy over kanauj, a symbol of prestige in Indian politics. Hence, C is the correct option.

64. Which of the following is not ruling class of Kashmir?

a) Karkota

b) Utpala

c) Loharas

d) Senas

Answer: d)

Explanation: Kashmir was ruled by three dynasties- the Karkota, Utpala and Loharas. Lalitaditya was the most famous ruler of Kashmir during early medieval India. The Sena dynasty ruled from Bengal. Hence, D is the correct option.

65. Which one of was the significant feature of the Quit India Movement?

(a) Women did not play an important role in the movement
(b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement
(c) It was marked by anti-zamindar violence
(d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India

Answer: d)

Explanation: It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India

66. Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement
(b) It was not supported by the Congress
(c) It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must retain control over Muslim sacred spaces in the erstwhile Ottoman empire
(d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

Answer: b)

Explanation: It was not supported by the Congress

67. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways in colonial India?

(a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire
(b) British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues
(c) The construction work disturbed ecology
(d) The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities

Answer: c)

Explanation: The construction work disturbed ecology

68. Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904? “Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme”

(a) Lord Curzon
(b) H. H. Risley
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Sir Lancelot Hare

Answer: a)

Explanation: Correct answer is Lord Curzon

69. Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February, 1928?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Kalyanji Mehta

Answer: b)

Explanation: Correct answer is Vallabhbhai Patel

70. Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam?

(a) He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth
(b) He believed in universal education
(c) He believed that language had no role in inculcating morality in students
(d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base

Answer: b)

Explanation: He believed in universal education

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UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(Geography – 20 Questions of 4 marks each – 80 Marks)

71. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): All rivers originating from the Himalayas are perennial.

Reason (R): Himalayas receive much of their precipitation from South-Western monsoon.

Code:

a) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

d) (A) is the false, but (R) is true.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Rivers that originate from the Himalayas are very long. These rivers are perennial as they derive their water from rainfall as well as snow melt. (A) and (R) both are true but (R) does not explain the (A) correctly.

72. Which of the following term is correctly used for the flat plain along the sub-Himalayan region in North India?

a) Tarai

b) Doon

c) Khadar

d) Bhabar

Answer: d)

Explanation: Bhabar is the region south of the Lower Himalayas and the Shivalik Hills. It is the alluvial apron of sediments washed down from the Shivaliks along the northern edge of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. Hence, D is the correct option.

73. Shivalik Hills are part of which of the following?

a) Aravali

b) Western Ghats

c) Himalaya

d) Satpura

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Shivalik Hills is a mountain range of the outer Himalayas. The hills consist of 6000 meters of layered rocks. They are known as the sub-Himalayas or the foothills and were formed by the erosion caused by the rise of the Himalayas. Hence, C is the correct option.

74. The Nanda Devi is located in which of the following state?

a) Himachal Pradesh

b) Jammu & Kashmir

c) Uttarakhand

d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: c)

Explanation: Nanda Devi is a part of the Greater Himalayas, and is located in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, between the Rishiganga valley on the west and the Goriganga valley on the east. Hence, C is the correct option.

75. The Shivalik range was formed in which of the following period?

a) Eozoic

b) Pliocene

c) Mesozoic

d) Cenozoic

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Shivalik Hills is a mountain range of the outer Himalayas. It was formed approximately 5-1.7 million years ago in Pliocene in Cenozoic period. Hence, B is the correct option.

76. Which one of the only regions of the Shivaliks to preserve its flora and fauna?

a) Doon

b) Duar

c) National Park

d) Patli Dun

Answer: d)

Explanation: The ‘Patli Dun’, forms part of the Corbett National Park, is one of the only regions of the Shivaliks to preserve its flora and fauna. The valleys are roofed with thick grasslands and the slopes have lush Sal forests. Hence, D is the correct option.

77. Which of the following is not part of Himalayan Ranges?

a) Pir Panjal Range (part of middle Himalayas)

b) DhaulaDhar Range

c) Zaskar Range

d) Aravalli Range

Answer: d)

Explanation: The Main Himalayan Ranges are Pir Panjal Range; DhaulaDhar Range; Zaskar Range; Ladakh Range; East Korakoram Range; Mahabharata range (middle Himalayas in Nepal). The Aravalli range is the oldest mountain range in India, running across Rajasthan to Haryana and Himalaya’s mountain range is younger than Aravalli Range. Hence, D is the correct option.

