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UGC NET Law Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Law Previous Year Paper: Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your UGC NET 2020 Exam preparation. In this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Law July 2018 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

May 18, 2020 11:57 IST
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UGC NET Law Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys
UGC NET Law Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Law Previous Year Paper: To score high marks in the NTA UGC NET 2020 Law Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of UGC NET Law Paper-2. Practicing previous year papers will help them in improving their speed of attempting questions time with accuracy. So, in this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Law Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.

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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Law Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?

(1) Legislation

(2) Customs

(3) Usage having no force of law

(4) Ordinance

Answer: (3)

2. Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law’?

(1) Article 33

(2) Article 34

(3) Article 352

(4) Article 353

Answer: (2)

3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Government.

Reason (R): If ‘pecuniary gain’ is receivable in connection with the office. Then it shall not become an office of profit, irrespective of whether such gains are actually promised or not.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect? Give answer by using the code given below:

(a) The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single non-transferable vote.

(b) The President may resign, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India.

(c) No resolution to remove the Vice-President of India from his office, shall be moved unless at least thirty days notice has been given to him.

(d) Vice-President shall, not with standing the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect

(3) Only (a) and (b) are incorrect

(4) Only (a) is incorrect

Answer: (2)

5. Match List-I (name of the case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using the code below:

List-I

List-II

(a) K.M. Nanawati Vs. State of Bombay

(b) Ram Prasad vs. State of U.P.

(c) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India

(d) Dr. P. Naller nhampy Terah v. Union of India

(i) Right to life

(ii) Power to pardon

(iii) Fundamental Duties

(iv) Disqualification of members

 Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (1)

6. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Theory of basic structure’ under Article 368 of the Constitution?

(1) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India

(2) Waman Rao Vs. Union of India

(3) L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India

(4) T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by the President under Article 360 of the constitution?

(1) It shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless approved by both Houses of Parliament.

(2) Salary and allowances of persons serving in connection with affairs of state may be reduced.

(3) It may be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation by President.

(4) Salary and allowances of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced.

Answer: (1)

8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? Give correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) An ordinary Bill can only originate in council of states

(b) A Bill pending in House of people shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House

(c) A Bill pending in the council of state which has not been passed by the House of people shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the people

(d) A Bill pending in the House of people shall not lapse by reason of the dissolution of the House.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (a) and (d) are correct

(4) (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

9. In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list?

(1) Consent of two states

(2) Implementing international agreements

(3) Emergency is in operation

(4) In the Public interest if so declared by council of states

Answer: (4)

10. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using the code below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Union of India Vs. Sankaichand Seth

(b) Leila David Vs. State of Maharashtra

(c) B.S.E.S. Ltd. Vs. Fenner India Ltd.

(d) Darsan Gupta Vs. Radhika Gupta

(i) Power to do complete justice

(ii) Foreign Precedent

(iii) Power to punish for contempt

(iv) Appointment/Transfer of Judges

Code:

     (a)  (b)  (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (1)

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11. Which of the following case is not related to the Parliamentary previleges?

(1) M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha

(2) State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India

(3) Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan Mukherjee

(4) State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder

Answer: (4)

12. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? Answer by using code given below:

(a) It shall be the duty of every citizen to respect the country and abide by the constitution.

(b) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

(c) The state shall in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.

(d) No law here after enacted by the legislature of Jammu and Kashmir shall be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with any rights conferred on other citizens of India by any provision of part – III of the Constitution.

Code:

(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct

(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (4)

13. Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between ‘expositorial’ jurisprudence (What the law is) and ‘Censorial’ jurisprudence (What the law ought to be)?

(1) John Austin

(2) Hans Kelsen

(3) Jeremy Benthem

(4) H.L.A. Hart

Answer: (3)

14. ‘Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents.’ This observation specifically relates to:

(1) Dabin

(2) Stammler

(3) Finnis

(4) Acquinas

Answer: (2)

15. According to Professor Hart the meaning of the term ‘Positivism’ includes:

(a) Laws are commands.

(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.

(c) Moral judgments cannot be established or defended by rational argument, evidence or proof.

(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought to be.

