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UGC NET Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper: Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your UGC NET 2020 Exam preparation. In this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations July 2018 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

May 18, 2020 18:54 IST
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UGC NET Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys
UGC NET Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper: Candidates must practice the Previous Year Papers of UGC NET Paper-2 to score high marks in NTA UGC NET 2020 Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Subject. Practicing Previous Year Papers in online mode will help the candidates to improve their speed of attempting questions with accuracy. In this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.

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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Labour Welfare & Industrial Relations Previous Year Paper with Answers

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: (1-5)

Change is ‘alien’ to an organisation, yet needs to be accepted. Unless a change is internalised and integrated, it remains ‘alien’. Introduction of change in an organisation is a kin to the transplantation of an organ in a body. An organism and an organisation have some common features. The transplanted part in a body has to be integrated with that body. It may be rejected, and so a watch has to be kept to ensure that it is not, and steps have to be taken to facilitate integration. The same applies to an organisation. It is necessary to ensure that the change gets integrated into the organisation, is stabilised, and becomes a part of the working of the organisation. This is a part of implementation process. Implementation starts after a decision has been taken to plan a programme of change. Several contextual factors have been found significant to the success of implementation.

Fullan and Pomfret have suggested four different dimensions of implementation. These relate to the characteristics of innovation (its explicitness and complexity, or degree and difficulty, of change), strategies and tactics (in-service training, resource-support, feedback mechanism, and participation in decision making), characteristics of the adopting unit (the adoption process, the organisational climate, environmental support, and demographic factors), and characteristics of macro socio-political units (design issues, incentive system, evaluation and political  complexity). Implementation has been treated as an issue of control versus decentralisation and felicitation of
change through participation.

Implementation may be seen as a multidimensional process. Paul has proposed the concept of strategic management for the implementation of public programmes as an interaction between four dimensions environment (opportunity, needs, constraints, threat, scope, diversity, and uncertainty), strategy (service-client sequence and demand-supply, resource mobilisation), process (planning and allocation, monitoring and control, human resource development, and motivation compliance), and structure (differentiation-integration of tasks, structural forms, degree of decentralisation, and degree of autonomy).

The end result of implementation is the institutionalisation and stabilisation of change. Institutionalisation implies making the change a permanent part of an organisation; internalisation means stabilisation of the change so that it becomes a natural part of an organisation’s working style the former is more structural and the later more processual.

In order to achieve the end results, one starts with planning the whole process of implementation. Implementation primarily consists of monitoring the change, taking action in relation to the change, and making the necessary adjustments in programme that has been accepted for implementation. This three-phase implementation process is possible if the necessary support is provided at various stages.

1. Out of the statements given below, which one is not true?

(a) Change is always unwarranted.

(b) Change has to be internalised and integrated.

(c) Organisations and organism have no common features.

(d) It is necessary to keep continuous watch on the change process.

Code:

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (a) and (c)

(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (b) and (c)

Answer: (3)

2. Which is not a stage of Implementation process?

(1) Integration into organisation

(2) Becoming stable

(3) Becoming part of the working

(4) Maintaining alien status

Answer: (4)

3. Which among the following is not a pre-requisite before starting the process of implementation?

(1) After taking a decision to plan a programme of change.

(2) After finding several contextual factors significant to the success of implementation.

(3) After finishing inservice training.

(4) After resolving political complexity.

Answer: (3)

4. Who has proposed the concept of strategic management for the implementation of public programmes as an interaction between four dimensions?

(1) Paul

(2) Fullan

(3) Pomfret

(4) Cooper

Answer: (1)

5. The process of Implementation has various phases. The number of phases comprising the process of implementation is:

(1) Four Phases

(2) Three Phases

(3) Two Phases

(4) Six Phases

Answer: (2)

6. Match the stages of Process of Organisational Change (List-A) with their possible descriptions (List-B) given below:

List-A

List-B

(a) Diagnosis

(b) Stabilisation

(c) Motivation

(d) Action Proposal

(i) The stage for framing a proposal in relation to the problems or issues identified

(ii) The attempt to search for the main cause underlying the symptoms encountered

(iii) The stage where people are involved in detailed consideration of the  proposed change

(iv) The stage of internalizing the change and nuking it a part of the organisation’s normal life

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer: (4)

7. Match the basic content of the theory (List-I) with the theories (List-II):

List-I

List-II

(a) Wages paid are equal to the productivity of the last worker hired

(b) Wages, hours and working conditions are largely a matter of relative bargaining strength of two sides

(c) Wages are residue left over after the other factors of production have been paid

(d) Wages equal the total product of labour of the marginal firm minus the amount discounted by the employer for advance support of the worker

(i) Taussig’s Thoery of Wages

(ii) Marginal Productivity Theory

(iii) The Bargaining Theory of Wages

(iv) Residual Claimant Theory

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

8. Which one of the following is not a fundamental right under the provisions of the constitution of India?

(1) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

(2) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

(3) Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.

