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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Psychology Previous Year Paper with Answers

Practicing Previous Year Papers can help you in many ways in your exam preparation. In this article we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Psychology July 2018 Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.

Nov 22, 2019 12:40 IST
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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Psychology Previous Year Paper with Answers
UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Psychology Previous Year Paper with Answers

To crack NTA UGC NET December 2019 Psychology Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of UGC NET Psychology Exam. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Psychology Previous Year Paper held on 8th July, 2018 alongwith their answers.

UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Psychology Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. In Erikson’s theory, which psycho-social crises preceed and succeed Autonomy v/s Shame:

(1) Basic trust v/s mistrust and Industry v/s Inferiority.

(2) Initiative v/s Guilt and Industry v/s Inferiority.

(3) Industry v/s Inferiority and Identity v/s Role confusion.

(4) Basic trust v/s mistrust and Initiative v/s Guilt.

Answer: (4)

2. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Horner found high level of motive to avoid success or fear of success in females.

Reason (R): As a result of success, the threat of social rejection and fear concerning perceived lack of feminity are aroused in women.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List - I (Concept)

List - II (Explanation)

(a) Life Space

(i) Unlearned fixed stereotyped pattern of activity.

(b) Instinctual Behaviour

(ii) Psychological reality depicting the totality of facts that determine behaviour at a moment in true. It counts of environment as perceived by the person.

(c) Vacuum Behaviour

(iii) Tendency to resume the previously unfinished task during intervening period.

(d) Task Resumption

(iv) Behaviour patterns that appear when the sign stimulus is not identifiable.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (2)

4. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Perceived fairness of the interpersonal treatment is used to determine organizational outcomes.

Reason (R): People expect informational transparency and respect in organizations. 

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

5. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List - I (Concept)

List - II (Explanation)

(a) Episodic retrieval

(i) Physical environment at retrieval matching that at encoding.

(b) Context –dependent retrieval

(ii) Mood at retrieval matching that at encoding.

(c) State –dependent retrieval

(iii) Retrieval stimulated by hints from the external and internal environment.

(d) Cue –dependent retrieval

(iv) Subsequent reactivation of stored memory traces.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (4)

6. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Rational persuation refers to the use of logical arguments and facts to persuade others for achieving a desired result.

Reason (R): Managers use several techniques to influence others in organizations.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

7. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List - I (Concept)

List - II (Explanation)

(a) Counter –conditioning

(i) After conditioning, a new CS (B) when paired with already conditioned stimulus CS (A) and presented as a compound stimulus, little or no conditioning occurs to CS (B).

(b) Blocking

(ii) Elimination of undesirable behaviour by pairing CS with US other than the one that originally reinforced that behaviour.

(c) Overshadowing

(iii) Inhibition of conditioned response caused by conditioned emotional response.

(d) Conditioned Suppression

(iv) While using compound CS where one of its component is more salient than the other, only the salient component is conditional.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (2)

8. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List-I (Concept)

List-II (Explanation)

(a) Convergence

(i) If you see a distant mountain range on a crystal -clear day it looks like it was only a few miles away.

(b) Frame of reference

(ii) When the two images are fused into one overall image.

(c) Stereoscopic vision

(iii) When we look at a distant object the lines of vision from our eyes are parallel. Looking at a nearby object the eyes turn in.

(d) Aerial perspective

(iv) An internal perspective relative to which events are perceived.

Code:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (2)

9. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Perception remains constant although the proximal sensation changes.

Reason (R): Our perceptual system has mechanisms that adjust our perception of the proximal stimulus.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

10. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Concept)

List –II (Description)

(a) Physiological Psychology

(i) Studies the psychological effects of brain damage in human patients.

(b) Neuropsychology

(ii) Studies the neural mechanisms of behaviour by manipulating the nervous systems of non-human animals in controlled experiments.

(c) Psychophysiology

(iii) Studies the relation between physiological activity and psychological processes in human subjects by non-invasive physiological recording.

(d) Cognitive Neuroscience

(iv) Studies the neural mechanisms of human cognition, mainly by using functional brain imaging techniques.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (3)

11. Which of the following explains the Threshold Hypothesis regarding Intelligence – Creativity relationship?

(1) There is a positive correlation between Intelligence and Creativity.

(2) There is a positive correlation between Intelligence and Creativity upto a particular level of Intelligence.