Code:

(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct

(2) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(3) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

Answer: (4)

16. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Theory)

List-II (Jurist)

(a) Theory of social solidarity

(b) Theory of categorical Imperative

(c) Imperative Theory of Law

(d) Theory of Living Law

(i) Ehrlich

(ii) Duguit

(iii) John Austin

(iv) Enanual Kant

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (3)

17. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Book)

List-II (Author)

(a) The Growth of the Law

(b) Foundations of Jurisprudence

(c) The Nature and Sources of Law

(d) Taking Rights Seriously

(i) Gray

(ii) R. Dworkin

(iii) Cardozo

(iv) Jeron Hall

Code:

    (a) (b)   (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (2)

18. Which one of the following are the two main theories of legal right?

(1) Interest Theory and Fiction Theory

(2) Realist Theory and Will Theory

(3) Bracket Theory and Interest Theory

(4) Interest Theory and Will Theory

Answer: (4)

19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality?

(1) Fiction Theory

(2) Realistic Theory

(3) Purpose Theory

(4) Functional Theory

Answer: (4)

20. Match List-I with List-II and give the Jural correlatives by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Claim

(b) Liberty

(c) Power

(d) Immunity

(i) No claim

(ii) Disability

(iii) Duty

(iv) Liability

Code:

     (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (2)

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21. ‘X’, a servant, finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to ‘Y’, the owner of the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of:

(1) ‘X’, because he was the finder.

(2) ‘Y’, because he was the owner of the shop.

(3) ‘Y’, because in him there was corpus and animus.

(4) ‘X’, because he kept it in the almirah.

Answer: (3)

22. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): Laws are valid only if they are just.

Reason (R): The aim of law is to secure justice.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

23. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): Judges must follow authoritative precedents.

Reason (R): Authoritative precedents derive their authority from basic postulates of the legal system itself.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) Hobbes, Austin and Pufendorf subscribe to the view that law “Properly so called” in command of the sovereign and enforced by a superior political authority and hence deny legal character of International law.

(b) Oppenheim has remarked that International law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence.

(c) Holland subscribes to the view that International law is really law.

(d) Starke has expressed the view that International law is a “Weak law”.

Code:

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) (a) and (d) both are correct

(3) (a), (b), (c) are correct

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all correct

Answer: (2)

25. ‘Triepel’ and ‘Anzilloti’ are the exponents of which of the following theory of Relationship between International law and Municipal law?

(1) Monism

(2) Dualism

(3) Specific Adoption Theory

(4) Delegation Theory

Answer: (2)

26. Which one of the following is one of the Chief Exponents of ‘Constitutive Theory’ of Recognition?

(1) Pit corbett

(2) Kelson

(3) Hegel

(4) Hall

Answer: (3)

27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?

(a) In accordance with the provisions of Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the Security Council is one of the Principal organs of the United Nations.

(b) The First Security Council came into being on 12th January, 1946.

(c) At Dumharton proposals, it was finally decided to establish such as an organ in the form of the Security Council

(d) Ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the General Assembly for 5 years.

Code:

(1) Only (c) is not correct

(2) (c) and (d) are not correct

(3) (a), (b), (c) are not correct

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct

Answer: (2)

28. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List - I (Provisions)

List-II (Articles of statute of court of International Justice)

(a) Law applied by the International Court of Justice

(b) Binding force of the decision of International Court of Justice

(c) Interim Measures or Relief

(d) International court’s power to allow a state to intervene, in case to which it is not a party

(i) Article 41

(ii) Article 62

(iii) Article 38

(iv) Article 59

Code:

     (a)   (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (i (ii (iii)

Answer: (1)

29. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Modes)

List-II (Provision)

(a) Cession

(b) Reprisal

(c) Good offices

(d) Substitution

(i) Acquisition of Nationality

(ii) Loss of Nationality

(iii) Pacific means of settlement of International Disputes

(iv) Coercive means of settlement of International Disputes

Code:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iv) (i (ii (iii)

Answer: (1)

30. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): Article 10 of the U.N. charter confers upon the General Assembly very wide deliberative functions except in respect of those matters which are being considered by the Security Council.

Reason (R): The Resolutions or declarations of the General Assembly are not binding upon the states. They are merely recommendations.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

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31. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the statute of the International court of justice.

(b) The International court of justice consists of 25 judges. Which are elected by the General Assembly.

(c) The judges of the International court of justice are elected for a term of 5 years.

(d) All the decisions of the International court of justice are on the basis of the majority of judges.