(4) Just and human condition of work and maternity relief

Answer: (4)

9. The concept of ‘invisible hand theorem’ in the context of labour market was put forward by:

(1) Adam Smith

(2) Karl Marx

(3) J.S. Mill

(4) Ricardo

Answer: (1)

10. Which of the following statements relating to the Model Grievance procedure is/are correct?

(a) As per the procedure, an aggrieved employee shall first present the grievance verbally (in person) to the officer designated by the management for this purpose.

(b) As per the procedure, an aggrieved worker who is not satisfied with the decision of the officer at the first stage or fails to receive an answer within a stipulated period of 48 hours from the said officer, he/she shall, either in person or accompanied by his/her departmental representative, present his/her grievance to the Head of the Department
designated by the management for the purpose of handling grievances. 

(c) According to the procedure, if a grievance arises out of an order given by management, the said order shall be complied with before the worker concerned invokes the procedure laid down for redressal of grievances

Code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

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11. Match the provisions given in List-A with their respective Articles given in List-B provided under the Constitution of India.

List-A

List-B

(a) Right to work

(b) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(c) Human Conditions of work

(d) Living wage and decent standard of life

(i) Article 39

(ii) Article 43

(iii) Article 42

(iv) Article 41

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (1)

12. Assertion (A): While all programming strategies need to provide for all three phases of individual and organisational learning, they differ according to the training modalities chosen for implementing them.

Reason (R): The chosen modality provides the frame for designing and sequencing training inputs and selecting methods to produce the desired results. 

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is not correct, Reason (R) is correct.

(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are not correct.

(3) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct, but Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A).

(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct, Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

Answer: (4)

13. Assertion (A): Occupational Wage differentials provide an incentive to young persons to incur the costs of training and education and encourage workers to develop skills in anticipation of higher earnings in future.

Reason (R): Occupational wage differentials perform a social function by way of determing the social status of workers.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is right.

(2) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

(3) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) fails to explain Assertion (A).

(4) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) is wrong.

Answer: (2)

14. Match List-A: Management Functions with their possible explanation List-B:

List-A

List-B

(a) Controlling/monitoring

(b) Leading/motivating

(c) Organising

(d) Planning

(i) Making optimum use of the resources required to enable successfully carrying out the plans

(ii) Deciding what needs to happen in future and generating plans for action

(iii) Checking progress against plans, which may need modification based on feedback

(iv) Getting others to play an effective part in achieving plans

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iil) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (4)

15. Apart from legislations which of the following institutions operate in controlling and directing individual actions into desirable channels?

(a) Religious prescriptions

(b) Social customs, traditions and conventions

(c) Socialist and Revolutionary ideas

(d) Political freedom and Extension of franchise

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

16. Who proposed the three-tier structure of industrial relations activity?

(1) John T. Dunlop

(2) Kochan, Katz and McKersie

(3) J.H. Richardson

(4) H.A. Clegg

Answer: (2)

17. Experienced managers have a simple and effective way to check whether their goals are good or not-they use the acronym “SMART”, which stands for:

(1) Specific, Manageable, Attainable, Reasonable, and Timely

(2) Sophisticated, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Targetted

(3) Simple, Measurable, Ambitious, Relative, and Target oriented

(4) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Timely

Answer: (4)

18. A worker working in a factory has worked for 225 days during the calendar year 2017. He has been laid off for 20 days as per the standing order and has also availed 10 days of leave with wages during the said year. How many days of leave with wages he shall be entitled to during the calendar year 2018?

(1) NIL

(2) 13 days

(3) 11 days

(4) 12 days

Answer: (3)

19. Which of the following theoretical perspectives implies stewardship without ownership in the context of industrial relations?

(1) The Unitary Perspective

(2) The Pluralist Perspective

(3) The Radical Perspective

(4) The Trusteeship Perspective

Answer: (4)

20. Assertion (A): The basic planning process always involves setting objectives, forecasting and assessing basic planning “premises” or assumptions, determining  alternatives causes of actions, evaluating which options are best, and then choosing and implementing plan.

Reason (R): There is usually a hierarchical aspect to managerial planning. Top management approves a long-term or strategic plan. Then each department creates its own budgets and other plans to fit and to contribute to company’s
long term plan.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) is wrong.

(2) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is right.

(3) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are right, Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are right, Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A).