(3) There is a positive correlation between Intelligence and Creativity beyond a particular level of Intelligence.

(4) There is a negative correlation between Intelligence and Creativity beyond a particular level of Intelligence.

Answer: (2)

12. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Concept)

List –II (Description)

(a) Concordance

(i) Percentage of cases in which, if specific gene is present, a particular trait, characteristic or disease will actually manifest itself in the fully developed organism.

(b) Penetrance

(ii) Relationship between twins or other family members with respect to a given trait.

(c) Prevalence

(iii) Number of new cases of specific condition or disease that arise during a particular period of time.

(d) Incidence

(iv) Frequency of occurrence of a given condition among a certain population at a particular point of time.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (3)

13. Which of the following significant changes have been incorporated in DSM-5?

(a) The title of the manual is not DSM-V, but DSM-5, a deliberate shift from traditional Roman numerals used in previous editions toward Arabic numerals.

(b) Multiaxial Assessment System – a central feature of DSM since its introduction in DSM – III in 1980, has been dropped altogether from DSM-5.

(c) DSM-5 authors have overhauled the manual to emphasise neuropsychological or biological roots of mental disorders.

(d) DSM-5 authors have removed 5 of 10 personality disorders previously included in that section. Dropped disorders are paranoid, schizoid, histrionic, dependent and narcissistic personality disorders.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c) are correct; (d) is incorrect.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct; (a) is incorrect.

(3) (a) and (b) are correct; (c) and (d) are incorrect.

(4) (c) and (d) are correct; (a) and (b) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

14. Which one of the trait theories/models is/are NOT based on factor analytic methodology?

(a) Allport’s Theory

(b) Costa and McCrae’s Model

(c) Goldberg’s Model

(d) Eysenck’s Theory

Code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (b) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

15. The factors that operate with deep levels of processing are:

(a) Distinctiveness

(b) Sameness

(c) Elaboration

(d) Physical contours

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

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16. Observation learning involves following processes. Arrange them in the correct sequence: 

(a) Attentional processes

(b) Retention processes

(c) Production processes

(d) Motivational processes

Code:

(1) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d)

(2) (a) → (d) → (b) → (c)

(3) (d) → (a) → (b) → (c)

(4) (a) → (b) → (d) → (c)

Answer: (1)

17. Key issues in the study of environmental effects on intelligence are:

(a) Reaction Range

(b) Proximal and Distal Causation

(c) Colinearity

(d) Environment Sphere

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (a), (b) and (d) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

18. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): According to two factor theory, cognitive appraisal of cues in the environment helps the individual label the emotions.

Reason (R): An individual is aroused when he confronts any emotion producing event. 

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

19. Whether we can be affected by stimuli that remain outside our conscious awareness has been examined by researches using a technique called:

(1) Cuing

(2) Visualization

(3) Imagery

(4) Priming

Answer: (4)

20. Which of the following sequences depicts Erikson’s stages of development correctly? 

(1) Oral Sensory → Muscular anal → Locomotor genital → Latency → Adolescence → Adulthood.

(2) Muscular anal → Oral Sensory → Locomotor genital → Latency → Adolescence → Adulthood.

(3) Oral Sensory → Muscular anal → Latency → Locomotor genital → Adolescence → Adulthood.

(4) Muscular anal → Locomotor genital → Oral Sensory → Latency → Adolescence → Adulthood.

Answer: (1)

21. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Concept)

List –II (Description)

(a) Magnocellular System

(i) Discrimination of fine detail and color

(b) Parvocellular System

(ii) Specialized for brightness contrast and for movement.

(c) Fourier Analysis

(iii) Neurons that fire most when they receive input from both ears at the same time.

(d) Coincidence Detectors

(iv) Analysis of a complex wave into sine wave components.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (3)

22. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Concept)

List –II (Description)

(a) Inductive thought

(i) Thought that is intuitive and haphazard.

(b) Logical thought

(ii) Thought that applies a general set of rules to specific situations.

(c) Deductive thought

(iii) Drawing conclusions on the basis of principles of learning.

(d) Illogical thought

(iv) Thinking in which a principle is inferred from a series of specific examples.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (4)

23. Which of the following personality questionnaires have a lie scale?

(a) Edward Personality Preference Schedule

(b) Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

(c) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Questionnaire

(d) Rotter’s Locus of Control Scale.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

Answer: (3)

24. Read the following statements and describe which are correct:

(a) Archetypes are themes that have existed in all cultures through history.