Code:

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) (a) and (b) are correct

(3) (a) and (d) are only correct

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

Answer: (3)

32. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): When a state behaves in discourteous manner with another state, International law confers right upon the state affected to resort to ‘retorsion’ which means retaliation.

Reason (R): If the International disputes are not resolved through ‘peaceful’, means then the states resort to compulsive or coercive means.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Answer: (1)

33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by:

(1) General Assembly

(2) Security Council

(3) Economic and Social Council

(4) International Court of Justice

Answer: (3)

34. Under Hindu law, the persons descended from a common ancestor but by different wives, are known as:

(1) Full blood Relations

(2) Half Blood Relations

(3) Uterine Blood Relations

(4) No Blood Relations

Answer: (2)

35. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Agnate

(b) Shruti

(c) Cognate

(d) Smriti

(i) What was heard

(ii) Related wholly through males

(iii) What has been remembered

(iv) Related not wholly through males

Code:

    (a)  (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (iv) (n) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (ill)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (2)

36. If the condition laid down under section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is violated, such marriage under the Act is:

(1) Void but not punishable

(2) Valid and not punishable

(3) Void and Punishable

(4) Valid but Punishable

Answer: (4)

37. Under sec. 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939, the following grounds of divorce are available to a wife:

(a) Where abouts of the husband have not been known for a period of four years.

(b) Four years imprisonment of the husband.

(c) Husband has treated her with cruelty.

(d) The husband has neglected her or has failed to pay her maintenance for a period of two years.

Code:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (b), (d), (c) and (a)

(3) (d), (c), (b) and (a)

(4) (a), (d), (b) and (c)

Answer: (1)

38. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): No person except the father or mother or guardian of a Hindu child has the capacity to give such child in adoption.

Reason (R): No re-adoption may take place under the Hindu Adoptions and maintenance Act, 1956.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false but (R) is correct

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (3)

39. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Section)

List-II  (Provision)

(a) Sec.18

(b) Sec.19

(c) Sec.22

(d) Sec.23

(i) Maintenance of dependants

(ii) Amount of maintenance

(iii) Maintenance of wife

(iv) Maintenance of widowed daughter-in law

Code:

     (a) (b)   (c)  (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (2)

40. “Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be made compulsorily registrable in their respective states where the marriage is solemnized”.

This was ruled by the supreme court in which of the following case:

(1) Sarla Mudgil v/s Union of India

(2) Gurupad v/s Hirabai

(3) Shastri v/s Muldass

(4) Seema v/s Ashwani Kumar

Answer: (4)

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41. Give the correct answer with the help of code given below:

A ‘Muta’ marriage is:

(a) A temporary marriage

(b) Recognized under sunni law

(c) Recognized under shia law

(d) A marriage for a fixed period

Code:

(1) (d), (b), (a) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (3)

42. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and give correct answer with the help of code given below:

List-I (Section)

List-II (Provision)

(a) Section 14

(b) Section 13-A

(c) Section 9

(d) Section 10

(i) Alternative Relief in divorce proceedings

(ii) Restitution of conjugal Rights

(iii) Judicial separation

(iv) No petition for divorce within one year of marriage

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (1)

43. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, But not afterwards.

Reason (R): Section 5 of the Indian contract Act 1872, deals with the revocation of proposals and acceptances.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A).

(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

Consideration is:

(a) a price for any promise.

(b) only a moral obligation.

(c) a motive for any promise.

(d) something of value in the eye of law.

Code:

(1) (a) and (c) are correct

(2) (a) and (d) are correct

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

45. Consider the following statements and give correct answer with the help of code given below:

The case of Mohori Bibee Vs Dharmodas Ghose:

(a) has laid down that a minor’s contract becomes valid when he attains majority.

(b) is the decision of the Supreme Court of India regarding minor’s contract.

(c) is the decision of Privy Council regarding voidness of minor’s contract.

(d) has laid down that contract without consideration is void.

Code:

(1) (c) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (b) are incorrect.

(2) (a) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (d) are incorrect.

(3) (c) is correct, but (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect.

(4) (b) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (c) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

46. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below:

Assertion (A): Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder.

Reason (R): Acceptance cannot be separated from offer.