Answer: (3)

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21. Indifference curves relating to supply of labour have a number of properties some of which are mentioned below:

(a) Indifference curves are downward slopping.

(b) Indifference curves are upward slopping.

(c) Higher indifference curves indicate lower levels of utility

(d) Higher indifference curves indicate higher levels of utility

(e) Indifference curves donot intersect

(f) Indifference curves intersect

(g) Indifference curves are concave to the origin

(h) Indifference curves are convex to the origin

Which among the following properties are not true?

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (f), (g), (h)

(3) (a), (c), (e), (g)

(4) (b), (c), (f), (g)

Answer: (4)

22. Under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 the list of occupational diseases is provided under which schedule?

(1) Schedule – I

(2) Schedule – II

(3) Schedule – III

(4) Schedule – IV

Answer: (3)

23. Assertion (A): In a planned economy a certain degree of wage regulation by the state becomes inevitable as an integral part of planning itself. 

Reason (R): It is socially desirable for wage earners to live on a healthy and decent plane and to participate freely in industrial government and that the state should interfere in the economic relationship of its citizens whenever these attainable ideals are not realised.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

(2) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is correct.

(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.

(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) fails to explain Assertion (A).

Answer: (1)

24. Which of the following statements relating to N.M. Lokhande is/are true?

(a) He was instrumental for the establishment of Bombay Mill Hands Association in 1896.

(b) He was a philanthropic promoter of labour legislation and workers’ welfare.

(c) He is considered as the Father of Trade Union Movement in India.

Code:

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (3)

25. Which one of the following statements is not true as per the provisions of the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?

(1) Benefits under the Act are not extended to the apprentices.

(2) Inspectors are re-designated as social security officers.

(3) Medical benefits to the insured person and his spouse have been extended under circumstances where insured person retires under Voluntary Retirement Scheme.

(4) The age limit of the dependants has been enhanced from the age of 18 to 25.

Answer: (1)

26. A human resource specialist normally collects which of the following information via the Job analysis?

(a) Work Activities

(b) Human Behaviours

(c) Machines, Tools, Equipments, and work aids

(d) Performance Standards

(e) Job Context

(f) Human Requirements

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (f) only

(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)

(4) (a) and (e) only

Answer: (3)

27. Match the following:

Japanese word under the 5S concept

English equivalent

(a) Shitseke

(b) Seiton

(c) Seiketsu

(d) Seiri

(e) Seiso

(i) Clearing

(ii) Cleanliness

(iii) Sweeping/washing

(iv) Orderliness

(v) Discipline

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (v) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

Answer: (1)

28. Match the content given in List-I with the Theories of Labour Welfare given in List-II:

List-I

List-II

(a) Without compulsion, employers do not provide even the minimum facilities for workers.

(b) Any good work is considered as an investment by which both the benefactor and beneficiary are rewarded.

(c) Man is believed to have an instinctive urge by which he strives to remove the suffering of others and promote their well being.

(d) Employers should provide funds on an on-going basis for the well being of their employees.

(i) The Trusteeship Theory

(ii) The Philanthropic Theory

(ii) The Religious Theory

(iv) The Police Theory

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (1)

29. Which of the following correctly explains a ‘recruiting yield pyramid’?

(1) Company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for the most important positions.

(2) A forecasting technique for determining future staff needs by using ratios between, for example, sales volume and number of employees needed.

(3) The historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted.

(4) Finding and/or attracting applicants for the employer’s open positions.

Answer: (3)

30. Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?

Organisation

Year of Formation

(a) Trades Union Congress (England)

(b) Indian National Trade Union Congress

(c) International Confederation of Free Trade Unions

(i) 1868

(ii) 1947

(iii) 1948

Code:

1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b) only

(4) (c) only

Answer: (4)

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31. A Conciliation officer declares an industrial dispute to have ended in failure on 15th October 2017 and submits the failure report to the appropriate Government on 18th October. The said report is being received by the Government on 29th October and the Government refers the dispute to the Labour Court on 5th November 2017. From the above information on which date it is deemed that the conciliation has been concluded?