(b) Personal unconscious is the region next to ego which consists of all the forgotten experiences that have lost their intensity.

(c) Masculine archetype in men is called animus.

(d) Persona is a compromise between demands of the environment and necessities of individuals.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct ; (d) is not correct.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct ; (a) is not correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct ; (c) is not correct.

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct ; and (b) is not correct.

Answer: (3)

25. George Sperling (1960) studied iconic memory using:

(a) Partial-report procedure

(b) Whole-report procedure

(c) Self-report procedure

(d) Backward procedure

Code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (d) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

26. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Sub Test)

List –II (Test)

(a) Visual Puzzles

(i) WAIS - IV

(b) Famous people

(ii) Kauffman Adult Intelligence Test (KAIT).

(c) Matrix Task

(iii) Cognitive Assessment System (CAS)

(d) Matrix Patterns

(iv) Otis-Lennon Test

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (1)

27. Which of the following terms explains the Reinforcement which is given only if a specific response is made?

(1) Concurrent Reinforcement

(2) Incremental Reinforcement

(3) Contingency Contract

(4) Contingent Reinforcement

Answer: (4)

28. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): A person scored high on Hope of Success (as measured by TAT) and high on Fear of Failure (as measured by Mandler and Sarason’s TAQ). As per Atkinson’s theory, his resultant achievement motivation will be intermediate.

Reason (R): As per Atkinson, the resultant achievement motivation is a product of Hope of Success and Fear of Failure.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

29. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Personality factors such as D, J, K and P are not incorporated in Cattell’s 16 PF test.

Reason (R): Some personality factors appeared only in Life – data (L-data) measures. 

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

30. During which stage most of the creative thinking occurs?

(1) Preparation

(2) Incubation

(3) Illumination

(4) Evaluation

Answer: (2)

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31. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Concept)

List –II (Explanation)

(a) Disjunctive Concept

(i) A class of objects that have two or more features in common.

(b) Prototype

(ii) Showing relationship between object and surroundings.

(c) Conjunctive Concept

(iii) Showing the presence of at least one of several possible features.

(d) Relational Concept

(iv) An ideal model referring to a particular concept.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (2)

32. Chimpanzee Sarah’s one of the most outstanding achievements was the construction of sentences involving:

(1) Negation

(2) Conditional relationship

(3) Adult grammar

(4) Unprompted questions

Answer: (2)

33. In a typical ‘Learning’ experiment which of the following are used as dependent variables?

(a) Probability of Response

(b) Latency

(c) Rate of Presentation

(d) Trials to Extinction

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (4)

34. Explanation of the moon illusion given by __________ is, “The horizon seems more distant than the night sky.”

(1) Perceptual learning hypothesis

(2) Expectancy hypothesis

(3) Apparent – distance hypothesis

(4) Frame of reference hypothesis

Answer: (3)

35. Absorptive phase of energy mobilization involves the following events. Arrange them in the correct sequence.

(a) Glucose increases.

(b) Parasympathetic activation.

(c) Pancreas secretes insulin.

(d) Glucose enters the body cells.

(e) Glucose is stored in liver and muscles as glycogen.

(f) Fat stored in adipose cells as triglycerides.

Code:

(1) (a) → (b) → (c) → (e) → (d) → (f)

(2) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d) → (e) → (f)

(3) (a) → (c) → (b) → (d) → (f) → (e)

(4) (a) → (d) → (b) → (f) → (e) → (c)

Answer: (2)

36. In a multiple regression analysis, the three predictors explained 49 percent variance in the criterion variable. What would be the value of multiple correlation?

(1) 0.30

(2) 0.49

(3) 0.51

(4) 0.70

Answer: (4)

37. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): The analysis of time series designs often involve the problem of auto correlation.

Reason (R): Quasi – experiments, as compared to laboratory experiments, do not control secondary variance efficiently.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

38. Future oriented performance appraisal techniques consist of: 

(a) MBO

(b) 3608 Appraisal

(c) Psychological Appraisal

(d) BARS

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

39. In group counselling, what is the correct sequence of stages of group development?

(a) Forming

(b) Norming

(c) Mourning

(d) Storming

(e) Performing

Code:

(1) (b) → (c) → (a) → (e) → (d)

(2) (a) → (d) → (b) → (e) → (c)

(3) (a) → (c) → (e) → (b) → (d)

(4) (d) → (a) → (b) → (c) → (e)

Answer: (2)

40. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Pre-operational child is incapable of performing operations.