Code:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (1)

47. The defence of ‘non est factum’ is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake as to the:

(1) Identity of the other contracting party

(2) Nature of contract

(3) Quality of the subject matter of the contract

(4) Quality of the promise made by the other party

Answer: (2)

48. Under the Indian Contract Act 1872 which one of the following does not fall in the meaning of fraud:

(1) Active concealment of a fact.

(2) Suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true.

(3) Positive assertion of unwarranted statements.

(4) A promise made without any intention of performing it.

Answer: (3)

49. Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract:

(1) Only when the contracting parties express the same specifically as the terms of the contract.

(2) Always in the special circumstances leading to the formation of the contract.

(3) Only when the court of law thinks fit in the special circumstances of the case.

(4) Only when the special circumstances causing loss of profit resulting from the breach of contract were brought to the notice of the party committing breach at the time of formation of the contract.

Answer: (4)

50. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? Give correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) Tort is a civil wrong for which remedy is a common law action.

(b) Tort is exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust.

(c) Tort is an infringement of a right in rein of a private individual.

(d) Tort is violation of a legal duty owed to people generally for maintenance of law and order.

Code:

(1) Only (b) and (d) are correct

(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct

(3) Only (a) and (c) are correct

(4) Only (a) and (d) are correct

Answer: (3)

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51. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (name of defence) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Samira Kohli Vs Prabha Manchanda

(b) Sodan Singh Vs New Delhi Municipal Committee

(c) Bird vs Holbrook

(d) Kallulal Vs l-femchand

(i) Plaintiff a wrong-doer

(ii) Leave and licence

(ii) Act of God

(iv) Necessity

 Code:

     (a)  (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (1)

52. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to the defences of tort of defamation?

(1) Fair comment – An expression of statement of fact rather than expression of opinion

(2) Absolute previlege – Statements made by the members of either House of Parliament in the House or outside the House

(3) Justification by truth – It is enough if the statement is substantially true and may not be mathematically accurate

(4) Consent – Plaintiff has not consented to the publication of defamatory words by the defendant

Answer: (3)

53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage’?

(1) Scott Vs Shepherd

(2) In re an Arbitration between Polemis and Furness, Withy and Co.

(3) Sirros Vs. Moore

(4) Overseas Tankship Ltd. Vs Morts Dock and Engineering Co.

Answer: (3)

54. Which of the following tort is not related to nuisance based on ‘Physical discomfort’ or interference with another’s health and safety?

(1) Obstruction of light

(2) Injury to property

(3) Noise pollution

(4) Pollution of water and air

Answer: (2)

55. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (capacity to sue) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List—II

(a) State of Saurashtra Vs Memon Haji Lsmail

(b) Delhi Transport Corporation Vs Kumari Lalita

(c) Brown Vs Lewis

(d) Campbell Vs Paddington

(i) No right to Sue as an un-incorporated association

(ii) Munkipal law does not apply

(iii) Suit against corporation

(iv) Suit by minor

Code:

     (a)  (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (1) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (1)

56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): Negligence means a conduct which creates a risk of causing damage, rather than a state of mind.

Reason (R): It is safe to start a bus before passengers completely get into it.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(4) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

Answer: (4)

57. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to Consumer Courts?

(1) National Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to another in the same State.

(2) State Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to another in the same State.

(3) National Commission cannot have circuit benches except the permanent bench at New Delhi.

(4) State Commission cannot have circuit benches but can have two State Commissions.

Answer: (2)

58. Point out the correct statement:

(1) Crime is necessarily an immoral act.

(2) Crime is necessarily an anti-social act.

(3) Crime is necessarily an anti-communal act.

(4) Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act.

Answer: (2)

59. Four accused with common intention to kill, shot one B in the bona fide belief that B was A.

In this case:

(1) None of them is liable for the offence of murder.

(2) All accused are guilty of causing death.

(3) Section 34 of Indian Penal Code does not apply.

(4) All accused are guilty of causing death without invoking Section 34.

Answer: (2)

60. Under Section 65 of Indian Penal Code, 1860, sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to:

(1) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

(2) One-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

(3) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

(4) One-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

Answer: (3)

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61. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language etc. and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is dealt with?