(1) 15th October

(2) 18th October

(3) 29th October

(4) 5th November

Answer: (3)

32. Convention No. 138 of the ILO relates to:

(1) Abolition of Forced Labour

(2) Right to Collective Bargaining

(3) Worst Forms of Child Labour

(4) Minimum Age for Admission to Employment

Answer: (4)

33. Identify the correct sequence of procedure in creating ‘Structured Situational Interview’.

(a) Analyze the job

(b) Appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews

(c) Create interview questions

(d) Create benchmark answers

(e) Rate the job’s main duties

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)

(3) (a), (e), (c), (d), (b)

(4) (a), (e), (d), (b), (c)

Answer: (3)

34. Match the Techniques of Training (List-A) with the possible discriptions there of (List-B) given below:

List-A

List-B

(a) Ice Breakers

(b) Tag Teams

(c) Morphological Analysis

(d) Gordon Technique

(i) One Role played a1tematvely by two participants

(i) Listing of alternative solutions to problems

(iii) Games to get team members know each other

(iv) Steering a discussion to Crystallise solutions

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (4)

35. What is the total period of maternity leave admissible for a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

(1) Fourteen weeks

(2) Sixteen weeks

(3) Twelve weeks

(4) Twenty six weeks

Answer: (3)

36. Which of the following is a statutory body?

(1) Indian Labour Conference

(2) Standing Labour Committee

(3) Industrial Committee meant for Plantations

(4) Safety Committee

Answer: (4)

37. Match the authorities provided under List-A with the respective legislation under which they are covered as provided under List-B:

List-A

List-B

(a) The Controlling Authority

(b) Commissioner

(c) Certifying Surgeon

(d) Licensing Officer

(i) The Mines Act, 1952

(ii) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972

(iii) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

(iv) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (1)

38. Identify the correct sequence of steps in developing a BARS (Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales) as suggested by Gary Dessler:

(a) Scale the incidents

(b) Reallocate incidents

(c) Develop performance dimensions

(d) Write critical incidents

(e) Develop a final instrument

Code:

(1) (c), (b), (d), (a), (e)

(2) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

(3) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (3)

39. As per the provisions of the Building and other construction workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Services) Act, 1996. Who among the following is the Ex-officio member in the Central Advisory Committee?

(1) The Chief Inspector

(2) The Chief Labour Commissioner

(3) The Chairperson of the Expert Committee

(4) The Director General

 

Answer: (4)

40. ‘Welfare implies welfare of man, his family and his community’. Which of the following concepts explains this?

(1) The total concept of welfare

(2) The positive concept of welfare

(3) The social concept of welfare

(4) The relative concept of welfare

Answer: (3)

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41. For which industry the first non-statutory Wage Board was set up in India?

(1) Cotton textile

(2) Cement

(3) Iron and Steel

(4) Coal mining

Answer: (1)

42. Assertion (A): It has been suggested that while roles answer the question ‘how to be interfaced with other people to reach our goals’? Functions answer the question ‘what do you do to accomplish our goals?’

Reason (R): Roles are more relational while functions go beyond interpersonal relations. Functions such as planning, decision-making etc. may not necessarily involve working with others, and several managerial functions can be performed without communication with people.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are right, Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

(2) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is not true.

(3) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are not true.

(4) Assertion (A) is wrong, hence Reason (R) is not an explanation of Assertion (A).

Answer: (1)

43. Which of the following statements relating to the second National Commission on Labour is/are not true?

(a) The commission envisaged a system of Labour courts, Lok Adalats and Labour Relations Commissions as the integrated adjudicatory system in labour matters.

(b) The Commission recommended that the Essential Services Maintenance Act should be withdrawn.

(c) The commission was in favour of setting up wage boards for fixing wage rates for workers in any industry.

Code:

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (3)

44. As per the amendment to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, made in 2017, the Act shallapply to wages payable to an employed person drawing a monthly wage not exceeding:

(1) Rs 28,000

(2) Rs 26,000

(3) Rs 24,000

(4) Rs 30,000

Answer: (3)

45. Which of the following stages of group development will witness the following trend of group member’s behaviour:

‘Confront the differences, feel angry or frustrated, result formal leadership, lot of competition, and hostilities’?

(1) Forming

(2) Storming

(3) Norming

(4) Adjourning

Answer: (2)

46. For a person employed in a seasonal establishment, what is the rate of gratuity payable under the payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?

(1) Fifteen day’s wages for each Season

(2) Seven day’s wages for each Season

(3) Ten day’s wages for each Year

(4) Ten day’s wages for each Season

Answer: (2)

47. The strikes that are intended to put pressure on the government to do something or desist from doing something are categorised as:

(1) Jurisdictional strikes

(2) Political strikes

(3) General strikes

(4) Quickie strikes

Answer: (2)

48. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, who among the following cannot be appointed as the authority by the appropriate Government to hear and decide claims arising out of deductions from wages or delay in payment of wages and penalty for malicious or Vexacious claims?

(1) Any Commissioner for workmen’s Compensation

(2) Regional Labour Commissioner appointed by the Central Government

(3) Any Assistant Labour Commissioner appointed by the State Government

(4) Any other officer with experience as a Judge of a Civil Court or a Judicial Magistrate

Answer: (3)

49. An organisation structure defines how job, tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. Managers need to address six key elements when they design their organisation’s structure.