Reason (R): Pre-operational child cannot mentally re-arrange a sequence of events into reverse order.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

41. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): For extraversion, monozygotic twins correlated more than the dizygotic twins.

Reason (R): Extraversion has genetic basis.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

42. During autobiographical recall, we often reveal a __________, as a consequence, our memory of the past may be __________.

(1) inconsistency bias; distorted

(2) consistency bias; distorted

(3) inconsistency bias; enhanced

(4) consistency bias; enhanced

Answer: (2)

43. Persons with a leison at the ventromedial nucleus are likely to:

(1) Overeat

(2) Undereat

(3) Eat normally

(4) Eat normally or undereat

Answer: (1)

44. The percepts are based on:

(a) What we sense

(b) What we know

(c) What we infer

(d) What we conform

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

45. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Concept)

List - II (Explanation)

(a) Phrenology

(i) Field that locates areas of the brain responsible for Specific aspects of emotional and behaviour functioning.

(b) Selective Breeding

(ii) An approach to establish genetic –behaviour relationship through mating of successive generations with a particular trait.

(C) Plasticity

(iii) Ability of parts of neurobiological system to change temporarily and for extended period time.

(d) Twin studies

(iv) An approach to establish of genetic – behaviour relationship through the comparison degree of similarity among identical twins fraternal twins and non-twins Siblings.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (1)

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Instructions for Questions 46 to 50.

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions which follow:

A researcher in experimental psychology hypothesized that a particular ‘Reward System’ for fast reactions would improve the reaction time. To verify this hypothesis, he selected forty subjects in the age range of 25 to 35 years from an organization. Following the standard reaction time experiment, he measured the simple reaction time without the reward system. While taking each trial in the experiment, the time-interval between the ready signal and the onset of stimulus was randomly varied between two to five seconds. In the second part of the experiment, the reward system was introduced and the simple reaction time was measured again for the same subjects. The mean reaction time before the introduction of reward system was 210 milliseconds and the mean reaction time after the introduction of reward system was 250 milliseconds. The difference between the two means was statistically significant at .01 level. 

46. In the above study, the researcher’s hypothesis is:

(1) Correlational hypothesis

(2) Directional hypothesis

(3) Non-directional hypothesis

(4) Null hypothesis

Answer: (2)

47. Which of the following statistical techniques can be used for evaluating the mean differences?

(a) Independent samples t-test

(b) Paired samples t-test

(c) Mann-Whitney U-test

(d) Repeated measures ANOVA

Code:

(1) (b) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

48. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the above study?

(1) The researcher’s hypothesis has been accepted.

(2) The researcher’s hypothesis has been rejected.

(3) The researcher’s hypothesis has been partially accepted.

(4) Inadequate hypothesis to verify the hypothesis.

Answer: (2)

49. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): In the above study, the foreperiods were randomly varied.

Reason (R): Random variation of the foreperiods reduces the false reactions.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

50. In this experiment, reaction time can be labelled as:

(a) Continuous variable

(b) Dependent variable

(c) Stimulus variable

(d) Behavioural variable

Code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (4)

51. In Vertebrates, myelin is produced in the brain and spinal cord by __________, and in rest of nervous system by __________.

(1) Oligodendrocytes ; Schwann cells

(2) Schwann cells ; Oligodendrocytes

(3) Astrocytes ; Microglia

(4) Microglia ; Astrocytes

Answer: (1)

52. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Algorithm is a logical rule that guarantees solving a particular problem.

Reason (R): One can find the solution even to complex problems by following step by step procedure.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

53. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List - I (Personality tests)

List - II (Dimensions covered)

(a) EPQ-R

(i) Need for power

(b) NEO- PI-3

(ii) Psychoticism

(c) TAT

(iii) Anxiety as a state

(d) STAI

(iv) Openness to experience

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (1)

54. The basic speech sounds are called __________ ; and the meaningful smallest units of speech are called __________.

(1) Phonemes ; Fixation

(2) Phonemes ; Lexigram

(3) Morphemes ; Phonemes

(4) Phonemes ; Morphemes

Answer: (4)

55. Which of the following concept/s is/are not found in Freudian Psychoanalysis?

(a) Unconscious motivation

(b) Collective unconscious

(c) Striving for superiority

(d) Instincts

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

56. Tests of declarative memory are termed as __________ tests, whereas tests of non-declarative memory are termed as __________ tests.