(1) Section 153

(2) Section 153-A

(3) Section 153-AA

(4) Section 153-B

Answer: (2)

62. A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the wound. Here A is guilty of:

(1) Instigating B to commit murder

(2) Instigating B to commit attempt to murder

(3) Instigating B to commit grievous hurt

(4) No offence

Answer: (1)

63. Under which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable?

(1) Section 356

(2) Section 378

(3) Section 379

(4) Section 384

Answer: (1)

64. ‘X’ gives grave and sudden provocation to ‘Y’. ‘Y’ on this provocation, fires a pistol at ‘X’, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘Z’, who is near him, but out of sight. ‘Y’ kills ‘Z’. Here ‘Y’ has committed:

(1) Death by negligence

(2) Murder

(3) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(4) No offence

Answer: (3)

65. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Dishonest taking of property

(b) Dishoneslh’ inducing any person to deliver property

(c) Entrustment of property

(d) Conversion of property

(i) Criminal breach of Trust

(ii) Extortion

(iii) Criminal Misapprociation

(iv) Theft

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (2)

66. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the exact nature of the act.

Reason (R): Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

67. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor

(b) State of Maharashtra Vs. M.H. George

(c) Director of Public Prosecutions vs. Beard

(d) R.V. Dudley Vs. Stephens

(i) Mens rea

(ii) Intoxication

(ii) Common Inlention

(iv) Necessity

Code:

    (a) (b)  (c)   (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (3)

68. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Provision for)

List-II (Sections of l.P.C.)

(a) Punishment for causing death or resulting in persistent vegetative state of victim

(b) Sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife during separation

(c) Sexual intercourse by a person in authority

(d) Gang rape

(i) Section 376-D

(ii) Section 376-B

(iii) Section 376-A

(iv) Section 376-C

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)   (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (3)

69. Give the correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) The workman has a right to approach the Labour court directly without waiting for the conciliation proceedings and government reference.

(b) The appropriate government in respect of Corporations and Public Sector undertakings owned or controlled by the central government will be the central government.

(c) Every industry employing 20 or more workmen is under legal obligation to Constitute and have a Grievances Redressal Committee.

(d) The award passed by the Labour Court can be transmitted to a Civil Court for the effective enforcement of the award.

Code:

(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (4)

70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below:

Assertion (A): The strike or lockout as the weapon has to be used sparingly for redressal of urgent and pressing grievances when no means are available or when available means have failed to resolve it.

Reason (R): The employment that workmen get and the profit the employer earns are both generated by utilisation of the resources of the society in one form or other and they are to act as Trustees of the said resources.

Code:

(1) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (1)

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71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) A strike could be le8al or illegal and illegal strike could be justified one

(b) Right of the workmen to approach the Labour Court directly within a period of three years

(c) Right of the workmen to payment of full wages pending proceedings in the High Courts

(d) An interim or a final determination of any  Dispute Industrial Dispute

(i) Award

(ii) Bharat Singh vs Management of New Delhi Tuberculosis Centre

(iii) Justice V.R. Krishna lyer

(iv) Section 2-A(2) Industrial (Amendment) Act 2010

Code:

     (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (1)

72. “Although the Judicial interpretation given to the expression “Industry” by Supreme Court in Bangalore Water Supply Case was intended to settle the test to determine its scope, judicial trends point out that it has done more damage than good, not merely to organisations but also to employees by curtailment of employment opportunities”. The above trend is reflected through one of the following case:

(1) Corporation of city of Nagpur Vs Employees

(2) State of Bombay Vs Hospital Mazdoor Sabha

(3) Coir Board, Ernakulam, Cochin and another Vs Indira Devi P.S. and other

(4) Madras Gymkhana Club Employees Union Vs Gymkhana Club

Answer: (3)

73. Answer the following using the code given below:

The condition precedent to the order of Reference under section 10(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act is the satisfactions of the appropriate government to the following:

(a) Existence of Industrial Dispute

(b) Apprehension of Industrial Dispute

Code:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) (a) alone is correct.

(3) (b) alone is correct.

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given below:

Assertion (A): (a) The unrecognised union has right to meet and discuss with the employer the grievances of Individual workman with the employer and (b) to appeal and participate in a Domestic Departmental Enquiry in which its member is involved.

Reason (R): This is a statutory recognition of a unrecognised Union.

Code:

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is True.

(4) (A) is true, but (R) is False.