Match List-A with List-B given below: 

List-A: Refers to the six key elements encountered by managers in designing their organisation structure.

List-B: Provides possible answer to address the key elements encountered in organisation designing.

List-A

List-B

(a) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?

(b) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?

(c) To whom do individuals and groups report?

(d) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?

(e) Where does decision-making authority lie?

(f) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?

(i) Span of Control

(ii) Centralisation and Decentralisation

(iii) Departmentalization

(iv) Work specialization

(v) Chain of Command

(vi) Formalisation

Code:

       (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)

(1) (ii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (vi)

(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (vi)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) (v)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) (v) (i)

Answer: (2)

50. The need for labour welfare was also emphasized by the constitution of India. There are Articles in Indian Constitution which contain provisions for labour welfare. Which among the following Articles does not contain provision for Labour Welfare?

(1) Article 38

(2) Article 39

(3) Article 40

(4) Article 41

Answer: (3)

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NTA UGC NET June 2020 Practice Paper-1 & Paper-2 Mock Test with Answers for 81 subjects

 

51. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Socialist Manifesto’ are true?

(a) It was drafted by Sidney and Beatrice Webb.

(b) It was drafted by Karl Marx and Engels.

(c) It was drafted for converting capitalist Britain into a mixed economy.

(d) It was strongly opposed by the Labour Party in Britain.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

52. In which of the following countries there exists a predominantly adversarial approach to industrial relations?

(1) USA

(2) Germany

(3) Sweden

(4) Denmark

Answer: (1)

53. Which of the following statements regarding stress related factors is/are true / false?

(a) Burnout Stress Syndrome (BOSS) is a debilitating psychological condition brought about by unrelieved work tress.

(b) ‘Good’ and ‘bad’ stresses are also referred to as ‘Distress’ and ‘Eustress’ respectively.

(c) It is natural and healthy to maintain optimal level of stress.

(d) Rustout Stress Syndrome (ROSS) is indicative of stress overload.

(e) Anxiety is a state of emotional tension characterised by Apprehension, fearfulness, and psychic pain.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are true. (c) and (e) are false.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are true. (a) and (e) are false.

(3) (a), (c) and (e) are true. (b) and (d) are false.

(4) (b), (d) and (e) are true. (a) and (c) are false.

Answer: (3)

54. Which of the following statements relating to the Central Advisory Board under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 is not correct?

(1) Chairman to be appointed by the Central Government.

(2) The Chief Labour Commissioner (Central) as an ex-officio member.

(3) The Labour Commissioners of all the states as ex-officio member.

(4) Such number of members, not exceeding seventeen but not less than eleven as the Central Government may nominate representing Government, Railways, Coal industry, mining industry, the contractors, the workmen.

Answer: (3)

55. Which of the following is/are not Team Building Approaches? 

(a) Positive Reinforcement

(b) Johari Window

(c) Behaviour modification

(d) Domain Reshuffling

Code:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: (4)

56. What is the maximum time that can be imposed on any person who supplies false information regarding a Trade Union under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926?

(1) Rs 100

(2) Rs 200

(3) Rs 300

(4) Rs 500

Answer: (All)

57. Distributive bargaining, as described by Walton and McKersie, is also called:

(1) Win-Win bargaining

(2) Zero sum bargaining

(3) Composite bargaining

(4) Concession bargaining

Answer: (2)

58. Which of the following statements are true/false?

(a) Organisation Behaviour (OB) has been influenced by the ; Contingency Approach, and The Interactional Approach.

(b) Hawthorne studies led to Human Relations Movement. 

(c) Human Relations Movement’s main emphasis was an economic needs i.e. people were more motivated by economic needs rather than Social needs.

(d) Mcgregor and Maslow were not the main proponents and figure heads of the Human Relations movement.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c) are true, (d) is false.

(2) (c) and (d) are true, (a) and (b) are false.

(3) (b) and (d) are true, (a) and (c) are false.

(4) (a) and (b) are true, (c) and (d) are false.

Answer: (4)

59. Labour welfare movement has witnessed some distinctive developments. They are: 

(a) Voluntary organisations engaged in labour welfare expanded in number and influences. 

(b) State through legislations tried to regulate and improve the lot of labour.

(c) Some enlightened employers took the initiative to improve the working and living conditions of labour.

(d) Trade Unions fought to bring about an improvement in the working conditions of labour and to raise their status socially and economically.