78. Which of the following is not the loftiest mountain peak of the Himalayas Mountain?

a) Kula Kangri

b) Chomolhari

c) Mt. Abu

d) Manaslu

Answer: c)

Explanation: Kula Kangri, Chomolhari and Manaslu are the loftiest mountain peak of the Himalayas Mountain. Mount Abu is a popular hill station in the Aravalli Range in Sirohi district of Rajasthan state in western India, near the border with Gujarat.

79. Which is the highest point in Asia?

a) Mount Everest

b) Mount Godwin-Austen

c) Mount Kilimanjaro

d) Aconcagua

Answer: a)

Explanation: Mount Everest, known in Nepali as Sagarmatha and in Tibetan as Chomolungma, is Earth's highest mountain above sea level, located in the Mahalangur Himal sub-range of the Himalayas.  Hence, A is the correct option.

80. Which is the lowest point in Asia?

a) Mariana Trench

b) Dead Sea

c) Tibet

d) Indonesia

Answer: b)

Explanation: Dead Sea at an elevation of -1,401 feet below sea level is the absolute lowest point on the earth. Its surface and coastline border Israel to its west and Jordan to its east. Hence, B is the correct option.

81. Which is the deepest trench of the world?

a) Philippine trench

b) Tonga Trench

c) Kuril- Kamchatka Trench

d) Mariana Trench

Answer: d)

Explanation: The Mariana Trench or Marianas Trench is the deepest part of the world's oceans. It is located in the western Pacific Ocean, an average of 200 kilometres (124 mi) to the east of the Mariana Islands, in the Western Pacific East of Philippines. Hence, D is the correct option.

82. In which place in Asia receive highest rainfall in the world?

a) Mawsynram, Meghalaya, India

b) Emei Shan, Sichuan Province, China

c) Cherrapunji, Meghalaya, India

d) Mt. Waialeale, Kauai, Hawaii, Oceania

Answer: a)

Explanation: Mawsynram is a village in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya state in north-eastern India, 65 kilometres from Shillong. This place receives one of the highest rainfalls in India. It is reportedly the wettest place on Earth, with an average annual rainfall of 11,872 millimetres. Hence, A is the correct option.

83. Which is the longest river in Asia?

a) Brahmaputra River

b) Ganga River

c) Yangtze River

d) Nile River

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Yangtze River is the longest river in Asia, and the fourth longest in the world at 3,915 miles (6,301 km). Hence, C is the correct option.

84. Which of the following the tributaries of the river Ganga originates in the plains?

a) Yamuna

b) Kosi

c) Son

d) Gomti

Answer: d)

Explanation: Gomti is a monsoon and ground water fed river. It originates from the Gomat Taal near Pilibhit. It extends 960 kilometres through Uttar Pradesh and meets the Ganges River near Kaithi in Varanasi district.

85. Which of the following figures in cubic kilometres correctly shows the total annual precipitation in India?

a) 2,000

b) 4,000

c) 3,000

d) 5,000

Answer: b)

Explanation: India receives an average rainfall of about 1170mm which corresponds to an annual precipitation of about 4000 BCM (Billion Cubic Metre) including snowfall.

86. As per an official estimate, India receives this much per cent of rainfall during the South West monsoon season (June to September)?

a) 55%

b) 65%

c) 75%

d) 85%

Answer: c)

Explanation: In India, there is considerable variation in rainfall both temporally and spatially. Nearly 75% of the total rainfall i.e., 3000 BCM occurs during the monsoon season confined to 3 to 4 month (June to September) in a year.

87. The highest proportion of the total ground water used in the country is in which one of the following sectors?

a) Irrigation

b) Domestic use

c) Industries

d) None of the above

Answer: a)

Explanation: As per an estimate of the Union Ministry of Water Resources, Irrigation accounts for nearly 90% of total groundwater water used. Its share is much higher in agriculture-heavy states.