Answer: (1)

75. Answer the following using the code given below:

The following are the pre-condition for acquiring Jurisdiction by the National Tribunal Under the Industrial Disputes Act:

(a) Industrial Dispute must involve question of National importance in the opinion of the  Central Government

OR

(b) Industrial Dispute must involve question of State importance in the opinion of the State Government

OR

(c) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than one State and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes

OR

(d) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than five States and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes.

Code:

(1) (a) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (b) and (d) are correct.

(4) (d) alone is correct.

Answer: (2)

76. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using code below:

Assertion (A): Administrative law is a branch of public law in contradiction to Private law.

Reason (R): Administrative law primarily deals with the relationship of individuals interse.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

77. Match List – I (name of case) with List – II (principle of natural justice) and give correct answer by using the code below:

List - I

List-II

(a) Hira Nath Mishra Vs Rajindra Medical College

(b) Union of India Vs Mohd. Ramzan Khan

(c) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

(d) Union of India Vs Narendra Singh

(i) Right to notice or requirement of notice

(ii) No evidence should be taken at back of the other party

(iii) Report of the enquiry to be shown to the other party

(iv) Reasoned decision or speaking orders

Code:

    (a)   (b)  (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (4)

78. Match List – I (name of case) with List – II (name of writ) and give correct answer by using code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Sunil Batra Vs Delhi Administration

(b) U.N.R. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi

(c) Gujrat State Financial Corporation Vs Lotus Hotels

(d) Nalini Ranjan Vs Annada Shankar

(i) Quo Warranto

(ii) Habeas Corpus

(iii) Certiorari

(iv) Mandamus

Code:

     (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

79. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India ruled that when the selection process consists of only a viva-voce test without any written examination no limit need be imposed on prescribing marks for the interview.

(1) A.K. Roy Vs Union of India

(2) A.P. State Financial Corporation Vs C.M. Ashok Raju

(3) Sambhu Nath Sarkar Vs State of W.B.

(4) P. Lakhanpal Vs Union of India

Answer: (2)

80. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? Give correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) Absolute discretion is a ruthless master.

(b) Where reasonable conduct of government official is expected, the criterion of reasonableness is subjective and not objective

(c) Every action of the executive government must be informed with excuse and should be arbitrary.

(d) Exercise of discretion is an inseparable part of sound administration.

Code:

(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) Only (b) and (d) are correct.

(4) Only (a) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (4)

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81. Which of the following Acts shall be amended as per Section 58 of the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013? Give correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) Commission of Inquiry Act

(b) Central Vigilance Commission Act

(c) Code of Civil Procedure

(d) Central Bureau of Investigation Act

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a) and (d) are correct.

(4) (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (1)

82. Which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) Montreal protocol is related to Hazardous Waste.

(2) The Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle are essential features of the principles of sustainable development.

(3) The Stockholm Declaration of 1972 has been described as the Magna Carta of our environment.

(4) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another.

Answer: (1)

83. “The State is the trustee of all natural resources which are by nature meant for public use and enjoyment and that Indian legal system includes the Public Trust Doctrine as a part of its jurisprudence”

The Supreme Court of India has observed the above in one of the following case:

(1) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad Vs Union of India

(2) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs Union of India

(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India

(4) Shri Sachidananda Pandey Vs State of West Bengal

Answer: (1)

84. Match List – I with List – II and give correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another

(b) The Economic Benefit must substantially exceed its Environmental Cost

(c) The present generation has no right to deplete all the existing forest and leave nothing for the next and future generation

(d) Trans boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal

(i) Basel Convention

(ii) Trial Smelter Case

(iii) Environment Impact Assessment

(iv) Inter Generational Equity

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)   (d)

(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

85. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): It is the duty of the state to devise and implement a coherent and co-ordinated programme to meet its obligation of Sustainable Development.

Reason (R): Adherence to the principle of Sustainable Development is now a Constitutional requirement.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

86. Which of the following do not come under the powers and functions of the Central Board as provided Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?

(1) Planning and execution of National programme for prevention, control and abatement of Air Pollution.

(2) Co-ordinating activities of State Boards and resolving disputes among them.

(3) Fixing standards of Quality of Air.

(4) Making recommendations to the State government for removal of State Board which is defaulter in discharging its duties under the Act.

Answer: (4)

87. In which one of the following case the Supreme Court of India held that right to access to drinking water is fundamental to life and it is the duty of the State under Act 21 to provide clean drinking water to its citizens?