Arrange the developments in correct order from latest to earliest.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)

(2) (a), (d), (c), (b)

(3) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(4) (b), (d), (a), (c)

Answer: (2)

60. Assertion (A): It has been observed that the approach to Labour Legislations in India underwent a change after the country became independent.

Reason (R): The basic philosophy has undergone change being influenced by the concepts of social justice and welfare state.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.

(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) fully explains Assertion (A).

(3) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is correct.

(4) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A).

Answer: (2)

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61. The National Labour Relations Board (NLRB) having the responsibility to investigate Unfair Labour Practices and Complaints, was established under:

(1) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(2) The Wagner Act, 1935

(3) Trade Unions Act, 1926

(4) The Norris-La Guardia Act, 1932

Answer: (2)

62. Which one of the following statements relating to protected workman under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?

(1) A protected workman cannot be discharged or dismissed from the services during the pendency of any such proceeding in respect of an industrial dispute without the express permission in writing from the authority before which the proceeding is pending. 

(2) A member of the executive or other office bearer of registered trade union can only be recognised as protected workmen.

(3) The number of protected workman to be recognised shall be within a range of a minimum five to a maximum one hundred.

(4) Two percent of the total workmen can be recognised protected workman. 

Answer: (4)

63. Which of the following statements is/are true/false regarding modes of Conflict Management Styles?

(a) The avoidance modes of Conflict Management aim at avoiding or postponing conflicts.

(b) The compromise mode involves coercion and is likely to fail to reach a solution. 

(c) The main objective of the defusion mode of conflict resolution is to buy time for dealing with a conflict.

(d) Withdrawal is a form of approach mode that involves getting away from a conflict situation.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are true, (c) and (d) are false.

(2) (a) and (d) are true, (b) and (c) are false.

(3) (a) and (c) are true, (b) and (d) are false.

(4) (b) and (d) are true, (a) and (c) are false.

Answer: (3)

64. Which among the following statements relating to the features of collective bargaining is/ are correct?

(a) It is a two-way process.

(b) It involves Civilised Confrontation.

(c) It is a Static Process.

(d) It is a Complementary Process.

Code:

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b), and (d) only

(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

65. Hans Selye’s (1956) “General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)” has been widely held as a comprehensive model to explain the stress phenomenon. This three stage model states that when an organism is confronted with a threat, the general physiological response occurs in three stages.

Which of the following stages is not a part of GAS model? 

(1) Intrapsychic Disorder stage

(2) Alarm Stage

(3) Exhaustion Stage

(4) Resistance Stage

Answer: (1)

66. As per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, under which of the conditions a strike declared by the workmen of public utility service shall be illegal?

(1) Resorting to strike after a lapse of fourteen days of giving a notice of strike.

(2) Resorting to strike within seven days from the conclusion of conciliation proceedings pending before a conciliation officer.

(3) Resorting to strike after seven days of conclusion of such proceedings pending before a Board of Conciliation.

(4) Resorting to strike within two months from conclusion of such proceedings pending before a Labour Court.

Answer: (3)

67. In which of the following states there exists a legislation having a provision for recognition of Trade Unions?

(1) Odisha

(2) Karnataka

(3) Maharashtra

(4) Bihar

Answer: (3)

68. Which of the following statements is/are not true about the “Grid Organisation Development” (Grid OD) Program designed by Robert R. Blake and Jane S. Mouton?

(a) It is a eight phase program lasting about three to five years.

(b) Through this program an organisation can move systematically from the stage of examining managerial behaviour and style to the development and implementation of an “ideal strategic corporate model”.

(c) Behavioural science concepts and rigerous business logic are combined in the Grid OD Program’s six phases.

(d) The single most significant premise on which Grid OD rests in that the 5, 5 way of doing business which is acknowledged universally by managers as the soundest way to manage to achieve excellence.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (d) only

(3) (a) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (3)

69. Assertion (A): Labour Welfare Movement acquired new dimensions after independence.

Reason (R): It was realised that Labour Welfare had a positive role to play in increasing productivity and reducing industrial tensions.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.

(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is fully explains Assertion (A).

(3) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is correct.

(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong.

Answer: (2)

70. Who among the following is not a Contractor in relation to an establishment under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?

 (1) Any person who undertakes to produce a given result for the establishment through Contract Labour.

(2) Any person who supplies contract labour for any work of the establishment.

(3) Any person who supplies goods and articles of manufacture to such establishment. 

(4) Any person who works as a sub-contractor.

Answer: (3)

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71. “An agreement between an employee and the employer stating that the employer will neither Join nor participate in union activities as a condition of employment” is called: 

(1) Union Shop Contract

(2) Employment Contract

(3) Yellow – dog Contract

(4) Business Contract

Answer: (All)

72. Assertion (A): Some of the earliest piece of Labour Legislation in India appear to have been enacted to protect the interest of the employers.