(1) Long-term memory ; explicit memory

(2) Short-term memory ; implicit memory

(3) Implicit memory ; explicit memory

(4) Explicit memory ; implicit memory

Answer: (4)

57. Which method is used for memorising a poem?

(1) Massed practice

(2) Distributed practice

(3) Serial memorising

(4) Syntactic memorising

Answer: (2)

58. __________ makes neurons stand out visibly depicting which neurons are active ; whereas __________ uses antibodies attached to a dye to identify cellular components such as receptors,  neurotransmitters, or enzymes.

(1) Immunocytochemistry ; Autoradiography

(2) Autoradiography ; Immunocytochemistry

(3) Myelin staining ; Nissl Staining

(4) Nissl Staining ; Myelin Staining

Answer: (2)

59. Which of the following are predictors of good prognosis in Schizophrenia.

(a) Positive symptoms

(b) Late onset

(c) Acute onset

(d) No precipitating factors

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct ; (d) is incorrect

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct ; (a) is incorrect

(3) (c), (d) and (b) are correct ; (a) is incorrect

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct ; (b) is incorrect

Answer: (4)

60. The body’s response to danger is triggered by the release of __________ by the __________ glands.

(1) Acetylcholine ; adrenal

(2) Epinephrine and norepinephrine; adrenal

(3) Acetylcholine ; pituitary

(4) Epinephrine and norepinephrine; pituitary

Answer: (2)

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61. Which of the following is the characteristic of Mastery-Oriented Students?

(1) They see ability as improvable.

(2) They feel competent when they succeed.

(3) They feel worthless when they fail.

(4) They set unrealistically high goals.

Answer: (1)

62. A child’s cognitive transition from external influences to internal thoughts occurs in four stages. What is the correct order of this transition?

(a) Naive Stage

(b) Natural / Primitive Stage

(c) Ego-centric speech Stage

(d) Ingrowth Stage

Code:

(1) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d)

(2) (b) → (a) → (c) → (d)

(3) (a) → (b) → (d) → (c)

(4) (b) → (a) → (d) → (c)

Answer: (2)

63. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Psychologist)

List –II (Concept)

(a) Bruner

(i) Conservation

(b) Vygotsky

(ii) Iconic mode of representation

(c) Sternberg

(iii) Scaffolding

(d) Piaget

(iv) Componential Analysis

Code:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (1)

64. Which of the following issues are addressed in the field of Personality Psychology:

(a) Human Universals

(b) Individual Differences

(c) Uniqueness

(d) Modification of Behaviour

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) Only

(2) (b) and (c) Only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) Only

(4) (b), (c) and (d) Only

Answer: (3)

65. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List – I (Psychologist)

List –II (Concept)

(a) Thorndike

(i) Equipotentiality premise

(b) Pavlov

(ii) Cortical Mosaic

(c) Wertheimer

(iii) Neural Bond

(d) Seligman

(iv) Isomorphism

Code:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (3)

66. In case of visual stimulus “Where” pathways in the brain are mainly responsible for processing:

(a) Location

(b) Colour

(c) Motion

(d) Shape

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

67. Which of the following sequences describes the Cranial Nerves in ascending order?

(1) Optic → Trochlear → Abducens → Auditory – Vestibular → Vagus

(2) Trochlear → Optic → Auditory – Vestibular → Abducens → Vagus

(3) Optic → Abducens → Trochlear → Vagus → Auditory – Vestibular

(4) Abducens → Trochlear → Optic → Auditory – Vestibular → Vagus

Answer: (1)

68. Many psychologists played pivotal role in the emergence of the field of Social Psychology. 

Arrange them in correct chronological sequence.

(1) F. Allport; William McDougall; Kurt Lewin; Muzafer Sherif.

(2) Kurt Lewin; William McDougall; Muzafer Sherif; F. Allport.

(3) William McDougall; F. Allport; Kurt Lewin; Muzafer Sherif.