(1) Vellore Citizens Welfare forum Vs Union of India

(2) A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs M.V. Nayadu

(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India

(4) Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board Vs Shri C. Kenchappa

Answer: (2)

88. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): The provisions concerning Human Rights run throughout the U.N. Charter ‘like a golden thread’.

Reason (R): Much of the credit for this goes to the determined lobbying by non-governmental organisations at San Francisco Conference.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

89. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

Under its terms of reference, the UN Commission on Human Rights was directed to prepare recommendations and reports on:

(a) An International Bill on Human Rights.

(b) International Conventions or declarations on civil liberties; the status of woman, freedom of information and similar other matters.

(c) The protection of Minorities.

(d) The prevention of discrimination on the basis of race, sex, language or religion and other matters concerning Human Rights.

Code:

(1) Only (a) is correct.

(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (4)

90. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

List - II

(a) Human Rights Council

(b) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights

(c) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

(d) World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna

(i) 1993

(ii) 2006

(iii) 1948

(iv) 1966

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

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91. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?

(a) The position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economic and Social Council.

(b) The High Commissioner was to be appointed by the Secretary General subject to approval by the General Assembly.

(c) The term of office of High Commissioner was five years.

(d) The High Commissioner’s principal location would be in New York.

Code:

(1) Only (d) is not correct.

(2) (a), (c) and (d) all are not correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct.

Answer: (2)

92. Which of the following statement/statements are correct?

(a) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be who has been the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.

(b) The Chairperson and the other Members of National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India after consultation with Prime Minister.

(c) Chairperson and other Members of National Human Rights Commission are eligible for re-appointment.

(d) The Chairperson and the other Members of the Commission can be removed on the Recommendation of the Law Minister of India.

Code:

(1) Only (a) is correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (1)

93. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Provisions)

List-II (Sections of the Protection of human Rights Act, 1993)

(a) Constitution of National Human Rights Commission

(b) Constitution of State Human Rights Commission

(c) Functions of the National Human Rights Commission

(d) Procedure of the Commission

(i) Section 10

(ii) Section 12

(iii) Section 3

(iv) Section 21

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)   (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer: (4)

94. Which one of the following is incorrect?

Under the Partnership Act, a minor who has been admitted to partnership when attains majority should adhere to the following:

(1) Issue a public notice that he has elected to become or that he has elected not to become a partner

(2) Option must be exercised within 2 months on attaining majority

(3) When the minor opted to become a partner his rights and liabilities as a minor continue upto the date on which he becomes a partner

(4) When the minor opted not to become a partner his rights and liabilities shall continue upto the date on which he gives a public notice

Answer: (2)

95. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Mutual Rights and Liabilities of Partners

(b) Dissolution of Partnership

(c) Retirement of a Partner

(d) Insolvency of a Partner

(i) Section 34 of Partnership Act

(ii) Section 13 of Partnership Act

(ii) Section 39 of Partnership Act

(iv) Section 32 of Partnership Act

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (2)

96. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given below:

Assertion (A): The surety has no right to restrain execution against him until the creditor exhausted all his remedies against the Principal Debtor.

Reason (R): The Liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the Principal Debtor, unless it is otherwise provided by contract.

Code:

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Answer: (1)

97. Which one of the following is incorrect?

Under the Sale of Goods Act, to make the buyer liable for neglecting or refusing delivery of goods the following conditions must be fulfilled:

(1) The seller was ready and willing to deliver the goods.

(2) The seller requested the buyer to take delivery.

(3) The seller informed the buyer to ignore the delay and take delivery.

(4) The buyer did not, within a reasonable time after such request take delivery of the goods.

Answer: (3)

98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code given below:

Assertion (A): Under the Company Law, though any outsider is presumed to be aware of the documents which are publicly accessable, but not the internal proceedings of which he cannot reasonably aware of, because those are not accessible to the public.

Reason (R): The Doctrine of indoor management evolved as a partial exception to the Doctrine of Constructive Notice and the rule was laid down in Royal British Bank Vs Turquand.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

99. Which one of the following is incorrect?

Any mis-statement made in the Prospectus would attract the liability of the following persons under the Companies Act:

(1) Every person who is a director of the company at the time of the issue of the prospectus.

(2) Every person who has authorised himself to be named and is named in the prospectus either as director or as having agreed to become a director either immediately or after an interval of time.