Reason (R): The policy of the Government was to protect the social system rather than to protect workers.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.

(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

(3) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is right.

(4) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A).

Answer: (2)

73. The Managerial Grid Theory was propounded by Blake and Mouton (1978), having popular application of both Task, and Person Orientation. Each leader can be rated somewhere along each of the axes from 1 to 9 depending on his/her orientation.

Which of the following descriptions given below refers to ‘The Leader’?

(1) The leader reflects middle ground position.

(2) The leader is extremely concerned about the task and also the people.

(3) The leader is primarily concerned for people and only incidently concerned with production.

(4) The leader is concerned with neither production nor people.

Answer: (All)

74. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, if deductions are made for payments to co-operative societies, the maximum deductions for any wage period for any employed person shall not exceed:

(1) Fifty percent

(2) Sixty percent

(3) Seventy five percent

(4) Eighty percent

Answer: (3)

75. Which of the following authorities is not an adjudicatory body under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

(1) Labour Court

(2) Industrial Tribunal

(3) National Tribunal

(4) Arbitration

Answer: (4)

76. Which of the following countries does/do not figure in the list of Nations of Chief Industrial Importance that hold permanent membership in the Governing Body of ILO?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Russian Federation

(c) Mexico

(d) Brazil

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

77. In which year the first indication of industrial unrest and earliest work stoppage came to the fore in India at the initiative of weavers of Empress Mills, Nagpur?

(1) 1877

(2) 1878

(3) 1879

(4) 1881

Answer: (1)

78. Which of the following characteristics of Transactional and Transformational Leaders are not correctly matched?

Leader

Characteristic

(a) Transaction leader

(b) Transformational leader

(c) Transformational leader

(d) Transactional leader

(e) Transformational leader

Idealised Influence

Management by Exception

Laissez-Faire

Contingent Reward

Intellectual Stimulation

Code:

(1) (a), (b), and (d) only

(2) (c), (d) and (e) only

(3) (a), (b), and (c) only

(4) (a), (d), and (e) only

Answer: (3)

79. The general pattern of behaviour, shared beliefs and values that organisation members have in common is called:

(1) Organisational Climate

(2) Organisational Culture

(3) Organisational Effectiveness

(4) Organisational Structure

Answer: (2)

80. What is the maximum aggregate fine that can be imposed on a Trade Union for continuous default in submitting the returns under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926?

(1) Rs 50

(2) Rs 250

(3) Rs 500

(4) Rs 1000

Answer: (1)

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81. Which of the following is a group incentive plan?

(1) Barth Variable Incentive Plan

(2) Hayne’s Incentive Plan

(3) Rowan Incentive Plan

(4) Scanlon Incentive Plan

Answer: (4)

82. As per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, industrial disputes relating the subject matters covered under Second Schedule and Third Schedule are to be adjudicated upon by the Labour Court and Industrial Tribunal. But under which of the following conditions subject matter covered under the Third Schedule can be referred to the Labour Court for adjudication?

(1) If it is not likely to affect more than one hundred workmen.

(2) If the dispute has been raised by a trade union not registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926.

(3) If it is likely to affect more than one hundred workmen.

(4) If the dispute has been raised by the recognised trade union.

Answer: (1)

83. Which one of the following methods is not a Behavioural method of performance appraisal?

(1) Balanced score card method

(2) Critical incident method

(3) Assessment centre method

(4) Behavioural check list method

Answer: (1)

84. Match List – I with List – II and select answer codes given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Frank B. Gilbreth

(b) Max Weber

(c) F.W. Taylor

(d) Hugomunsterberg

(i) Theory of bureaucracy

(ii) Time and Motion studies

(iii) Application of Psychology to Industry and Management

(iv) Scientific Management

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (2)

85. A factory has engaged two hundred fifty workers/workmen. If the employer wants to retrench any workman who has completed one year of continuous service in the establishment, then which of the conditions are to be followed by the employer under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

(a) It has to serve three months notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wage for the notice period.

(b) It has to serve one month notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wage for the notice period.

(c) Notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government.

(d) Prior Permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application made in this behalf.

(e) Pay retrenchment compensation at the rate of fifteen days average pay for every completed year of continuous service or any part there of in excess of six months.