(4) F. Allport; William McDougall; Muzafer Sherif; Kurt Lewin.

Answer: (3)

69. Kinship Selection Theory suggests that we help others who are related to us because this increases the likelihood that our __________ shall be __________ to future __________. 

(1) Character; transferred; population.

(2) Genes; transmitted; population.

(3) Genes; transmitted; generation.

(4) Genes; transferred; population.

Answer: (3)

70. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Results of experimental studies of bilateral lesion effects are considered more promising than those of unilateral lesions.

Reason (R): Behaviour effects of bilateral lesions are milder than those of unilateral lesions.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

71. Which of the following are the basic forms of intelligence in Triarchic Theory?

(a) Dimensional

(b) Componential

(c) Contextual

(d) Experiential

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (a), (b) and (d) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

72. In a single factor repeated measures design, the F-ratio, evaluating the effect of independent variable (treatment) is evaluated as:

(1) MStreatment/MSsubjects

(2) MStreatment/MStreatment×subjects

(3) MStreatment/(MSsubjects)+(MStreatment×subjects)

(4) MStreatment/MStotal

Answer: (2)

73. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List – I (Leadership style)

List –II (Description)

(a) Task Management

(i) Less focus on both production and workers.

(b) Team Management

(ii) More Focus on both production and workers.

(c) Impoverished Management

(iii) Less focus on production but more on workers.

(d) Country Club Management

(iv) More focus on production but less on workers.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (4)

74. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Behaviour therapy helps people to respond to life situations in the way they would like to respond.

Reason (R): Positive therapeutic relationship is a necessary but not sufficient condition for effective behaviour therapy.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

75. Decentration and reversible thought processes are the characteristics of which of the following stage?

(1) Sensory – Motor

(2) Pre – Operational

(3) Concrete – Operational

(4) Formal Operations

Answer: (3)

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76. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from codes given below:

List – I (Concept)

List –II (Explanation)

(a) Central executive

(i) Helps us in playing videogames, jigsaw puzzles, etc.

(b) Visuospatial sketchpad

(ii) Helps us in solving new problems and plan future activities.

(c) Episodic buffer

(iii) Helps us decide what to do next and what not to do.

(d) Phonological loop

(iv) Helps us in reading and mathematical calculations.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (2)

77. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): Working memory is like a workbench where material is constantly being handled, combined and transformed.

Reason (R): Both new material and old material retrieved from long-term memory are held in working memory.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

78. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Galton developed anthropometric tests of intelligence.

Reason (R): Psychometric tests were low in reliability and validity.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

79. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Proprioceptive stimuli result from the firing of the kinesthetic receptors in the muscles, joints and tendons of the body.

Reason (R): A response is conditioned to the stimuli present prior to the ingestion of a primary reinforcer.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

80. Activation of anterior portions of both hemispheres is associated with the __________ of emotions, while activation of the posterior portions of the hemispheres is associated with __________ .

(1) expressions; moods

(2) valence; arousal

(3) intensity; expressions

(4) arousal; valence

Answer: (2)

81. Signal detection theory identifies two distinct processes in sensory detection:

(a) sensory process

(b) decision process

(c) motivational process

(d) response bias

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) and (d) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

82. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Visual Simple Reaction Time is more than Auditory Simple Reaction Time.

Reason (R): Visual system involves more complex photochemical processes.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

83. Creative thinking is different from routine problem solving in respect of: 

(a) Fluency

(b) Flexibility

(c) Originality

(d) Day dreaming

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

84. The Wechsler type deviation IQ of 115 corresponds to which value of percentile rank?

(1) 68

(2) 84

(3) 90

(4) 9

Answer: (2)

85. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below:

List –I (Term)

List –II (Description)

(a) Conformity

(i) Rules indicating how individuals are expected to behave in a specific situation.

(b) Compliance

(ii) Social influence involving direct request from other

(c) Social Norms

(iii) Social influence wherein individuals change their attitude to go along with existing norms.

(d) Intense indoctorinization

(iv) Process in which members of extreme group accept the beliefs and rules in unquestioning way.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer: (3)

86. Spatial processing of location relies on:

(a) Dorsal pathway

(b) Inferior temporal cortex

(c) Subcortical pathway

(d) Ventral pathway

Code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (d) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

87. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Jensen has put forward Regression argument in favour of his theory.