88. Reliance’s Jamnagar Oil Refinery, considered as the largest refinery in the world, is located in

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Maharashtra

c) Karnataka

d) Gujarat

Answer: d)

Explanation: The Jamnagar Refinery is a private sector crude oil refinery owned by Reliance Industries in Jamnagar, Gujarat. The refinery was commissioned on 14 July 1999 with an installed capacity of 6,68,000 barrels per day. At present, it is considered as the largest refinery in the world.

89. At which one of the following places, India’s first atomic power station started?

a) Kalpakkam

b) Rana Pratap Sagar

c) Narora

d) Tarapur

Answer: d)

Explanation: With a total capacity of 1400 MW, Tarapur is the largest nuclear power station in India. The facility is operated by the NPCIL (Nuclear Power Corporation of India). It was commissioned in 1969.

90. The Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited is located in……?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Telangana

c) Jharkhand

d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: a)

Explanation: Neyveli Lignite Corporation India Limited (NLCIL) is a 'Navratna' profit making company. It is engaged in mining of lignite and generation of power through lignite based thermal power plants. NLCIL was established by the Union Government in 1956.

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UPSC NDA 2 2019: General Ability Test Part B – General Knowledge

(Current Affairs – 10 Questions of 4 marks each – 40 Marks)

91. What is the correct descending order on the basis of the number of sex ratio in the states?

a) Kerala <Chhattisgarh <Mizoram <Andhra Pradesh

b) Arunachal Pradesh <Kerala <Manipur <Meghalaya

c) Meghalaya <Kerala << Chhattisgarh <Tamil Nadu

d) Kerala <Tamil Nadu <Andhra Pradesh <Chhattisgarh

Answer: d)

Explanation: Kerala <Tamil Nadu <Andhra Pradesh <Chhattisgarh. Sex ratio in Indian states is given below:

  1. Sex ratio in Kerala: 1084
  2. Sex ratio in Tamil Nadu: 995
  3. Sex ratio in Andhra Pradesh: 992
  4. Sex ratio in Chhattisgarh: 991

92. Who won the ICC world cup 2019?

a) India

b) England

c) New Zealand

d) Australia

Answer: b)

Explanation: England won the ICC world cup 2019.

93. The Hornbill festival is celebrated in

a) Arunachal Pradesh

b) Nagaland

c) Odisha

d) West Bengal

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Hornbill festival is celebrated in Nagaland to celebrate their rich cultural heritage.

94. World Archery suspended the Archery Association of which among the following countries?

a) India

b) China

c) Pakistan

d) Bangladesh

Answer: a)

Explanation: The Archery Association of India has been suspended by World Archery for defying its guidelines by appointing two parallel bodies.

95. Name the first woman to head a paramilitary force.

a) Divya Ajith

b) Archana Ramasundaram

c) Punita Arora

d) Ashwini Pawar

Answer: b)

Explanation: Archana Ramasundram was appointed as director general of SSB, the first woman to head a paramilitary force.

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96. Who was elected as the first woman President of Indian National Science Academy (INSA)?

a) Chandrima Shaha

b) Aditi Pant

c) Shubha Tole

d) Yamuna Krishnan

Answer: a)

Explanation: Chandrima Shaha has been elected as the first woman President of Indian National Science Academy (INSA).

97. Rouf is the folk dance of which Indian State?

a) Gujarat

b) Jammu and Kashmir

c) Maharashtra

d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: b)

Explanation: Rouf is the folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.

98. The new union territory of Ladakh has how many districts?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) One

Answer: a)

Explanation: The new Union Territory of Ladakh includes two districts Kargil and Leh. Kargil has been carved of Leh and Ladakh district, while Leh includes the districts of Gilgit, Gilgit Wazarat, Chilhas, Tribal Territory and remaining areas of Leh and Ladakh.

99. How many agreements were signed between India and Uzbekistan for military cooperation?

a) Four

b) Three

c) Five

d) Seven

Answer: b)

Explanation: India and Uzbekistan have signed three agreements to enhance military ties in the field of military medicine and military education, training and capacity building.

100. Who was recently appointed as the Indian Ambassador to UAE?

a) Pavan Kapoor

b) Navdeep Singh Suri

c) Aman Singh

d) Pradeep Bhaskar

Answer: a)

Explanation: Pavan Kapoor recently took charge as the Indian Ambassador to the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Kapoor succeeds Navdeep Singh Suri, who retired in September 2019. Kapoor is a 1990 batch Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer.

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