Code:

(1) (a), (c) and (e) only

(2) (a), (d) and (e) only

(3) (a) and (e) only

(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only

Answer: (2)

86. Which of the following central organisations of labour was not a signatory to the Inter-Union Code of Conduct, 1958?

(1) INTUC

(2) BMS

(3) HMS

(4) AITUC

Answer: (2)

87. Which one of the following is not a health provision under the Factories Act, 1948?

(1) Cleanliness

(2) Drinking water

(3) Latrines and Urinals

(4) First-aid appliances

Answer: (4)

88. Among the following who is known for scientific selection of workers and “Harmonious Co-operation between labour and management”:

(1) Gilbreth

(2) Elton Mayo

(3) Max Weber

(4) Henry L. Gantt

Answer: (4)

89. An employee engaged in an industrial establishment draws wages of Rs 20,500/- per month. What is the amount of bonus to be paid to him if it is paid at the rate of 10% by the employer for an accounting year under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?

(1) Rupees Nine thousand two hundred only.

(2) Rupees Eight thousand four hundred only.

(3) Rupees Ten thousand two hundred fifty only.

(4) Rupees Nine thousand six hundred only.

Answer: (2)

90. What is the amount of compensation to be paid to an employee suffering from permanent total disablement under the provisions of the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923? (Hintsmonthly wage under drawn was Rs 15,000 and relevant factor 159.80)

(1) Rs 10,38,200

(2) Rs 11,98,500

(3) Rs 6,39,200

(4) Rs 7,67,040

Answer: (4)

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91. Which one of the following falls under ‘Dry promotion’ category?

(1) responsibilities remain the same but pay increases.

(2) responsibilities increase but there is no increase in the pay.

(3) responsibilities reduce but pay remains the same.

(4) responsibilities reduce but pay increases.

Answer: (2)

92. The displacement allowance to be paid by the contractor to every inter-state migrant workman at the time of recruitment as per the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 shall be equal to:

(1) Fifty percent of the monthly wages payable to him or seventy five rupees whichever is higher.

(2) Seventy five percent of the monthly wages payable to him or one hundred rupees whichever is higher.

(3) Sixty percent of the monthly wages payable to him or Seventy five rupees whichever is higher.

(4) Fifty percent of the monthly wages payable to him or one hundred rupees whichever is higher.

Answer: (1)

93. According to which of the following methods of human resource accounting present value of future earning of human resources is taken into account?

(1) Standard cost method

(2) Economic value method

(3) Opportunity cost method

(4) Replacement cost method

Answer: (2)

94. The record keeping functions for the purpose of the Unorganised Worker’s Social Security Act, 2008 shall be performed by:

(1) The Labour Directorate of the State

(2) The District Administration

(3) The State Social Security Board

(4) The Department of Labour of the State

Answer: (2)

95. The control based on norms, shared values, expected behaviour, and other cultural variables in an organisation is known as:

(1) Bureaucratic Control

(2) System Control

(3) Tailoring Control

(4) Clan Control

Answer: (4)

96. Multinational Corporations are categorised into four categories namely multidomestic, global, international, and transnational on the basis of their response to two factors namely; global integration and national responsiveness. Keeping this in view match the type of Multinationals given in List-A with their respective characteristics given in List-B.

List-A

List-B

(a) Multidomestic

(b) Global

(c) International

(d) Transnational

(i) High national responsiveness, and high global integration

(ii) High national responsiveness and low global integration

(iii High global integration and low national responsiveness

(iv) Low to moderate global integration and low to moderate national responsiveness

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii)

Answer: (1)

97. In UK, when the parties to a dispute fail to settle their dispute through collective bargaining and having exhausted all internal procedures available to them in their establishments for settlement of disputes, can seek settlement through __________.

(1) Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Services.

(2) Central Arbitration Committee

(3) House of Lords

(4) Employment Appeal Tribunals

Answer: (1)

98. “The state shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organisations engaged in any industry”.

The above statement was provided under:

(1) Article 43A of Constitution (42 Amendment) Act, 1976. 

(2) Article 19(C) of the Indian Constitution

(3) Convention No. 11 of I.L.O.

(4) Article 14 of the Indian Constitution

Answer: (1)

99. Assertion (A): With the evoluation of industrial and employment relations in the face of rapid changes and significant advances in technology among other things, collective bargaining became an instrument of social change.

Reason (R): Shifts in the labour and product markets created pressures as well as opportunities for a new approach.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is correct.

(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is a proper explanation of Assertion (A).

(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong.

(4) Reason (R) is not an explanation of Assertion (A).

Answer: (2)

100. Which of the following statements relating to the system of collective bargaining in United Kingdom is true?

(a) It is covered under the Trade Unions and Labour Relations Act, 1974.

(b) It is covered under the Trade Unions and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act, 1992.

(c) It is covered under the Employment Relations Act, 1999.

(d) It is not covered under any legislation.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (d) only

Answer: (4)

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam.

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