(3) Every person who is a promotor of the company.

(4) An Expert, whose consent has not been endorsed to the registration and liable in respect of every content in the prospectus.

Answer: (4)

100. Which one of the following is not the essential requirement to fulfil an instrument intended to be a Promissory Note?

(1) The instrument must contain a promise to pay.

(2) A mere acknowledgement of indebtedness is sufficient.

(3) The sum of money to be paid must be certain.

(4) Promise to pay must be unconditional.

Answer: (2)

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91. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?

(a) The position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economic and Social Council.

(b) The High Commissioner was to be appointed by the Secretary General subject to approval by the General Assembly.

(c) The term of office of High Commissioner was five years.

(d) The High Commissioner’s principal location would be in New York.

Code:

(1) Only (d) is not correct.

(2) (a), (c) and (d) all are not correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct.

Answer: (2)

92. Which of the following statement/statements are correct?

(a) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be who has been the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.

(b) The Chairperson and the other Members of National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India after consultation with Prime Minister.

(c) Chairperson and other Members of National Human Rights Commission are eligible for re-appointment.

(d) The Chairperson and the other Members of the Commission can be removed on the Recommendation of the Law Minister of India.

Code:

(1) Only (a) is correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (1)

93. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I (Provisions)

List-II (Sections of the Protection of human Rights Act, 1993)

(a) Constitution of National Human Rights Commission

(b) Constitution of State Human Rights Commission

(c) Functions of the National Human Rights Commission

(d) Procedure of the Commission

(i) Section 10

(ii) Section 12

(iii) Section 3

(iv) Section 21

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)   (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer: (4)

94. Which one of the following is incorrect?

Under the Partnership Act, a minor who has been admitted to partnership when attains majority should adhere to the following:

(1) Issue a public notice that he has elected to become or that he has elected not to become a partner

(2) Option must be exercised within 2 months on attaining majority

(3) When the minor opted to become a partner his rights and liabilities as a minor continue upto the date on which he becomes a partner

(4) When the minor opted not to become a partner his rights and liabilities shall continue upto the date on which he gives a public notice

Answer: (2)

95. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Mutual Rights and Liabilities of Partners

(b) Dissolution of Partnership

(c) Retirement of a Partner

(d) Insolvency of a Partner

(i) Section 34 of Partnership Act

(ii) Section 13 of Partnership Act

(ii) Section 39 of Partnership Act

(iv) Section 32 of Partnership Act

Code:

    (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (2)

96. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given below:

Assertion (A): The surety has no right to restrain execution against him until the creditor exhausted all his remedies against the Principal Debtor.

Reason (R): The Liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the Principal Debtor, unless it is otherwise provided by contract.

Code:

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Answer: (1)

97. Which one of the following is incorrect?

Under the Sale of Goods Act, to make the buyer liable for neglecting or refusing delivery of goods the following conditions must be fulfilled:

(1) The seller was ready and willing to deliver the goods.

(2) The seller requested the buyer to take delivery.

(3) The seller informed the buyer to ignore the delay and take delivery.

(4) The buyer did not, within a reasonable time after such request take delivery of the goods.

Answer: (3)

98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code given below:

Assertion (A): Under the Company Law, though any outsider is presumed to be aware of the documents which are publicly accessable, but not the internal proceedings of which he cannot reasonably aware of, because those are not accessible to the public.

Reason (R): The Doctrine of indoor management evolved as a partial exception to the Doctrine of Constructive Notice and the rule was laid down in Royal British Bank Vs Turquand.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

99. Which one of the following is incorrect?

Any mis-statement made in the Prospectus would attract the liability of the following persons under the Companies Act:

(1) Every person who is a director of the company at the time of the issue of the prospectus.

(2) Every person who has authorised himself to be named and is named in the prospectus either as director or as having agreed to become a director either immediately or after an interval of time.

(3) Every person who is a promotor of the company.

(4) An Expert, whose consent has not been endorsed to the registration and liable in respect of every content in the prospectus.

Answer: (4)

100. Which one of the following is not the essential requirement to fulfil an instrument intended to be a Promissory Note?

(1) The instrument must contain a promise to pay.

(2) A mere acknowledgement of indebtedness is sufficient.

(3) The sum of money to be paid must be certain.

(4) Promise to pay must be unconditional.

Answer: (2)

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