Reason (R): Children of parents having very high intelligence levels will have below average intelligence scores.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

88. Handling feelings appropriately, ability to soothe oneself, and ability to shake off rampant anxiety are the characteristics of which of the components of Emotional Intelligence as proposed by Goleman?

(1) Knowing one’s emotions

(2) Managing emotions

(3) Motivating oneself

(4) Handling relationships

Answer: (2)

89. Which of the following new disorders have been introduced in DSM-5?

(a) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

(b) Mild Neurocognitive Disorder

(c) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

(d) Road Rage Behaviour Disorder

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct ; (d) is incorrect.

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct ; (c) is incorrect.

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct ; (b) is incorrect.

(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (1)

90. In selection process, Guilford – Zimmerman Test assesses:

(1) Mathematical and Verbal skills.

(2) Mental and Personal profile.

(3) Extent of temperamental adaptability.

(4) Analytical and Verbal Skills.

Answer: (3)

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91. ‘Mechanistic Behaviour Analyses’ are characterised as:

(a) Behaviour is instigated by the onset of external or internal stimuli.

(b) Direction of behaviour is determined by S-R bonds or habits.

(c) Behaviour directed toward the goal persists till the achievement of goal.

(d) Events related to the goal achievement are encoded, categorised, and transformed into a belief.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) correct ; (c) and (d) are incorrect.

(2) (b) and (c) correct ; (a) and (d) are incorrect.

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct ; (d) is incorrect.

(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct ; (a) is incorrect.

Answer: (3)

92. Guilford (1981) in his modified SOI model mentioned hierarchical structure of intellectual abilities reporting that there are __________ first order factors ; __________ second order factors; and __________ third order factors.

(1) 150 ; 85 ; 20

(2) 120 ; 80 ; 20

(3) 150 ; 85 ; 16

(4) 180 ; 75 ; 18

Answer: (3)

93. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Children have remarkable ability to create mental representation of the world in the form of language.

Reason (R): Reasoning and problem solving are the ways of manipulating the ideas.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

94. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Forgetting of everyday events in young people is not an indication of a poor memory.

Reason (R): Ineffective encoding due to failure to attend to an event while it is happening results in failure to remember.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

95. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): Premack principle, based on Probability-Differential Hypothesis, states that the opportunity to engage in a frequently occurring activity can be used to reinforce less frequently activity.

Reason (R): According to Probability-Differential Hypothesis, restricted access to a response makes that response reinforcing and excessive access to that response makes that response punishing.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

Instructions for questions 96 to 100:

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions which follow:

An educational psychologist wanted to develop an achievement test in physics for graduate students. After going through the usual test construction procedure, he retained 100 items; each item having five alternatives, one of them being correct. The psychologist wanted to examine the factor structure of the resulting achievement test. Using a sample of 1,000 subjects, the psychologist obtained the inter-item correlations. He obtained the initial estimates of communality and then decided to factor analyze the inter-item correlations matrix by following the common-factor model. He extracted the unrotated factors and retained the first nine factors for rotaion. The nine unrotated factors explained 67.5 percent of variance. After factor rotation, all the inter-factor correlations were found to be zero. The factor structure of the achievement test of physics was found to be
interpretable.

96. The inter-item correlations would be:

(1) Biserial correlations

(2) Kendall’s tau

(3) Phi-coefficients

(4) Point-biserial correlations

Answer: (3)

97. Read each of the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer using code given below:

Assertion (A): For the factor analysis of item scores, Common-Factor model is quite often more suitable.

Reason (R): Item scores are quite often less reliable than the psychometrically measured trait variables.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

98. Which one of the following method of factor extraction, the psychologist would NOT use in the present study?

(1) Principal axes method

(2) Principal components method

(3) Psychometric (alpha) factor analysis

(4) Maximum likelihood method

Answer: (2)

99. Which method/s of rotation has/have most probably been used in the present study?

(a) Oblimin

(b) Promax

(c) Quartimax

(d) Varimax

Code:

(1) (a) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

100. The second-order factor analysis of the nine rotated factors is not recommended in the present study because:

(1) There are only nine first-order factors.

(2) The interfactor correlations are zero.

(3) The factors obtained by common-factor model are not subjected to second-order factor analysis.

(4) Unrotated factors are more suitable for second-order factor analysis.

Answer: (2)

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